eHam.net Practice Exam -

Which insulating material commonly used as a thermal conductor for some types of electronic devices is extremely toxic if broken or crushed and the particles are accidentally inhaled?
A. Mica
B. Zinc oxide
C. Beryllium Oxide
D. Uranium Hexaflouride

E1A06 [97.303]

What is the maximum power output permitted on the 60 meter band?
A. 50 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to an isotropic radiator
B. 50 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to a dipole
C. 100 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to an isotropic radiator
D. 100 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to a dipole

E1B12 [97.407]

What are the frequencies authorized to an amateur station participating in RACES during a period when the President's War Emergency Powers are in force?
A. All frequencies in the amateur service authorized to the control operator
B. Specific amateur service frequency segments authorized in FCC Part 214
C. Specific local government channels
D. Military Affiliate Radio System (MARS) channels

E1C03 [97.3, 97.109]

How do the control operator responsibilities of a station under automatic control differ from one under local control?
A. Under local control there is no control operator
B. Under automatic control the control operator is not required to be present at the control point
C. Under automatic control there is no control operator
D. Under local control a control operator is not required to be present at a control point

E1D06 [97.207]

Which of the following special provisions must a space station incorporate in order to comply with space station requirements?
A. The space station must be capable of effecting a cessation of transmissions by telecommand when so ordered by the FCC
B. The space station must cease all transmissions after 5 years
C. The space station must be capable of changing its orbit whenever such a change is ordered by NASA
D. The station call sign must appear on all sides of the spacecraft

E1E11 [97.509]

What should a VE do if a candidate fails to comply with the examiner?s instructions during an amateur operator license examination?
A. Warn the candidate that continued failure to comply will result in termination of the examination
B. Immediately terminate the candidate?s examination
C. Allow the candidate to complete the examination, but invalidate the results
D. Immediately terminate everyone?s examination and close the session

E1F15 [97.201]

Who may be the control operator of an auxiliary station?
A. Any licensed amateur operator
B. Only Technician, General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators
C. Only General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators
D. Only Amateur Extra Class operators

E2A14

What happens to a satellite's transmitted signal due to the Doppler Effect?
A. The signal strength is reduced as the satellite passes overhead
B. The signal frequency shifts lower as the satellite passes overhead
C. The signal frequency shifts higher as the satellite passes overhead
D. The polarization of the signal continually rotates

E2B17

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of FMTV (Frequency-Modulated Amateur Television) as compared to vestigial sideband AM television?
A. Immunity from fading due to limiting
B. Poor weak signal performance
C. Greater signal bandwidth
D. Greater complexity of receiving equipment

E2C12

In North America during low sunspot activity, when signals from Europe become weak and fluttery across an entire HF band two to three hours after sunset, what might help to contact other European DX stations?
A. Switch to a higher frequency HF band
B. Switch to a lower frequency HF band
C. Wait 90 minutes or so for the signal degradation to pass
D. Wait 24 hours before attempting another communication on the band

E2D08

Which of the following types of packet frames is used to transmit APRS beacon data?
A. Connect frames
B. Disconnect frames
C. Acknowledgement frames
D. Unnumbered Information frames

E2E11

What is the Baudot code?
A. A code used to transmit data only in modern computer-based data systems using seven data bits
B. A binary code consisting of eight data bits
C. An alternate name for Morse code
D. The International Telegraph Alphabet Number 2 (ITA2) which uses five data bits

E3A05

What transmit and receive time sequencing is normally used on 144 MHz when attempting an EME contact?
A. Two-minute sequences, where one station transmits for a full two minutes and then receives for the following two minutes
B. One-minute sequences, where one station transmits for one minute and then receives for the following one minute
C. Two-and-one-half minute sequences, where one station transmits for a full 2.5 minutes and then receives for the following 2.5 minutes
D. Five-minute sequences, where one station transmits for five minutes and then receives for the following five minutes

E3B05

Which amateur bands typically support long-path propagation?
A. 160 to 40 meters
B. 30 to 10 meters
C. 160 to 10 meters
D. 6 meters to 2 meters

E3C10

How does the performance of a horizontally polarized antenna mounted on the side of a hill compare with the same antenna mounted on flat ground?
A. The main lobe takeoff angle increases in the downhill direction
B. The main lobe takeoff angle decreases in the downhill direction
C. The horizontal beam width decreases in the downhill direction
D. The horizontal beam width increases in the uphill direction

E4A04

Which of the following test instruments is used to display spurious signals from a radio transmitter?
A. A spectrum analyzer
B. A wattmeter
C. A logic analyzer
D. A time-domain reflectometer

E4B11

Which of the following describes a method to measure intermodulation distortion in an SSB transmitter?
A. Modulate the transmitter with two non-harmonically related radio frequencies and observe the RF output with a spectrum analyzer
B. Modulate the transmitter with two non-harmonically related audio frequencies and observe the RF output with a spectrum analyzer
C. Modulate the transmitter with two harmonically related audio frequencies and observe the RF output with a peak reading wattmeter
D. Modulate the transmitter with two harmonically related audio frequencies and observe the RF output with a logic analyzer

E4C13

How does a narrow band roofing filter affect receiver performance?
A. It improves sensitivity by reducing front end noise
B. It improves intelligibility by using low Q circuitry to reduce ringing
C. It improves dynamic range by keeping strong signals near the receive frequency out of the IF stages
D. All of these choice are correct

E4D05

If a receiver tuned to 146.70 MHz receives an intermodulation-product signal whenever a nearby transmitter transmits on 146.52 MHz, what are the two most likely frequencies for the other interfering signal?
A. 146.34 MHz and 146.61 MHz
B. 146.88 MHz and 146.34 MHz
C. 146.10 MHz and 147.30 MHz
D. 73.35 MHz and 239.40 MHz

E4E05

How can noise from an electric motor be suppressed?
A. By installing a ferrite bead on the AC line used to power the motor
B. By installing a brute-force AC-line filter in series with the motor leads
C. By installing a bypass capacitor in series with the motor leads
D. By using a ground-fault current interrupter in the circuit used to power the motor

E5A16

What is the resonant frequency of a parallel RLC circuit if R is 33 ohms, L is 50 microhenrys and C is 10 picofarads?
A. 23.5 MHz
B. 23.5 kHz
C. 7.12 kHz
D. 7.12 MHz

E5B05

How long does it take for an initial charge of 20 V DC to decrease to 7.36 V DC in a 0.01-microfarad capacitor when a 2-megohm resistor is connected across it?
A. 0.02 seconds
B. 0.04 seconds
C. 20 seconds
D. 40 seconds

E5C02

In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 100-ohm-reactance inductor, a 100-ohm-reactance capacitor, and a 100-ohm resistor, all connected in series?
A. 100 ohms at an angle of 90 degrees
B. 10 ohms at an angle of 0 degrees
C. 10 ohms at an angle of 90 degrees
D. 100 ohms at an angle of 0 degrees

E5D02

Why is the resistance of a conductor different for RF currents than for direct currents?
A. Because the insulation conducts current at high frequencies
B. Because of the Heisenburg Effect
C. Because of skin effect
D. Because conductors are non-linear devices

E6A16

What type of semiconductor material contains fewer free electrons than pure germanium or silicon crystals?
A. N-type
B. P-type
C. Superconductor-type
D. Bipolar-type

E6B11

In Figure E6-3, what is the schematic symbol for a light-emitting diode?
A. 1
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7

E6C06

Why do CMOS digital integrated circuits have high immunity to noise on the input signal or power supply?
A. Larger bypass capacitors are used in CMOS circuit design
B. The input switching threshold is about two times the power supply voltage
C. The input switching threshold is about one-half the power supply voltage
D. Input signals are stronger

E6D08

What material property determines the inductance of a toroidal inductor with a 10-turn winding?
A. Core load current
B. Core resistance
C. Core reactivity
D. Core permeability

E6E13

What is the most common package for inexpensive monolithic microwave integrated circuit (MMIC) amplifiers?
A. Beryllium oxide packages
B. Glass packages
C. Plastic packages
D. Ceramic packages

E6F13

What is the most common type of photovoltaic cell used for electrical power generation?
A. Selenium
B. Silicon
C. Cadmium Sulfide
D. Copper oxide

E7A08

What logical operation does a NAND gate perform?
A. It produces a logic "0" at its output only when all inputs are logic "0"
B. It produces a logic "1" at its output only when all inputs are logic "1"
C. It produces a logic "0" at its output if some but not all of its inputs are logic "1"
D. It produces a logic "0" at its output only when all inputs are logic "1"

E7B04

What can be done to prevent unwanted oscillations in a power amplifier?
A. Tune the stage for maximum SWR
B. Tune both the input and output for maximum power
C. Install parasitic suppressors and/or neutralize the stage
D. Use a phase inverter in the output filter

E7C05

Which filter type is described as having ripple in the passband and a sharp cutoff?
A. A Butterworth filter
B. An active LC filter
C. A passive op-amp filter
D. A Chebyshev filter

E7D14

What is one purpose of a "bleeder" resistor in a conventional (unregulated) power supply?
A. To cut down on waste heat generated by the power supply
B. To balance the low-voltage filament windings
C. To improve output voltage regulation
D. To boost the amount of output current

E7E03

What is the fundamental principle of a phase modulator?
A. It varies the tuning of a microphone preamplifier to produce PM signals
B. It varies the tuning of an amplifier tank circuit to produce AM signals
C. It varies the tuning of an amplifier tank circuit to produce PM signals
D. It varies the tuning of a microphone preamplifier to produce AM signals

E7F02

Which of the following would be used to reduce a signal?s frequency by a factor of ten?
A. A preamp
B. A prescaler
C. A marker generator
D. A flip-flop

E7G01

What determines the gain and frequency characteristics of an op-amp RC active filter?
A. The values of capacitors and resistors built into the op-amp
B. The values of capacitors and resistors external to the op-amp
C. The input voltage and frequency of the op-amp's DC power supply
D. The output voltage and smoothness of the op-amp's DC power supply

E7H15

What is the capture range of a phase-locked loop circuit?
A. The frequency range over which the circuit can lock
B. The voltage range over which the circuit can lock
C. The input impedance range over which the circuit can lock
D. The range of time it takes the circuit to lock

E8A05

What would be the most accurate way of measuring the RMS voltage of a complex waveform?
A. By using a grid dip meter
B. By measuring the voltage with a D'Arsonval meter
C. By using an absorption wavemeter
D. By measuring the heating effect in a known resistor

E8B04

What is the modulation index of an FM-phone signal having a maximum carrier deviation of plus or minus 6 kHz when modulated with a 2-kHz modulating frequency?
A. 6000
B. 3
C. 2000
D. 1/3

E8C07

What is the necessary bandwidth of a 170-hertz shift, 300-baud ASCII transmission?
A. 0.1 Hz
B. 0.3 kHz
C. 0.5 kHz
D. 1.0 kHz

E8D18

Which of the following is a typical value for the RMS voltage at a common household electrical power outlet?
A. 120-V AC
B. 340-V AC
C. 85-V AC
D. 170-V AC

E9A02

How much gain does a 1/2-wavelength dipole have compared to an isotropic antenna?
A. 1.55 dB
B. 2.15 dB
C. 3.05 dB
D. 4.30 dB

E9B13

Which of the following is a disadvantage of NEC-based antenna modeling programs?
A. They can only be used for simple wire antennas
B. They are not capable of generating both vertical and horizontal polarization patterns
C. Computing time increases as the number of wire segments is increased
D. All of these answers are correct

E9C03

What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/2-wavelength apart and fed in phase?
A. Omnidirectional
B. A cardioid
C. A Figure-8 broadside to the axis of the array
D. A Figure-8 end-fire along the axis of the array

E9D02

What is one way to produce circular polarization when using linearly polarized antennas?
A. Stack two Yagis, fed 90 degrees out of phase, to form an array with the respective elements in parallel planes
B. Stack two Yagis, fed in phase, to form an array with the respective elements in parallel planes
C. Arrange two Yagis perpendicular to each other with the driven elements at the same point on the boom and fed 90 degrees out of phase
D. Arrange two Yagis collinear to each other, with the driven elements fed 180 degrees out of phase

E9E05

How must the driven element in a 3-element Yagi be tuned to use a hairpin matching system?
A. The driven element reactance must be capacitive
B. The driven element reactance must be inductive
C. The driven element resonance must be lower than the operating frequency
D. The driven element radiation resistance must be higher than the characteristic impedance of the transmission line

E9F07

What characteristic will 450-ohm ladder line have at 50 MHz, as compared to 0.195-inch-diameter coaxial cable (such as RG-58)?
A. Lower loss
B. Higher SWR
C. Smaller reflection coefficient
D. Lower velocity factor

E9G02

What type of coordinate system is used in a Smith chart?
A. Voltage circles and current arcs
B. Resistance circles and reactance arcs
C. Voltage lines and current chords
D. Resistance lines and reactance chords

E9H01

What is the effective radiated power of a repeater station with 150 watts transmitter power output, 2-dB feed line loss, 2.2-dB duplexer loss and 7-dBd antenna gain?
A. 1977 watts
B. 78.7 watts
C. 420 watts
D. 286 watts

G0A13

What precaution should be taken when installing a ground-mounted antenna?
A. It should not be installed higher than you can reach
B. It should not be installed in a wet area
C. It should be painted so people or animals do not accidentally run into it
D. It should be installed so no one can be exposed to RF radiation in excess of

G0B01

Which wire(s) in a four-conductor line cord should be attached to fuses or circuit breakers in a device operated from a 240-VAC single-phase source?
A. Only the "hot" (black and red) wires
B. Only the "neutral" (white) wire
C. Only the ground (bare) wire
D. All wires

G1A07

Which of the following frequencies is within the General class portion of the 75 meter phone band?
A. 1875 kHz
B. 3750 kHz
C. 3900 kHz
D. 4005 kHz

G1B07

What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the amateur service?
A. Only "Q" codes are permitted
B. They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message
C. They are not permitted because they obscure the meaning of a message to FCC monitoring stations
D. Only "10-codes" are permitted

G1C07

Which of the following is a requirement when a station is transmitting on the 60 meter band?
A. Transmissions may only use Lower Sideband (LSB)
B. Transmissions must use only CW or Data modes
C. Transmissions must not exceed an effective radiated power of 50 Watts PEP referred to a dipole antenna
D. Transmissions must not exceed an effective radiated power of 200 Watts PEP

G1D12

Volunteer Examiners are accredited by what organization?
A. The Federal Communications Commission
B. The Universal Licensing System
C. A Volunteer Examiner Coordinator
D. The Wireless Telecommunications Bureau

G1E08

Which of the following is a requirement for a non-licensed person to communicate with a foreign amateur radio station from a US amateur station at which a licensed control operator is present?
A. Information must be exchanged in English
B. The foreign amateur station must be in a country with which the United States has a third party agreement
C. The control operator must have at least a General class license
D. All of these answers are correct

G2A12

What is the recommended way to break into a conversation when using phone?
A. Say "QRZ" several times followed by your call sign
B. Say your call sign during a break between transmissions from the other stations
C. Say "Break" "Break" "Break" and wait for a response
D. Say "CQ" followed by the call sign of either station

G2B07

What is a band plan?
A. A voluntary guideline for band use beyond the divisions established by the FCC
B. A guideline from the FCC for making amateur frequency band allocations
C. A guideline from the ITU for making amateur frequency band allocations
D. A plan devised by a club to best use a frequency band during a contest

G2C02

Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?
A. Only a person holding an FCC issued amateur operator license
B. Only a RACES net control operator
C. Only official emergency stations may transmit during a disaster
D. Any control operator when normal communication systems are

G2D03

What skills learned during "Fox Hunts" are of help to the Amateur Auxiliary?
A. Identification of out of band operation
B. Direction-finding skills used to locate stations violating FCC Rules
C. Identification of different call signs
D. Hunters have an opportunity to transmit on non-amateur frequencies

G2E08

What segment of the 80 meter band is most commonly used for data transmissions?
A. 3570 – 3600 kHz
B. 3500 – 3525 kHz
C. 3700 – 3750 kHz
D. 3775 – 3825 kHz

G2F06

What does the term "zero beat" mean in CW operation?
A. Matching the speed of the transmitting stationA. Chirpy or unstable signal
B. Operating split to avoid interference on frequencyB. Report was read from S meter reading rather than estimated
C. Sending without errorC. 100 percent copy
D. Matching the frequency of the transmitting station G2FO7 (A) When sending CW, what does a "C" mean when added to the RST report?A. Chirpy or unstable signalB. Report was read from S meter reading rather than estimatedC. 100 percent copyD. Key clicks

G3A14

How are radio communications usually affected by the charged particles that reach the Earth from solar coronal holes?
A. HF communications are improved
B. HF communications are disturbed
C. VHF/UHF ducting is improved
D. VHF/UHF ducting is disturbed

G3B01

Which band should offer the best chance for a successful contact if the maximum usable frequency (MUF) between the two stations is 22 MHz?
A. 10 meters
B. 15 meters
C. 20 meters
D. 40 meters

G3C02

When can the F2 region be expected to reach its maximum height at your location?
A. At noon during the summer
B. At midnight during the summer
C. At dusk in the spring and fall
D. At noon during the winter

G4A06

What reading on the plate current meter of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier indicates correct adjustment of the plate tuning control?
A. A pronounced peak
B. A pronounced dip
C. No change will be observed
D. A slow, rhythmic oscillation

G4B08

What instrument may be used to monitor relative RF output when making antenna and transmitter adjustments?
A. A field-strength meter
B. An antenna noise bridge
C. A multimeter
D. A Q meter

G4C08

Which of the following is a reason to place ferrite beads around audio cables to reduce common mode RF interference?
A. They act as a series inductor
B. They act as a shunt capacitor
C. They lower the impedance of the cable
D. They increase the admittance of the cable

G4D05

How does an S-meter reading of 20 db over S-9 compare to an S-9 signal, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?
A. It is 10 times weaker
B. It is 20 times weaker
C. It is 20 times stronger
D. It is 100 times stronger

G4E11

Which of the following is a disadvantage to using wind power as the primary source of power for an emergency station?
A. The conversion efficiency from mechanical energy to electrical energy is less that 2 percent
B. The voltage and current ratings of such systems are not compatible with amateur equipment
C. A large energy storage system is needed to supply power when the wind is not blowing
D. All of these choices are correct

G5A08

Why is impedance matching important?
A. So the source can deliver maximum power to the load
B. So the load will draw minimum power from the source
C. To ensure that there is less resistance than reactance in the circuit
D. To ensure that the resistance and reactance in the circuit are equal

G5B04

How many watts of electrical power are used by a 12-VDC light bulb that draws 0.2 amperes?
A. 2.4 watts
B. 24 watts
C. 6 watts
D. 60 watts

G5C13

What component should be added to a capacitor in a circuit to increase the circuit capacitance?
A. An inductor in series
B. A resistor in series
C. A capacitor in parallel
D. A capacitor in series

G6A11

What is the common name for a capacitor connected across a transformer secondary that is used to absorb transient voltage spikes?
A. Clipper capacitor
B. Trimmer capacitor
C. Feedback capacitor
D. Suppressor capacitor

G6B06

Which of the following is an advantage of using a Schottky diode in an RF switching circuit as compared to a standard silicon diode?
A. Lower capacitance
B. Lower inductance
C. Longer switching times
D. Higher breakdown voltage

G6C03

Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS Logic integrated circuits compared to TTL logic circuits?
A. Low power consumption
B. High power handling capability
C. Better suited for RF amplification
D. Better suited for power supply regulation

G7A08

What circuit is used to process signals from the RF amplifier and local oscillator and send the result to the IF filter in a superheterodyne receiver?
A. Balanced modulator
B. IF amplifier
C. Mixer
D. Detector

G7B03

What is the output of a two-input NAND gate, given both inputs are "one"?
A. Two
B. One
C. Zero
D. Minus One

G8A08

What happens to the signal of an over-modulated single-sideband phone transmitter?
A. It becomes louder with no other effects
B. It occupies less bandwidth with poor high frequency response
C. It has higher fidelity and improved signal to noise ratio
D. It becomes distorted and occupies more bandwidth

G8B02

If a receiver mixes a 13.800 MHz VFO with a 14.255 MHz received signal to produce a 455 kHz intermediate frequency (IF) signal, what type of interference will a 13.345 MHz signal produce in the receiver?
A. Local oscillator
B. Image response
C. Mixer interference
D. Intermediate interference

G9A01

Which of the following factors help determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor antenna feedline?
A. The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors
B. The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line
C. The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal
D. The frequency of the signal and the length of the line

G9B08

How does the feed-point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed-point location is moved from the center toward the ends?
A. It steadily increases
B. It steadily decreases
C. It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength from the end
D. It is unaffected by the location of the feed-point

G9C09

What is the approximate maximum theoretical forward gain of a 3 Element Yagi antenna?
A. 9.7 dBi
B. 7.3 dBd
C. 5.4 times the gain of a dipole
D. All of these choices are correct

G9D06

Which of the following is an advantage of a log periodic antenna?
A. Wide bandwidth
B. Higher gain per element than a Yagi antenna
C. Harmonic suppression
D. Polarization diversity

T0A09

What is one way to recharge a 12-volt battery if the commercialpower is out?
A. You cannot recharge a battery unless the power is back on
B. Add water to the battery
C. Connect the battery to a car's battery and run the engine
D. Take your battery to the utility company for a recharge

T0B06

What is the most important safety precaution to observe whenputting up an antenna tower?
A. Install steps on the tower for safe climbing
B. Insulate the base of the tower to avoid lightning strikes
C. Ground the base of the tower to prevent lightning strikes
D. Look for and stay clear of any overhead electrical wires

T0C06

How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RFexposure regulations?
A. By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65
B. By calculation based on computer modeling
C. By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment
D. All of these choices are correct

T1A05

How long is a CSCE valid for license upgrade purposes?
A. 365 days
B. Until the current license expires
C. Indefinitely
D. Until two years following the expiration of the currentlicense

T1B07 [97.107]

When are you allowed to operate your amateur station in a foreigncountry?
A. When there is a reciprocal operating agreement between thecountries
B. When there is a mutual agreement allowing third partycommunications
C. When authorization permits amateur communications in a foreignlanguage
D. When you are communicating with non-licensed individuals inanother country

T1C06

Which 70-centimeter frequency is authorized to a Technician classlicense holder operating in ITU Region 2?
A. 455.350 MHz
B. 146.520 MHz
C. 443.350 MHz
D. 222.520 MHz

T1D09 [97.23]

When may the FCC revoke or suspend a license if the mailingaddress of the holder is not current with the FCC?
A. If mail is returned to the FCC as undeliverable
B. When the licensee transmits without having updated the address
C. When the licensee operates portable at a different address
D. If the address is not updated within the 2 year grace period

T2A07

Which of the following are specifically prohibited in the AmateurRadio Service?
A. Discussion of politics
B. Discussion of programs on broadcast stations
C. Indecent and obscene language
D. Morse code practice

T2B09

What is required when using one or more self-assigned indicatorswith your assigned call sign?
A. The indicator must not conflict with an indicator specified byFCC rules or with a prefix assigned to another country
B. The indicator must consist only of numeric digits
C. The indicator must include the 2-letter abbreviation for yourstate
D. The indicator must be separated from your call sign by adouble slash mark

T2C03

What minimum class of amateur license must you hold to be acontrol operator of a repeater station?
A. Technician Plus
B. Technician
C. General
D. Amateur Extra

T2D07

When may you operate your amateur station aboard an aircraft?
A. At any time
B. Only while the aircraft is on the ground
C. Only with the approval of the pilot in command and not usingthe aircraft's radio equipment
D. Only when you have written permission from the airline andonly using the aircraft's radio equipment

T3A03

How do you indicate you are looking for any station with which tomake contact?
A. CQ followed by your callsign
B. RST followed by your callsign
C. QST followed by your callsign
D. SK followed by your callsign

T3B08

Which of the bands available to Technician class licensees havemode restricted sub-bands?
A. The 6-meter, 2-meter, and 70-centimeter bands
B. The 2-meter and 13-centimeter bands
C. The 6-meter, 2-meter, and 1 1/4-meter bands
D. The 2-meter and 70-centimeter bands

T3C02

What is considered to be proper repeater operating practice?
A. Monitor before transmitting and keep transmissions short
B. Identify legally
C. Use the minimum amount of transmitter power necessary
D. All of these answers are correct

T3D11

What is meant by receiver front-end overload?
A. Too much voltage from the power supply
B. Too much current from the power supply
C. Interference caused by strong signals from a nearby source
D. Interference caused by turning the volume up too high

T4A01

Electrical current is measured in which of the following units?
A. Volts
B. Watts
C. Ohms
D. Amperes

T4B07

What is the formula for converting frequency to wavelength inmeters?
A. Wavelength in meters equals frequency in Hertz multiplied by300
B. Wavelength in meters equals frequency in Hertz divided by 300
C. Wavelength in meters equals frequency in megahertz divided by300
D. Wavelength in meters equals 300 divided by frequency inmegahertz

T4C10

What is the best way to get the most amount of energy from abattery?
A. Draw current from the battery as rapidly as possible
B. Draw current from the battery at the slowest rate needed
C. Reverse the leads when the battery reaches the 1/2 charge level
D. Charge the battery as frequently as possible

T4D09

What is the voltage across the resistor if a current of 2 amperesflows through a 10 ohm resistor?
A. 20 volts
B. 0.2 volts
C. 12 volts
D. 8 volts

T4E03

How much power is represented by a voltage of 13.8 volts DC and acurrent of 10 amperes?
A. 138 watts
B. 0.7 watts
C. 23.8 watts
D. 3.8 watts

T5A02

Which piece of station equipment converts electrical signals tosound waves?
A. Frequency coordinator
B. Frequency discriminator
C. Speaker
D. Microphone

T5B08

What is the purpose of the "shift" control found on many VHF/UHFtransceivers?
A. Adjust transmitter power level
B. Change bands
C. Adjust the offset between transmit and receive frequency
D. Change modes

T5C13

Which of the following statements regarding use of repeaters istrue?
A. All amateur radio operators have the right to use any repeaterat any time
B. Access to any repeater may be limited by the repeater owner
C. Closed repeaters must be opened at the request of any amateurwishing to use it
D. Open repeaters are required to use CTCSS tones for access

T5D05

What should you do first if someone tells you that yourtransmissions are interfering with their TV reception?
A. Make sure that your station is operating properly and that itdoes not cause interference to your own television
B. Immediately turn off your transmitter and contact the nearestFCC office for assistance
C. Tell them that your license gives you the right to transmit andnothing can be done to reduce the interference
D. Continue operating normally because your equipment cannotpossibly cause any interference

T6A09

What is the approximate bandwidth of a single-sideband voicesignal?
A. 1 kHz
B. 2 kHz
C. Between 3 and 6 kHz
D. Between 2 and 3 kHz

T6B07

Which one of the following allows computer-to-radio linking forvoice transmission?
A. Grid modulation
B. EchoLink
C. AMTOR
D. Multiplex

T6C06

What does the abbreviation PSK mean?
A. Pulse Shift Keying
B. Phase Shift Keying
C. Packet Short Keying
D. Phased Slide Keying

T7A09

What is a grid locator?
A. A letter-number designator assigned to a geographic location
B. Your azimuth and elevation
C. Your UTC location
D. The 4 digits that follow your ZIP code

T7B07

What is Doppler shift?
A. A change in the satellite orbit
B. A mode where the satellite receives signals on one band andtransmits on another
C. A change in signal frequency caused by motion through space
D. A special digital communications mode for some satellites

T8A10

What are the penalties for making a false emergency call?
A. You could have your license revoked
B. You could be fined a large sum of money
C. You could be sent to prison
D. All of these answers are correct

T8B11

When can you use a modified amateur radio transceiver to transmiton the local fire department frequency?
A. When you are helping the Fire Department raise money
B. Only when the Fire Department is short of regular equipment
C. In a genuine emergency you may use any means at your disposalto call for help on any frequency
D. When the local Fire Chief has given written permission

T8C09

What is the preamble of a message?
A. The first paragraph of the message text
B. The message number
C. The priority handling indicator for the message
D. The information needed to track the message as it passesthrough the amateur radio traffic handling system

T9A12

What is the approximate length, in inches, of a 6-meter 1/2wavelength wire dipole antenna?
A. 6 inches
B. 50 inches
C. 112 inches
D. 236 inches

T9B03

What is the most likely cause of sudden bursts of tones orfragments of different conversations that interfere with VHF orUHF signals?
A. The batteries in your transceiver are failing
B. Strong signals are overloading the receiver and causingundesired signals to be heard
C. The receiver is picking up low orbit satellites
D. A nearby broadcast station is having transmitter problems

T9C05

What happens to the power lost in a feed line?
A. It increases the SWR
B. It comes back into your transmitter and could cause damage
C. It is converted into heat by losses in the line
D. It can cause distortion of your signal