eHam.net Practice Exam -

What is a transmission called that disturbs other communications?
A. Interrupted CW
B. Harmful interference
C. Transponder signals
D. Unidentified transmissions

T1B06

Who is eligible to apply for temporary use of a 1-by-1 formatSpecial Event call sign?
A. Only Amateur Extra class amateurs
B. Only military stations
C. Any FCC-licensed amateur
D. Only trustees of amateur radio club stations

T1C02

Where does a US amateur license allow you to transmit?
A. From anywhere in the world
B. From wherever the Amateur Radio Service is regulated by the FCCor where reciprocal agreements are in place
C. From a country that shares a third party agreement with the US
D. Only from the mailing address printed on your license

T1C05

Which amateur band are you using when transmitting on 146.52 MHz?
A. 2 meter band
B. 20 meter band
C. 14 meter band
D. 6 meter band

T2A03 [97.217]

When is the transmission of codes or ciphers allowed to hide themeaning of a message transmitted by an amateur station?
A. Only during contests
B. Only when operating mobile
C. Only when transmitting control commands to space stations orradio control craft
D. Only when frequencies above 1280 MHz are used

T2B04

What is an acceptable method of transmitting a repeater stationidentification?
A. By phone using the English language
B. By video image conforming to applicable standards
C. By Morse code at a speed not to exceed 20 words per minute
D. All of these answers are correct.

T2B08

How often must you identify using your assigned call sign whenoperating while using a special event call sign?
A. Every 10 minutes
B. Once when the event begins and once when it concludes
C. Never
D. Once per hour

T2C04

Who is responsible for the transmissions from an amateur station?
A. Auxiliary operator
B. Operations coordinator
C. Third-party operator
D. Control operator

T3A04

What should you transmit when responding to a call of CQ?
A. Your own CQ followed by the other station's callsign
B. Your callsign followed by the other station's callsign
C. The other station's callsign followed by your callsign
D. A signal report followed by your callsign

T3A07

Which of the following is true when making a test transmission?
A. Station identification is not required if the transmission isless than 15 seconds
B. Station identification is not required if the transmission isless than 1 watt
C. Station identification is required only if your station can beheard
D. Station identification is required at least every ten minutesand at the end of every transmission.

T3C02

What is considered to be proper repeater operating practice?
A. Monitor before transmitting and keep transmissions short
B. Identify legally
C. Use the minimum amount of transmitter power necessary
D. All of these answers are correct

T3D01

What should you do if you receive a report that your transmissionsare causing splatter or interference on nearby frequencies?
A. Increase transmit power
B. Change mode of transmission
C. Report the interference to the equipment manufacturer
D. Check transmitter for off frequency operation or spuriousemissions

T4A04

What is the name of a current that flows only in one direction?
A. An alternating current
B. A direct current
C. A normal current
D. A smooth current

T6C06

What does the abbreviation PSK mean?
A. Pulse Shift Keying
B. Phase Shift Keying
C. Packet Short Keying
D. Phased Slide Keying

T4B02

What term describes the number of times that an alternatingcurrent flows back and forth per second?
A. Pulse rate
B. Speed
C. Wavelength
D. Frequency

T4B09

What property of a radio wave is often used to identify thedifferent bands amateur radio operators use?
A. The physical length of the wave
B. The magnetic intensity of the wave
C. The time it takes for the wave to travel one mile
D. The voltage standing wave ratio of the wave

T4D06

What is the current flow in a circuit with an applied voltage of120 volts and a resistance of 80 ohms?
A. 9600 amperes
B. 200 amperes
C. 0.667 amperes
D. 1.5 amperes

T4E04

How much power is being used in a circuit when the voltage is 120volts DC and the current is 2.5 amperes?
A. 1440 watts
B. 300 watts
C. 48 watts
D. 30 watts

T5A02

Which piece of station equipment converts electrical signals tosound waves?
A. Frequency coordinator
B. Frequency discriminator
C. Speaker
D. Microphone

T5B02

What kind of information may a VHF/UHF transceiver be capable ofstoring in memory?
A. Transmit and receive operating frequency
B. CTCSS tone frequency
C. Transmit power level
D. All of these answers are correct

T5B10

What is the purpose of the "step" menu function found on manytransceivers?
A. It adjusts the transmitter power output level
B. It adjusts the modulation level
C. It sets the earphone volume
D. It sets the tuning rate when changing frequencies

T5C11

What is the term for a series of repeaters that can be connectedto one another to provide users with a wider coverage?
A. Open repeater system
B. Closed repeater system
C. Linked repeater system
D. Locked repeater system

T6A04

Which type of voice modulation is most often used for longdistance and weak signal contacts on the VHF and UHF bands?
A. FM
B. AM
C. SSB
D. PM

T6B02

What does the abbreviation IRLP mean?
A. Internet Radio Linking Project
B. Internet Relay Language Protocol
C. International Repeater Linking Project
D. International Radio Linking Project

T6C04

What type of transmission is indicated by the term NTSC?
A. A Normal Transmission mode in Static Circuit
B. A special mode for earth satellite uplink
C. A standard fast scan color television signal
D. A frame compression scheme for TV signal

T7B04

Who may make contact with an astronaut on the International SpaceStation using amateur radio frequencies?
A. Only members of amateur radio clubs at NASA facilities
B. Any amateur with a Technician or higher class license
C. Only the astronaut's family members who are hams
D. You cannot talk to the ISS on amateur radio frequencies

T8A11

What type of communications has priority at all times in theAmateur Radio Service?
A. Repeater communications
B. Emergency communications
C. Simplex communications
D. Third-party communications

T8B10

What should you do if a reporter asks to use your amateur radiotransceiver to make a news report?
A. Allow the use but give your call sign every 10 minutes
B. Advise them that the FCC prohibits such use
C. Tell them it is OK as long as you do not receive compensation
D. Tell the reporter that you must approve the material beforehand

T8C01

Which type of traffic has the highest priority?
A. Emergency traffic
B. Priority traffic
C. Health and welfare traffic
D. Routine traffic

T9A09

What is one type of antenna that offers good efficiency whenoperating mobile and can be easily installed or removed?
A. A microwave antenna
B. A quad antenna
C. A traveling wave antenna
D. A magnet mount vertical antenna

T9B06

Why do UHF signals often work better inside of buildings than VHFsignals?
A. VHF signals lose power faster over distance
B. The shorter wavelength of UHF signals allows them to moreeasily penetrate urban areas and buildings
C. This is incorrect; VHF works better than UHF inside buildings
D. UHF antennas are more efficient than VHF antennas

T9C11

What is the impedance of the most commonly used coaxial cable intypical amateur radio installations?
A. 8 Ohms
B. 50 Ohms
C. 600 Ohms
D. 12 Ohms

T0A07

What is the most important thing to consider when installing anemergency disconnect switch at your station?
A. It must always be as near to the operator as possible
B. It must always be as far away from the operator as possible
C. Everyone should know where it is and how to use it
D. It should be installed in a metal box to prevent tampering

T0B08

What is a safe distance from a power line to allow when installingan antenna?
A. Half the width of your property unless the wires are at least23 feet high
B. 12.5 feet in most metropolitan areas
C. 36 meters plus 1/2 wavelength at the operating frequency
D. So that if the antenna falls unexpectedly, no part of it cancome closer than 10 feet to the power wires

T0C03

What is the maximum power level that an amateur radio station mayuse at frequencies above 30 MHz before an RF exposure evaluationis required?
A. 1500 watts PEP transmitter output
B. 1 watt forward power
C. 50 watts PEP at the antenna
D. 50 watts PEP reflected power

G1A12 97.301]

When a General Class licensee is not permitted to use the entire voice portion of a particular band, which portion of the voice segment is generally available to them?
A. The lower end
B. The upper end
C. The lower end on frequencies below 7.3 MHz and the upper end on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
D. The upper end on frequencies below 7.3 MHz and the lower end on frequencies above

G1B07

What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the amateur service?
A. Only "Q" codes are permitted
B. They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message
C. They are not permitted because they obscure the meaning of a message to FCC monitoring stations
D. Only "10-codes" are permitted

G1C06

What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on 1825 kHz?
A. 200 watts PEP output
B. 1000 watts PEP output
C. 1200 watts PEP output
D. 1500 watts PEP output

G1D13 97.509]

When may you participate as a VE in administering an amateur radio license examination?
A. Once you have notified the FCC that you want to give an examination
B. Once you have a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) for General class
C. Once your General class license appears in the FCC's ULS database
D. Once you have been granted your General class license and received your VEC

G1E04 97.303]

Which of the following conditions require an amateur radio station to take specific steps to avoid harmful interference to other users or facilities?
A. When operating within one mile of an FCC Monitoring Station
B. When using a band where the amateur service is secondary
C. When a station is transmitting spread spectrum emissions
D. All of these answers are correct

G3A06

What is a geomagnetic disturbance?
A. A sudden drop in the solar-flux index
B. A shifting of the Earth's magnetic pole
C. Ripples in the ionosphere
D. A significant change in the Earth's magnetic field over a short period of time

G2A08

Which of the following statements is true of single sideband (SSB) voice mode?
A. It is a form of amplitude modulation in which one sideband and the carrier are suppressed
B. It is a form of frequency modulation in which higher frequencies are emphasized
C. It reproduces upper frequencies more efficiently than lower frequencies
D. It is the only voice mode authorized on the HF bands between 14 and 30 MHz

G2C09

What type of transmissions may an amateur station make during a disaster?
A. Only transmissions when RACES net is activated
B. Transmissions necessary to meet essential communications needs and to facilitate relief actions
C. Only transmissions from an official emergency station
D. Only one-way communications

G2D03

What skills learned during "Fox Hunts" are of help to the Amateur Auxiliary?
A. Identification of out of band operation
B. Direction-finding skills used to locate stations violating FCC Rules
C. Identification of different call signs
D. Hunters have an opportunity to transmit on non-amateur frequencies

G2E06

What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands?
A. 85 Hz
B. 170 Hz
C. 425 Hz
D. 850 Hz

G2F08

What prosign is sent using CW to indicate the end of a formal message?
A. SK
B. BK
C. AR
D. KN

G5B05

How many watts are being dissipated when a current of 7.0 milliamperes flows through 1.25 kilohms?
A. Approximately 61 milliwatts
B. Approximately 39 milliwatts
C. Approximately 11 milliwatts
D. Approximately 9 milliwatts

G3A12

What is the K-index?
A. An index of the relative position of sunspots on the surface of the sun
B. A measure of the short term stability of the Earth's magnetic field
C. A measure of the stability of the sun's magnetic field
D. An index of solar radio flux measured at Boulder, Colorado

G3B09

What is the maximum distance along the Earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?
A. 180 miles
B. 1,200 miles
C. 2,500 miles
D. 12,000 miles

G3C04

What does the term "critical angle" mean as used in radio wave propagation?
A. The long path azimuth of a distant station
B. The short path azimuth of a distant station
C. The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to the Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
D. The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to the Earth under

G4A02

Which of the following instruments may be used to measure the output of a single-sideband transmitter when performing a two-tone test of amplitude linearity?
A. An audio distortion analyzer
B. An oscilloscope
C. A directional wattmeter
D. A high impedance audio voltmeter

G4B03

How would a signal tracer normally be used?
A. To identify the source of radio transmissions
B. To make exact drawings of signal waveforms
C. To show standing wave patterns on open-wire feed-lines
D. To identify an inoperative stage in a receiver

G4C05

What might be the problem if you receive an RF burn when touching your equipment while transmitting on a HF band, assuming the equipment is connected to a ground rod?
A. Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire
B. Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire
C. The ground rod is resonant
D. The ground wire is resonant

G4D03

Which of the following can be the result of an incorrectly adjusted speech processor?
A. Distorted speech
B. Splatter
C. Excessive background pickup
D. All of these answers are correct

G4E03

Which of the following power connections would be the best for a 100-watt HF mobile installation?
A. A direct, fused connection to the battery using heavy gauge wire
B. A direct, fused connection to the alternator or generator using heavy gauge wire
C. A direct, fused connection to the battery using resistor wire
D. A direct, fused connection to the alternator or generator using resistor wire

G5A06

How does a capacitor react to AC?
A. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
B. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
C. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
D. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

G5C03

What is current in the primary winding of a transformer called if no load is attached to the secondary?
A. Magnetizing current
B. Direct current
C. Excitation current
D. Stabilizing current

G6A07

What is an advantage of using a ferrite core with a toroidal inductor?
A. Large values of inductance may be obtained
B. The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies
C. Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core
D. All of these choices are correct

G6B05

What is the approximate junction threshold voltage of a silicon diode?
A. 0.1 volt
B. 0.3 volts
C. 0.7 volts
D. 1.0 volts

G6C07

What is one disadvantage of an incandescent indicator compared to a LED?
A. Low power consumption
B. High speed
C. Long life
D. High power consumption

G7A18

What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load?
A. A series of DC pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input
B. A series of DC pulses at the same frequency as the AC input
C. A sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input
D. A steady DC voltage

G7B06

What is a shift register?
A. A clocked array of circuits that passes data in steps along the array
B. An array of operational amplifiers used for tri-state arithmetic operations
C. A digital mixer
D. An analog mixer

G8A07

Which of the following phone emissions uses the narrowest frequency bandwidth?
A. Single sideband
B. Double sideband
C. Phase modulation
D. Frequency modulation

G8B07

What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21-MHz reactance-modulated oscillator in a 5-kHz deviation, 146.52-MHz FM-phone transmitter?
A. 101.75 Hz
B. 416.7 Hz
C. 5 kHz
D. 60 kHz

G9A01

Which of the following factors help determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor antenna feedline?
A. The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors
B. The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line
C. The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal
D. The frequency of the signal and the length of the line

G9B01

What is one disadvantage of a directly fed random-wire antenna?
A. It must be longer than 1 wavelength
B. You may experience RF burns when touching metal objects in your station
C. It produces only vertically polarized radiation
D. It is not effective on the higher HF bands

G9C16

How does the gain of a two element delta-loop beam compare to the gain of a two element cubical quad antenna?
A. 3 dB higher
B. 3 dB lower
C. 2.54 dB higher
D. About the same

G9D03

At what height above ground is an NVIS antenna typically installed?
A. As close to one-half wave as possible
B. As close to one wavelength as possible
C. Height is not critical as long as significantly more than 1/2 wavelength
D. Between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength

G0A02

Which property is NOT important in estimating if an RF signal exceeds the maximum permissible exposure (MPE)?
A. Its duty cycle
B. Its critical angle
C. Its power density
D. Its frequency

G0B10

Which of the following is a danger from lead-tin solder?
A. Lead can contaminate food if hands are not washed carefully after handling
B. High voltages can cause lead-tin solder to disintegrate suddenly
C. Tin in the solder can "cold flow" causing shorts in the circuit
D. RF energy can convert the lead into a poisonous gas

E1A01 [97.301, 97.305]

When using a transceiver that displays the carrier frequency of phone signals, which of the following displayed frequencies will result in a normal USB emission being within the band?
A. The exact upper band edge
B. 300 Hz below the upper band edge
C. 1 kHz below the upper band edge
D. 3 kHz below the upper band edge

E1B01 [97.3]

Which of the following constitutes a spurious emission?
A. An amateur station transmission made at random without the proper call sign identification
B. A signal transmitted in a way that prevents its detection by any station other than the intended recipient
C. Any transmitted bogus signal that interferes with another licensed radio station
D. An emission outside its necessary bandwidth that can be reduced or eliminated without affecting the information transmitted

E1C08 [97.213]

What is the maximum permissible duration of a remotely controlled station?s transmissions if its control link malfunctions?
A. 30 seconds
B. 3 minutes
C. 5 minutes
D. 10 minutes

E1D01 [97.3]

What is the definition of the term telemetry?
A. One-way transmission of measurements at a distance from the measuring instrument
B. A two-way interactive transmission
C. A two-way single channel transmission of data
D. One-way transmission that initiates, modifies, or terminates the functions of a device at a distance

E1E08 [97.5091, 97.525]

Which of the following best describes the Volunteer Examiner accreditation process?
A. Each General, Advanced and Amateur Extra Class operator is automatically accredited as a VE when the license is granted
B. The amateur operator applying must pass a VE examination administered by the FCC Enforcement Bureau
C. The prospective VE obtains accreditation from a VE team
D. The procedure by which a VEC confirms that the VE applicant meets FCC requirements to serve as an examiner

E1E17 [97.519]

What are the consequences of failing to appear for re-administration of an examination when so directed by the FCC?
A. The licensee's license will be cancelled
B. The person may be fined or imprisoned
C. The licensee is disqualified from any future examination for an amateur operator license grant
D. All of the above

E1F08 [97.3]

What is the National Radio Quiet Zone?
A. An area in Puerto Rico surrounding the Aricebo Radio Telescope
B. An area in New Mexico surrounding the White Sands Test Area
C. An area surrounding the National Radio Astronomy Observatory
D. An area in Florida surrounding Cape Canaveral

E2A08

What is the primary reason for satellite users to limit their transmit ERP?
A. For RF exposure safety
B. Because the satellite transmitter output power is limited
C. To avoid limiting the signal of the other users
D. To avoid interfering with terrestrial QSOs

E2B17

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of FMTV (Frequency-Modulated Amateur Television) as compared to vestigial sideband AM television?
A. Immunity from fading due to limiting
B. Poor weak signal performance
C. Greater signal bandwidth
D. Greater complexity of receiving equipment

E2C05 [97.301]

Which of the following frequencies would generally be acceptable for U.S. stations to work other U.S. stations in a phone contest?
A. 5405 kHz
B. 14.310 MHz
C. 50.050 MHz
D. 146.52 MHz

E5A10

What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 1.8 MHz and a Q of 95?
A. 18.9 kHz
B. 1.89 kHz
C. 94.5 kHz
D. 9.45 kHz

E2E03

How is Forward Error Correction implemented?
A. By the receiving station repeating each block of three data characters
B. By transmitting a special algorithm to the receiving station along with the data characters
C. By transmitting extra data that may be used to detect and correct transmission errors
D. By varying the frequency shift of the transmitted signal according to a predefined algorithm

E3B04

What type of propagation is probably occurring if an HF beam antenna must be pointed in a direction 180 degrees away from a station to receive the strongest signals?
A. Long-path
B. Sporadic-E
C. Transequatorial
D. Auroral

E3B07

Which of the following could account for hearing an echo on the received signal of a distant station?
A. High D layer absorption
B. Meteor scatter
C. Transmit frequency is higher than the MUF
D. Receipt of a signal by more than one path

E3C08

What is the name of the high-angle wave in HF propagation that travels for some distance within the F2 region?
A. Oblique-angle ray
B. Pedersen ray
C. Ordinary ray
D. Heaviside ray

E4A12

Which of the following procedures is an important precaution to follow when connecting a spectrum analyzer to a transmitter output?
A. Use high quality double shielded coaxial cables to reduce signal losses
B. Attenuate the transmitter output going to the spectrum analyzer
C. Match the antenna to the load
D. All of these choices are correct

E4B12

How should a portable SWR analyzer be connected when measuring antenna resonance and feedpoint impedance?
A. Loosely couple the analyzer near the antenna base
B. Connect the analyzer via a high-impedance transformer to the antenna
C. Connect the antenna and a dummy load to the analyzer
D. Connect the antenna feed line directly to the analyzer's connector

E4C15

What is the primary source of noise that can be heard from an HF-band receiver with an antenna connected?
A. Detector noise
B. Induction motor noise
C. Receiver front-end noise
D. Atmospheric noise

E4D08

What causes intermodulation in an electronic circuit?
A. Too little gain
B. Lack of neutralization
C. Nonlinear circuits or devices
D. Positive feedback

E4E10

What is a common characteristic of interference caused by a "touch controlled" electrical device?
A. The interfering signal sounds like AC hum on an AM receiver or a carrier modulated by 60 Hz FM on a SSB or CW receiver
B. The interfering signal may drift slowly across the HF spectrum
C. The interfering signal can be several kHz in width and usually repeats at regular intervals across a HF band
D. All of these answers are correct

E7G11

What will be the output voltage of the circuit shown in Figure E7-4 if R1 is 1000 ohms, RF is 10,000 ohms, and 0.23 volts is applied to the input?
A. 0.23 volts
B. 2.3 volts
C. -0.23 volts
D. -2.3 volts

E7H08

What is a Gunn diode oscillator?
A. An oscillator based on the negative resistance properties of properly-doped semiconductors
B. An oscillator based on the argon gas diode
C. A highly stable reference oscillator based on the tee-notch principle
D. A highly stable reference oscillator based on the hot-carrier effect

E5B08

What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series R-L-C circuit if XC is 100 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 75 ohms?
A. 14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
B. 14 degrees with the voltage leading the current
C. 76 degrees with the voltage leading the current
D. 76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current

E5C16

In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a circuit that has an admittance of 7.09 millisiemens at 45 degrees?
A. 5.03 x 10 ?E05 ohms at an angle of 45 degrees
B. 141 ohms at an angle of -45 degrees
C. 19,900 ohms at an angle of -45 degrees
D. 141 ohms at an angle of 45 degrees

E5D03

What device is used to store electrical energy in an electrostatic field?
A. A battery
B. A transformer
C. A capacitor
D. An inductor

E6A13

What do the initials CMOS stand for?
A. Common mode oscillating system
B. Complementary mica-oxide silicon
C. Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor
D. Complementary metal-oxide substrate

E6B10

What is a common use for point contact diodes?
A. As a constant current source
B. As a constant voltage source
C. As an RF detector
D. As a high voltage rectifier

E6D05

Which of the following is true of a charge-coupled device (CCD)?
A. Its phase shift changes rapidly with frequency
B. It is a CMOS analog-to-digital converter
C. It samples an analog signal and passes it in stages from the input to the output
D. It is used in a battery charger circuit

E6D17

What is the principle advantage of liquid-crystal display (LCD) devices over other types of display devices?
A. They consume less power
B. They can display changes instantly
C. They are visible in all light conditions
D. They can be easily interchanged with other display devices

E6E01

Which of these filter bandwidths would be a good choice for use in a SSB radiotelephone transmitter?
A. 6 kHz at -6 dB
B. 2.4 kHz at -6 dB
C. 500 Hz at -6 dB
D. 15 kHz at -6 dB

E9E05

How must the driven element in a 3-element Yagi be tuned to use a hairpin matching system?
A. The driven element reactance must be capacitive
B. The driven element reactance must be inductive
C. The driven element resonance must be lower than the operating frequency
D. The driven element radiation resistance must be higher than the characteristic impedance of the transmission line

E7A09

What logical operation does an OR gate perform?
A. It produces a logic "1" at its output if any or all inputs are logic "1"
B. It produces a logic "0" at its output if all inputs are logic "1"
C. It only produces a logic "0" at its output when all inputs are logic "1"
D. It produces a logic "1" at its output if all inputs are logic "0"

E7A13

What is the name for logic which represents a logic "0" as a high voltage?
A. Reverse Logic
B. Assertive Logic
C. Negative logic
D. Positive Logic

E7C03

What advantage does a Pi-L-network have over a Pi-network for impedance matching between the final amplifier of a vacuum-tube type transmitter and an antenna?
A. Greater harmonic suppression
B. Higher efficiency
C. Lower losses
D. Greater transformation range

E7D08

What type of circuit is shown in Figure E7-3?
A. Switching voltage regulator
B. Grounded emitter amplifier
C. Linear voltage regulator
D. Emitter follower

E7D16

When several electrolytic filter capacitors are connected in series to increase the operating voltage of a power supply filter circuit, why should resistors be connected across each capacitor?
A. To equalize, as much as possible, the voltage drop across each capacitor
B. To provide a safety bleeder to discharge the capacitors when the supply is off
C. To provide a minimum load current to reduce voltage excursions at light loads
D. All of these answers are correct

E7F03

What is the function of a decade counter digital IC?
A. It produces one output pulse for every ten input pulses
B. It decodes a decimal number for display on a seven-segment LED display
C. It produces ten output pulses for every input pulse
D. It adds two decimal numbers together

E8A03

What type of wave is made up of sine waves of a given fundamental frequency plus all its harmonics?
A. A sawtooth wave
B. A square wave
C. A sine wave
D. A cosine wave

E8A12

What type of information can be conveyed using digital waveforms?
A. Human speech
B. Video signals
C. Data
D. All of these answers are correct

E8B08

What parameter does the modulating signal vary in a pulse-position modulation system?
A. The number of pulses per second
B. The amplitude of the pulses
C. The duration of the pulses
D. The time at which each pulse occurs

E8C07

What is the necessary bandwidth of a 170-hertz shift, 300-baud ASCII transmission?
A. 0.1 Hz
B. 0.3 kHz
C. 0.5 kHz
D. 1.0 kHz

E8D06

What is the advantage of using a peak-reading wattmeter to monitor the output of a SSB phone transmitter?
A. It is easier to determine the correct tuning of the output circuit
B. It gives a more accurate display of the PEP output when modulation is present
C. It makes it easier to detect high SWR on the feed-line
D. It can determine if any "flat-topping" is present during modulation peaks

E9A08

What is a folded dipole antenna?
A. A dipole one-quarter wavelength long
B. A type of ground-plane antenna
C. A dipole constructed from one wavelength of wire forming a very thin loop
D. A hypothetical antenna used in theoretical discussions to replace the radiation resistance

E9C05

What are the main advantages of a terminated rhombic antenna?
A. Wide frequency range, high gain and high front-to-back ratio
B. High front-to-back ratio, compact size and high gain
C. Unidirectional radiation pattern, high gain and compact size
D. Bidirectional radiation pattern, high gain and wide frequency range

E9C06

What are the disadvantages of a terminated rhombic antenna for the HF bands?
A. The antenna has a very narrow operating bandwidth
B. The antenna produces a circularly polarized signal
C. The antenna requires a large physical area and 4 separate supports
D. The antenna is more sensitive to man-made static than any other type

E9E11

What is an effective way of matching a feed-line to a VHF or UHF antenna when the impedances of both the antenna and feed-line are unknown?
A. Use a 50-ohm 1:1 balun between the antenna and feed-line
B. Use the "universal stub" matching technique
C. Connect a series-resonant LC network across the antenna feed terminals
D. Connect a parallel-resonant LC network across the antenna feed terminals

E9F09

What would be the physical length of a typical coaxial transmission line that is electrically one-quarter wavelength long at 7.2 MHz? (Assume a velocity factor of 0.66)
A. 10 meters
B. 6.9 meters
C. 24 meters
D. 50 meters

E9G04

What are the two families of circles and arcs that make up a Smith chart?
A. Resistance and voltage
B. Reactance and voltage
C. Resistance and reactance
D. Voltage and impedance

E9H05

What is the main drawback of a wire-loop antenna for direction finding?
A. It has a bidirectional pattern
B. It is non-rotatable
C. It receives equally well in all directions
D. It is practical for use only on VHF bands

E0A06

Why are there separate electric (E) and magnetic (H) field MPE limits?
A. The body reacts to electromagnetic radiation from both the E and H fields
B. Ground reflections and scattering make the field impedance vary with location
C. E field and H field radiation intensity peaks can occur at different locations
D. All of these answers are correct