eHam.net Practice Exam -

How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?
A. By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65
B. By calculation based on computer modeling
C. By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment
D. All of these choices are correct

G0B10

Which of the following is a danger from lead-tin solder?
A. Lead can contaminate food if hands are not washed carefully after handling
B. High voltages can cause lead-tin solder to disintegrate suddenly
C. Tin in the solder can "cold flow" causing shorts in the circuit
D. RF energy can convert the lead into a poisonous gas

G1A03 [97.305]

On which of the following bands is image transmission prohibited?
A. 160 meters
B. 30 meters
C. 20 meters
D. 12 meters

G1B03 [97.3(a)(9)]

Which of the following is a purpose of a beacon station as identified in the FCC Rules?
A. Observation of propagation and reception
B. Automatic identification of repeaters
C. Transmission of bulletins of general interest to Amateur Radio licensees
D. Identifying net frequencies

G1C01 [97.313(c)(1)]

What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?
A. 200 watts PEP output
B. 1000 watts PEP output
C. 1500 watts PEP output
D. 2000 watts PEP output

G1D01 [97.119(f)(2)]

Which of the following is a proper way to identify when transmitting using phone on General Class frequencies if you have a CSCE for the required elements but your upgrade from Technician has not appeared in the FCC database?
A. Give your call sign followed by the words "General Class"
B. No special identification is needed
C. Give your call sign followed by "slant AG"
D. Give your call sign followed the abbreviation "CSCE"

G1E03 [97.301(d)]

In what ITU region is operation in the 7.175 to 7.300 MHz band permitted for a control operator holding an FCC-issued General Class license?
A. Region 1
B. Region 2
C. Region 3
D. All three regions

G2A04

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17 and 12 meter bands?
A. Upper sideband
B. Lower sideband
C. Vestigial sideband
D. Double sideband

G2B05

What is the customary minimum frequency separation between SSB signals under normal conditions?
A. Between 150 and 500 Hz
B. Approximately 3 kHz
C. Approximately 6 kHz
D. Approximately 10 kHz

G2C10

What does the Q signal "QRQ" mean?
A. Slow down
B. Send faster
C. Zero beat my signal
D. Quitting operation

G2D07 [97.303s]

Which of the following is required by the FCC rules when operating in the 60 meter band?
A. If you are using other than a dipole antenna, you must keep a record of the gain of your antenna
B. You must keep a log of the date, time, frequency, power level and stations worked
C. You must keep a log of all third party traffic
D. You must keep a log of the manufacturer of your equipment and the antenna used

G2E04

What segment of the 20 meter band is most often used for data transmissions?
A. 14.000 - 14.050 MHz
B. 14.070 - 14.100 MHz
C. 14.150 - 14.225 MHz
D. 14.275 - 14.350 MHz

G3A03

Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from solar flares to affect radio-wave propagation on the Earth?
A. 28 days
B. 1 to 2 hours
C. 8 minutes
D. 20 to 40 hours

G3B11

What happens to HF propagation when the Lowest Usable Frequency (LUF) exceeds the Maximum Usable Frequency (MUF)?
A. No HF radio frequency will support ordinary skywave communications over the path
B. HF communications over the path are enhanced
C. Double hop propagation along the path is more common
D. Propagation over the path on all HF frequencies is enhanced

G3C06

What is a characteristic of HF scatter signals?
A. They have high intelligibility
B. They have a wavering sound
C. They have very large swings in signal strength
D. All of these choices are correct

G4A10

What is the purpose of an electronic keyer?
A. Automatic transmit/receive switching
B. Automatic generation of strings of dots and dashes for CW operation
C. VOX operation
D. Computer interface for PSK and RTTY operation

G4B04

What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?
A. The local oscillator of the transmitter
B. An external RF oscillator
C. The transmitter balanced mixer output
D. The attenuated RF output of the transmitter

G4C08

Which of the following would reduce RF interference caused by common-mode current on an audio cable?
A. Placing a ferrite bead around the cable
B. Adding series capacitors to the conductors
C. Adding shunt inductors to the conductors
D. Adding an additional insulating jacket to the cable

G4D06

Where is an S meter found?
A. In a receiver
B. In an SWR bridge
C. In a transmitter
D. In a conductance bridge

G4E04

Why is it best NOT to draw the DC power for a 100-watt HF transceiver from an automobile's auxiliary power socket?
A. The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable
B. The socket's wiring may be inadequate for the current being drawn by the transceiver
C. The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceiver
D. Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat

G5A06

How does a capacitor react to AC?
A. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
B. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
C. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
D. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

G5B07

Which value of an AC signal results in the same power dissipation as a DC voltage of the same value?
A. The peak-to-peak value
B. The peak value
C. The RMS value
D. The reciprocal of the RMS value

G5C03

Which of the following components should be added to an existing resistor to increase the resistance?
A. A resistor in parallel
B. A resistor in series
C. A capacitor in series
D. A capacitor in parallel

G6A04

Which of the following is an advantage of an electrolytic capacitor?
A. Tight tolerance
B. Non-polarized
C. High capacitance for given volume
D. Inexpensive RF capacitor

G6B05

What is the approximate junction threshold voltage of a conventional silicon diode?
A. 0.1 volt
B. 0.3 volts
C. 0.7 volts
D. 1.0 volts

G6C16

Which of the following describes a type-N connector?
A. A moisture-resistant RF connector useful to 10 GHz
B. A small bayonet connector used for data circuits
C. A threaded connector used for hydraulic systems
D. An audio connector used in surround-sound installations

G7A07

What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load?
A. A series of DC pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input
B. A series of DC pulses at the same frequency as the AC input
C. A sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input
D. A steady DC voltage

G7B01

Complex digital circuitry can often be replaced by what type of integrated circuit?
A. Microcontroller
B. Charge-coupled device
C. Phase detector
D. Window comparator

G7C03

What circuit is used to process signals from the RF amplifier and local oscillator and send the result to the IF filter in a superheterodyne receiver?
A. Balanced modulator
B. IF amplifier
C. Mixer
D. Detector

G8A11

What happens to the RF carrier signal when a modulating audio signal is applied to an FM transmitter?
A. The carrier frequency changes proportionally to the instantaneous amplitude of the modulating signal
B. The carrier frequency changes proportionally to the amplitude and frequency of the modulating signal
C. The carrier amplitude changes proportionally to the instantaneous frequency of the modulating signal
D. The carrier phase changes proportionally to the instantaneous amplitude of the modulating signal

G8B11

How does forward error correction allow the receiver to correct errors in received data packets?
A. By controlling transmitter output power for optimum signal strength
B. By using the varicode character set
C. By transmitting redundant information with the data
D. By using a parity bit with each character

G9A03

What is the characteristic impedance of flat ribbon TV type twinlead?
A. 50 ohms
B. 75 ohms
C. 100 ohms
D. 300 ohms

G9B11

What is the approximate length for a 1/2-wave dipole antenna cut for 3.550 MHz?
A. 42 feet
B. 84 feet
C. 131 feet
D. 263 feet

G9C02

What is the approximate length of the driven element of a Yagi antenna?
A. 1/4 wavelength
B. 1/2 wavelength
C. 3/4 wavelength
D. 1 wavelength

G9D06

Which of the following is an advantage of a log periodic antenna?
A. Wide bandwidth
B. Higher gain per element than a Yagi antenna
C. Harmonic suppression
D. Polarization diversity

T0A08

What is one way to recharge a 12-volt lead-acid station battery if the commercial power is out?
A. Cool the battery in ice for several hours
B. Add acid to the battery
C. Connect the battery to a car's battery and run the engine
D. All of these choices are correct

T0B10

Which of the following is true concerning grounding conductors used for lightning protection?
A. Only non-insulated wire must be used
B. Wires must be carefully routed with precise right-angle bends
C. Sharp bends must be avoided
D. Common grounds must be avoided

T0C04

What factors affect the RF exposure of people near an amateur station antenna?
A. Frequency and power level of the RF field
B. Distance from the antenna to a person
C. Radiation pattern of the antenna
D. All of these choices are correct

T1A08 [97.3(a)(22)]

Which of the following entities recommends transmit/receive channels and other parameters for auxiliary and repeater stations?
A. Frequency Spectrum Manager
B. Frequency Coordinator
C. FCC Regional Field Office
D. International Telecommunications Union

T1B08 [97.303]

What do the FCC rules mean when an amateur frequency band is said to be available on a secondary basis?
A. Secondary users of a frequency have equal rights to operate
B. Amateurs are only allowed to use the frequency at night
C. Amateurs may not cause harmful interference to primary users
D. Secondary users are not allowed on amateur bands

T1C07 [97.23]

What may result when correspondence from the FCC is returned as undeliverable because the grantee failed to provide the correct mailing address?
A. Fine or imprisonment
B. Revocation of the station license or suspension of the operator license
C. Require the licensee to be re-examined
D. A reduction of one rank in operator class

T1D07 [97.113(f)]

When is an amateur station authorized to automatically retransmit the radio signals of other amateur stations?
A. When the signals are from an auxiliary, beacon, or Earth station
B. When the signals are from an auxiliary, repeater, or space station
C. When the signals are from a beacon, repeater, or space station
D. When the signals are from an Earth, repeater, or space station

T1E04 [97.103(b)]

What determines the transmitting privileges of an amateur station?
A. The frequency authorized by the frequency coordinator
B. The class of operator license held by the station licensee
C. The highest class of operator license held by anyone on the premises
D. The class of operator license held by the control operator

T1F13 [97.103(c)]

When must the station licensee make the station and its records available for FCC inspection?
A. Any time upon request by an official observer
B. Any time upon request by an FCC representative
C. 30 days prior to renewal of the station license
D. 10 days before the first transmission

T2A10

What is a band plan, beyond the privileges established by the FCC?
A. A voluntary guideline for using different modes or activities within an amateur band
B. A mandated list of operating schedules
C. A list of scheduled net frequencies
D. A plan devised by a club to use a frequency band during a contest

T2B07

What should you do if you receive a report that your station's transmissions are causing splatter or interference on nearby frequencies?
A. Increase transmit power
B. Change mode of transmission
C. Report the interference to the equipment manufacturer
D. Check your transmitter for off-frequency operation or spurious emissions

T2C09 [97.403]

When may an amateur station use any means of radio communications at its disposal for essential communications in connection with immediate safety of human life and protection of property?
A. Only when FEMA authorizes it by declaring an emergency
B. When normal communications systems are not available
C. Only when RACES authorizes it by declaring an emergency
D. Only when authorized by the local MARS program director

T3A11

Which part of the atmosphere enables the propagation of radio signals around the world?
A. The stratosphere
B. The troposphere
C. The ionosphere
D. The magnetosphere

T3B05

How does the wavelength of a radio wave relate to its frequency?
A. The wavelength gets longer as the frequency increases
B. The wavelength gets shorter as the frequency increases
C. There is no relationship between wavelength and frequency
D. The wavelength depends on the bandwidth of the signal

T3C03

What is a characteristic of VHF signals received via auroral reflection?
A. Signals from distances of 10,000 or more miles are common
B. The signals exhibit rapid fluctuations of strength and often sound distorted
C. These types of signals occur only during winter nighttime hours
D. These types of signals are generally strongest when your antenna is aimed to the south (for stations in the Northern Hemisphere)

T4A10

What is the source of a high-pitched whine that varies with engine speed in a mobile transceiver's receive audio?
A. The ignition system
B. The alternator
C. The electric fuel pump
D. Anti-lock braking system controllers

T4B05

Which of the following would reduce ignition interference to a receiver?
A. Change frequency slightly
B. Decrease the squelch setting
C. Turn on the noise blanker
D. Use the RIT control

T5A11

What is the basic unit of electromotive force?
A. The volt
B. The watt
C. The ampere
D. The ohm

T5B10

What is the approximate amount of change, measured in decibels (dB), of a power decrease from 12 watts to 3 watts?
A. 1 dB
B. 3 dB
C. 6 dB
D. 9 dB

T5C06

What is the abbreviation that refers to radio frequency signals of all types?
A. AF
B. HF
C. RF
D. VHF

T5D02

What formula is used to calculate voltage in a circuit?
A. Voltage (E) equals current (I) multiplied by resistance (R)
B. Voltage (E) equals current (I) divided by resistance (R)
C. Voltage (E) equals current (I) added to resistance (R)
D. Voltage (E) equals current (I) minus resistance (R)

T6A03

What electrical parameter is controlled by a potentiometer?
A. Inductance
B. Resistance
C. Capacitance
D. Field strength

T6B06

How is a semiconductor diode's cathode lead usually identified?
A. With the word "cathode"
B. With a stripe
C. With the letter "C"
D. All of these choices are correct

T6C04

What is component 3 in figure T1?
A. Resistor
B. Transistor
C. Lamp
D. Ground symbol

T6D01

Which of the following devices or circuits changes an alternating current into a varying direct current signal?
A. Transformer
B. Rectifier
C. Amplifier
D. Reflector

T7A07

If figure T5 represents a transceiver in which block 1 is the transmitter portion and block 3 is the receiver portion, what is the function of block 2?
A. A balanced modulator
B. A transmit-receive switch
C. A power amplifier
D. A high-pass filter

T7B12

What does the acronym "BER" mean when applied to digital communications systems?
A. Baud Enhancement Recovery
B. Baud Error Removal
C. Bit Error Rate
D. Bit Exponent Resource

T7C01

What is the primary purpose of a dummy load?
A. To prevent the radiation of signals when making tests
B. To prevent over-modulation of your transmitter
C. To improve the radiation from your antenna
D. To improve the signal to noise ratio of your receiver

T7D05

What instrument is used to measure resistance?
A. An oscilloscope
B. A spectrum analyzer
C. A noise bridge
D. An ohmmeter

T8A09

What is the approximate bandwidth of a VHF repeater FM phone signal?
A. Less than 500 Hz
B. About 150 kHz
C. Between 5 and 15 kHz
D. Between 50 and 125 kHz

T8B03

Which of the following can be done using an amateur radio satellite?
A. Talk to amateur radio operators in other countries
B. Get global positioning information
C. Make telephone calls
D. All of these choices are correct

T8C07 [97.215(c)]

What is the maximum power allowed when transmitting telecommand signals to radio controlled models?
A. 500 milliwatts
B. 1 watt
C. 25 watts
D. 1500 watts

T8D10

Which of the following can be used to transmit CW in the amateur bands?
A. Straight Key
B. Electronic Keyer
C. Computer Keyboard
D. All of these choices are correct

T9A01

What is a beam antenna?
A. An antenna built from aluminum I-beams
B. An omnidirectional antenna invented by Clarence Beam
C. An antenna that concentrates signals in one direction
D. An antenna that reverses the phase of received signals

T9B04

What does an antenna tuner do?
A. It matches the antenna system impedance to the transceiver's output impedance
B. It helps a receiver automatically tune in weak stations
C. It allows an antenna to be used on both transmit and receive
D. It automatically selects the proper antenna for the frequency band being used

E0A01

What, if any, are the differences between the radiation produced by radioactive materials and the electromagnetic energy radiated by an antenna?
A. There is no significant difference between the two types of radiation
B. Only radiation produced by radioactivity can injure human beings
C. RF radiation does not have sufficient energy to break apart atoms and molecules; radiation from radioactive sources does
D. Radiation from an antenna will damage unexposed photographic film, ordinary radioactive materials do not cause this problem

E1A10 [97.219]

If a station in a message forwarding system inadvertently forwards a message that is in violation of FCC rules, who is primarily accountable for the rules violation?
A. The control operator of the packet bulletin board station
B. The control operator of the originating station
C. The control operators of all the stations in the system
D. The control operators of all the stations in the system not authenticating the source from which they accept communications

E1B10 [97.407]

Which amateur stations may be operated in RACES?
A. Only those club stations licensed to Amateur Extra class operators
B. Any FCC-licensed amateur station except a Technician class operator's station
C. Any FCC-licensed amateur station certified by the responsible civil defense organization for the area served
D. Any FCC-licensed amateur station participating in the Military Affiliate Radio System (MARS)

E1C10 [97.113]

What types of amateur stations may automatically retransmit the radio signals of other amateur stations?
A. Only beacon, repeater or space stations
B. Only auxiliary, repeater or space stations
C. Only earth stations, repeater stations or model crafts
D. Only auxiliary, beacon or space stations

E1D07 [97.207]

Which amateur service HF bands have frequencies authorized to space stations?
A. Only 40m, 20m, 17m, 15m, 12m and 10m
B. Only 40m, 20m, 17m, 15m and 10m bands
C. 40m, 30m, 20m, 15m, 12m and 10m bands
D. All HF bands

E1E08 [97.5091, 97.525]

Which of the following best describes the Volunteer Examiner accreditation process?
A. Each General, Advanced and Amateur Extra Class operator is automatically accredited as a VE when the license is granted
B. The amateur operator applying must pass a VE examination administered by the FCC Enforcement Bureau
C. The prospective VE obtains accreditation from a VE team
D. The procedure by which a VEC confirms that the VE applicant meets FCC requirements to serve as an examiner

E1F14 [97.317]

Which of the following best describes one of the standards that must be met by an external RF power amplifier if it is to qualify for a grant of FCC certification?
A. It must produce full legal output when driven by not more than 5 watts of mean RF input power
B. It must be capable of external RF switching between its input and output networks
C. It must exhibit a gain of 0 dB or less over its full output range
D. It must satisfy the FCC's spurious emission standards when operated at its full output power

E2A13

What type of satellite appears to stay in one position in the sky?
A. HEO
B. Geosynchronous
C. Geomagnetic
D. LEO

E2B20

What special operating frequency restrictions are imposed on slow scan TV transmissions?
A. None; they are allowed on all amateur frequencies
B. They are restricted to 7.245 MHz, 14.245 MHz, 21.345, MHz, and 28.945 MHz
C. They are restricted to phone band segments and their bandwidth can be no greater than that of a voice signal of the same modulation type
D. They are not permitted above 54 MHz

E2C08

Why are received spread-spectrum signals resistant to interference?
A. Signals not using the spectrum-spreading algorithm are suppressed in the receiver
B. The high power used by a spread-spectrum transmitter keeps its signal from being easily overpowered
C. The receiver is always equipped with a digital blanker circuit
D. If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to change frequencies

E2D05

Which of the following techniques is normally used by low-earth orbiting digital satellites to relay messages around the world?
A. Digipeating
B. Store-and-forward
C. Multi-satellite relaying
D. Node hopping

E2E08

Which of the following HF digital modes can be used to transfer binary files?
A. Hellschreiber
B. PACTOR
C. RTTY
D. AMTOR

E3A10

Which range of frequencies is well suited for meteor-scatter communications?
A. 1.8 - 1.9 MHz
B. 10 - 14 MHz
C. 28 - 148 MHz
D. 220 - 450 MHz

E3B01

What is transequatorial propagation?
A. Propagation between two points at approximately the same distance north and south of the magnetic equator
B. Propagation between any two points located on the magnetic equator
C. Propagation between two continents by way of ducts along the magnetic equator
D. Propagation between two stations at the same latitude

E3C07

How does the radiation pattern of a 3-element, horizontally polarized beam antenna vary with height above ground?
A. The main lobe takeoff angle increases with increasing height
B. The main lobe takeoff angle decreases with increasing height
C. The horizontal beam width increases with height
D. The horizontal beam width decreases with height

E4A05

Which of the following test instruments is used to display intermodulation distortion products in an SSB transmission?
A. A wattmeter
B. A spectrum analyzer
C. A logic analyzer
D. A time-domain reflectometer

E4B03

What is an advantage of using a bridge circuit to measure impedance?
A. It provides an excellent match under all conditions
B. It is relatively immune to drift in the signal generator source
C. The measurement is based on obtaining a null in voltage, which can be done very precisely
D. It can display results directly in Smith chart format

E4C08

How might lowering the noise figure affect receiver performance?
A. It would reduce the signal to noise ratio
B. It would increase signal to noise ratio
C. It would reduce bandwidth
D. It would increase bandwidth

E4D10

What does a third-order intercept level of 40 dBm mean with respect to receiver performance?
A. Signals less than 40 dBm will not generate audible third-order intermodulation products
B. The receiver can tolerate signals up to 40 dB above the noise floor without producing third-order intermodulation products
C. A pair of 40 dBm signals will theoretically generate the same output on the third order intermodulation frequency as on the input frequency
D. A pair of 1 mW input signals will produce a third-order intermodulation product which is 40 dB stronger than the input signal

E4E05

How can noise from an electric motor be suppressed?
A. By installing a ferrite bead on the AC line used to power the motor
B. By installing a brute-force AC-line filter in series with the motor leads
C. By installing a bypass capacitor in series with the motor leads
D. By using a ground-fault current interrupter in the circuit used to power the motor

E5A13

What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 14.25 MHz and a Q of 187?
A. 38.1 kHz
B. 76.2 kHz
C. 1.332 kHz
D. 2.665 kHz

E5B01

What is the term for the time required for the capacitor in an RC circuit to be charged to 63.2% of the supply voltage?
A. An exponential rate of one
B. One time constant
C. One exponential period
D. A time factor of one

E5C06

In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 100-ohm-reactance capacitor in series with a 100-ohm resistor?
A. 121 ohms at an angle of -25 degrees
B. 191 ohms at an angle of -85 degrees
C. 161 ohms at an angle of -65 degrees
D. 141 ohms at an angle of -45 degrees

E5D13

How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.2 if the input is 100-V AC at 4 amperes?
A. 400 watts
B. 80 watts
C. 2000 watts
D. 50 watts

E6A04

What is the name given to an impurity atom that adds holes to a semiconductor crystal structure?
A. Insulator impurity
B. N-type impurity
C. Acceptor impurity
D. Donor impurity

E6B11

In Figure E6-3, what is the schematic symbol for a light-emitting diode?
A. 1
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7

E6C07

In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for an AND gate?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

E6D14

How many turns will be required to produce a 5-microhenry inductor using a powdered-iron toroidal core that has an inductance index (A L) value of 40 microhenrys/100 turns?
A. 35 turns
B. 13 turns
C. 79 turns
D. 141 turns

E6E08

What is the typical noise figure of a monolithic microwave integrated circuit (MMIC) amplifier?
A. Less than 1 dB
B. Approximately 3.5 to 6 dB
C. Approximately 8 to 10 dB
D. More than 20 dB

E6F02

What happens to the conductivity of a photoconductive material when light shines on it?
A. It increases
B. It decreases
C. It stays the same
D. It becomes unstable

E7A12

What is the name for logic which represents a logic "1" as a high voltage?
A. Reverse Logic
B. Assertive Logic
C. Negative logic
D. Positive Logic

E7B09

In Figure E7-1, what is the purpose of R1 and R2?
A. Load resistors
B. Fixed bias
C. Self bias
D. Feedback

E7C06

What are the distinguishing features of an elliptical filter?
A. Gradual passband rolloff with minimal stop-band ripple
B. Extremely flat response over its passband, with gradually rounded stop-band corners
C. Extremely sharp cutoff, with one or more infinitely deep notches in the stop band
D. Gradual passband rolloff with extreme stop-band ripple

E7D17

What is the primary reason that a high-frequency inverter type high-voltage power supply can be both less expensive and lighter in weight than a conventional power supply?
A. The inverter design does not require any output filtering
B. It uses a diode bridge rectifier for increased output
C. The high frequency inverter design uses much smaller transformers and filter components for an equivalent power output
D. It uses a large power-factor compensation capacitor to create "free" power from the unused portion of the AC cycle

E7E05

What circuit is added to an FM transmitter to proportionally attenuate the lower audio frequencies?
A. A de-emphasis network
B. A heterodyne suppressor
C. An audio prescaler
D. A pre-emphasis network

E7F01

What is the purpose of a prescaler circuit?
A. It converts the output of a JK flip-flop to that of an RS flip-flop
B. It multiplies a higher frequency signal so a low-frequency counter can display the operating frequency
C. It prevents oscillation in a low-frequency counter circuit
D. It divides a higher frequency signal so a low-frequency counter can display the operating frequency

E7G07

Which of the following is the most appropriate use of an op-amp RC active filter?
A. As a high-pass filter used to block RFI at the input to receivers
B. As a low-pass filter used between a transmitter and a transmission line
C. For smoothing power-supply output
D. As an audio receiving filter

E7H08

What is a Gunn diode oscillator?
A. An oscillator based on the negative resistance properties of properly-doped semiconductors
B. An oscillator based on the argon gas diode
C. A highly stable reference oscillator based on the tee-notch principle
D. A highly stable reference oscillator based on the hot-carrier effect

E8A05

What would be the most accurate way of measuring the RMS voltage of a complex waveform?
A. By using a grid dip meter
B. By measuring the voltage with a D'Arsonval meter
C. By using an absorption wavemeter
D. By measuring the heating effect in a known resistor

E8B05

What is the deviation ratio of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus-or-minus 5 kHz and accepting a maximum modulation rate of 3 kHz?
A. 60
B. 0.167
C. 0.6
D. 1.67

E8C02

What are some of the differences between the Baudot digital code and ASCII?
A. Baudot uses four data bits per character, ASCII uses seven; Baudot uses one character as a shift code, ASCII has no shift code
B. Baudot uses five data bits per character, ASCII uses seven; Baudot uses two characters as shift codes, ASCII has no shift code
C. Baudot uses six data bits per character, ASCII uses seven; Baudot has no shift code, ASCII uses two characters as shift codes
D. Baudot uses seven data bits per character, ASCII uses eight; Baudot has no shift code, ASCII uses two characters as shift codes

E8D03

What input-amplitude parameter is valuable in evaluating the signal-handling capability of a Class A amplifier?
A. Peak voltage
B. RMS voltage
C. Average power
D. Resting voltage

E9A09

What is meant by antenna gain?
A. The numerical ratio relating the radiated signal strength of an antenna in the direction of maximum radiation to that of a reference antenna
B. The numerical ratio of the signal in the forward direction to that in the opposite direction
C. The ratio of the amount of power radiated by an antenna compared to the transmitter output power
D. The final amplifier gain minus the transmission-line losses (including any phasing lines present)

E9B13

Which of the following is a disadvantage of NEC-based antenna modeling programs?
A. They can only be used for simple wire antennas
B. They are not capable of generating both vertical and horizontal polarization patterns
C. Computing time increases as the number of wire segments is increased
D. All of these answers are correct

E9C12

How is the far-field elevation pattern of a vertically polarized antenna affected by being mounted over seawater versus rocky ground?
A. The low-angle radiation decreases
B. The high-angle radiation increases
C. Both the high- and low-angle radiation decrease
D. The low-angle radiation increases

E9D04

Why is it desirable for a ground-mounted satellite communications antenna system to be able to move in both azimuth and elevation?
A. In order to track the satellite as it orbits the earth
B. So the antenna can be pointed away from interfering signals
C. So the antenna can be positioned to cancel the effects of Faraday rotation
D. To rotate antenna polarization to match that of the satellite

E9E02

What is the name of an antenna matching system that matches an unbalanced feed line to an antenna by feeding the driven element both at the center of the element and at a fraction of a wavelength to one side of center?
A. The gamma match
B. The delta match
C. The omega match
D. The stub match

E9F09

What would be the physical length of a typical coaxial transmission line that is electrically one-quarter wavelength long at 7.2 MHz? (Assume a velocity factor of 0.66)
A. 10 meters
B. 6.9 meters
C. 24 meters
D. 50 meters

E9G09

What third family of circles is often added to a Smith chart during the process of solving problems?
A. Standing-wave ratio circles
B. Antenna-length circles
C. Coaxial-length circles
D. Radiation-pattern circles

E9H05

What is the main drawback of a wire-loop antenna for direction finding?
A. It has a bidirectional pattern
B. It is non-rotatable
C. It receives equally well in all directions
D. It is practical for use only on VHF bands