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eHam.net Practice Exam -


    E0A09    

  1.   Which insulating material commonly used as a thermal conductor for some types of electronic devices is extremely toxic if broken or crushed and the particles are accidentally inhaled?
     A. Mica
     B. Zinc oxide
     C. Beryllium Oxide
     D. Uranium Hexaflouride

    E1A09     [97.301]

  2.   Which frequency bands contain at least one segment authorized only to control operators holding an Amateur Extra Class operator license?
     A. 80/75, 40, 20 and 15 meters
     B. 80/75, 40, 20, and 10 meters
     C. 80/75, 40, 30 and 10 meters
     D. 160, 80/75, 40 and 20 meters

    E1B12     [97.407]

  3.   What are the frequencies authorized to an amateur station participating in RACES during a period when the President's War Emergency Powers are in force?
     A. All frequencies in the amateur service authorized to the control operator
     B. Specific amateur service frequency segments authorized in FCC Part 214
     C. Specific local government channels
     D. Military Affiliate Radio System (MARS) channels

    E1C07     [97.3]

  4.   What is meant by local control?
     A. Controlling a station through a local auxiliary link
     B. Automatically manipulating local station controls
     C. Direct manipulation of the transmitter by a control operator
     D. Controlling a repeater using a portable handheld transceiver

    E1D03     [97.3]

  5.   What is a telecommand station in the amateur satellite service?
     A. An amateur station located on the Earth?s surface for communications with other Earth stations by means of Earth satellites
     B. An amateur station that transmits communications to initiate, modify or terminate certain functions of a space station
     C. An amateur station located more than 50 km above the Earth?s surface
     D. An amateur station that transmits telemetry consisting of measurements of upper atmosphere data from space

    E1E06     [97.509]

  6.   What is a VE team?
     A. A group of at least three VEs who administer examinations for an amateur operator license
     B. The VEC staff
     C. One or two VEs who administer examinations for an amateur operator license
     D. A group of FCC Volunteer Enforcers who investigate Amateur Rules violations

    E1F01     [97.305]

  7.   On what frequencies are spread spectrum transmissions permitted?
     A. Only on amateur frequencies above 50 MHz
     B. Only on amateur frequencies above 222 MHz
     C. Only on amateur frequencies above 420 MHz
     D. Only on amateur frequencies above 144 MHz

    E2A10    

  8.   Why may the received signal from an amateur satellite exhibit a rapidly repeating fading effect?
     A. Because the satellite is rotating
     B. Because of ionospheric absorption
     C. Because of the satellite's low orbital altitude
     D. Because of the Doppler effect

    E2B17    

  9.   Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of FMTV (Frequency-Modulated Amateur Television) as compared to vestigial sideband AM television?
     A. Immunity from fading due to limiting
     B. Poor weak signal performance
     C. Greater signal bandwidth
     D. Greater complexity of receiving equipment

    E2C08    

  10.   Why are received spread-spectrum signals resistant to interference?
     A. Signals not using the spectrum-spreading algorithm are suppressed in the receiver
     B. The high power used by a spread-spectrum transmitter keeps its signal from being easily overpowered
     C. The receiver is always equipped with a digital blanker circuit
     D. If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to change frequencies

    E2D10    

  11.   How can an APRS station be used to help support a public service communications activity?
     A. An APRS station with an emergency medical technician can automatically transmit medical data to the nearest hospital
     B. APRS stations with General Personnel Scanners can automatically relay the participant numbers and time as they pass the check points
     C. An APRS station with a GPS unit can automatically transmit information to show a mobile station's position during the event
     D. All of these choices are correct

    E2E04    

  12.   What is indicated when one of the ellipses in an FSK crossed-ellipse display suddenly disappears?
     A. Selective fading has occurred
     B. One of the signal filters has saturated
     C. The receiver has drifted 5 kHz from the desired receive frequency
     D. The mark and space signal have been inverted

    E3A10    

  13.   Which range of frequencies is well suited for meteor-scatter communications?
     A. 1.8 - 1.9 MHz
     B. 10 - 14 MHz
     C. 28 - 148 MHz
     D. 220 - 450 MHz

    E3B09     edited A]

  14.   At what time of day is gray-line propagation most prevalent?
     A. At sunrise and sunset
     B. When the sun is directly above the location of the transmitting station
     C. When the sun is directly overhead at the middle of the communications path between the two stations
     D. When the sun is directly above the location of the receiving station

    E3C03    

  15.   Where in the ionosphere does auroral activity occur?
     A. At F-region height
     B. In the equatorial band
     C. At D-region height
     D. At E-region height

    E4A10    

  16.   Which of the following is a useful test for a functioning NPN transistor in an active circuit where the transistor should be biased "on" ?
     A. Measure base-to-emitter resistance with an ohmmeter; it should be approximately 6 to 7 ohms
     B. Measure base-to-emitter resistance with an ohmmeter; it should be approximately 0.6 to 0.7 ohms
     C. Measure base-to-emitter voltage with a voltmeter; it should be approximately 6 to 7 volts
     D. Measure base-to-emitter voltage with a voltmeter; it should be approximately 0.6 to 0.7 volts

    E4B14    

  17.   How is the compensation of an oscilloscope probe typically adjusted?
     A. A square wave is observed and the probe is adjusted until the horizontal portions of the displayed wave is as nearly flat as possible
     B. A high frequency sine wave is observed, and the probe is adjusted for maximum amplitude
     C. A frequency standard is observed, and the probe is adjusted until the deflection time is accurate
     D. A DC voltage standard is observed, and the probe is adjusted until the displayed voltage is accurate

    E4C14    

  18.   Which of these choices is a desirable amount of selectivity for an amateur VHF FM receiver?
     A. 1 kHz
     B. 2.4 kHz
     C. 4.2 kHz
     D. 15 kHz

    E4D14    

  19.   Which of the following is a way to reduce the likelihood of receiver desensitization?
     A. Decrease the RF bandwidth of the receiver
     B. Raise the receiver IF frequency
     C. Increase the receiver front end gain
     D. Switch from fast AGC to slow AGC

    E4E12    

  20.   What is one disadvantage of using some automatic DSP notch-filters when attempting to copy CW signals?
     A. The DSP filter can remove the desired signal at the same time as it removes interfering signals
     B. Any nearby signal passing through the DSP system will always overwhelm the desired signal
     C. Received CW signals will appear to be modulated at the DSP clock frequency
     D. Ringing in the DSP filter will completely remove the spaces between the CW characters

    E5A09    

  21.   What is the phase relationship between the current through and the voltage across a parallel resonant circuit?
     A. The voltage leads the current by 90 degrees
     B. The current leads the voltage by 90 degrees
     C. The voltage and current are in phase
     D. The voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase

    E5B09     as E5D06

  22.   What is the relationship between the current through and the voltage across a capacitor?
     A. Voltage and current are in phase
     B. Voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
     C. Voltage leads current by 90 degrees
     D. Current leads voltage by 90 degrees

    E5C10    

  23.   When using rectangular coordinates to graph the impedance of a circuit, what does the vertical axis represent?
     A. The voltage or current associated with the resistive component
     B. The voltage or current associated with the reactive component
     C. The sum of the reactive and resistive components
     D. The difference between the resistive and reactive components

    E5D11    

  24.   How can the true power be determined in an AC circuit where the voltage and current are out of phase?
     A. By multiplying the apparent power times the power factor
     B. By dividing the reactive power by the power factor
     C. By dividing the apparent power by the power factor
     D. By multiplying the reactive power times the power factor

    E6A16    

  25.   What type of semiconductor material contains fewer free electrons than pure germanium or silicon crystals?
     A. N-type
     B. P-type
     C. Superconductor-type
     D. Bipolar-type

    E6B06    

  26.   In Figure E6-3, what is the schematic symbol for a varactor diode?
     A. 8
     B. 6
     C. 2
     D. 1

    E6C09    

  27.   In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for an OR gate?
     A. 2
     B. 3
     C. 4
     D. 6

    E6D06    

  28.   What function does a charge-coupled device (CCD) serve in a modern video camera?
     A. It stores photogenerated charges as signals corresponding to pixels
     B. It generates the horizontal pulses needed for electron beam scanning
     C. It focuses the light used to produce a pattern of electrical charges corresponding to the image
     D. It combines audio and video information to produce a composite RF signal

    E6E12    

  29.   What supply voltage do monolithic microwave integrated circuits (MMIC) amplifiers typically require?
     A. 1 volt DC
     B. 12 volts DC
     C. 20 volts DC
     D. 120 volts DC

    E6F09    

  30.   Which of the following materials is affected the most by photoconductivity?
     A. A crystalline semiconductor
     B. An ordinary metal
     C. A heavy metal
     D. A liquid semiconductor

    E7A01    

  31.   What is a bistable circuit?
     A. An "AND" gate
     B. An "OR" gate
     C. A flip-flop
     D. A clock

    E7B15    

  32.   What is the effect of intermodulation products in a linear power amplifier?
     A. Transmission of spurious signals
     B. Creation of parasitic oscillations
     C. Low efficiency
     D. All of the above

    E7C11    

  33.   Which of the following is the common name for a filter network which is equivalent to two L networks back-to-back?
     A. Pi-L
     B. Cascode
     C. Omega
     D. Pi

    E7D06    

  34.   What is the purpose of Q1 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?
     A. It provides negative feedback to improve regulation
     B. It provides a constant load for the voltage source
     C. It increases the current-handling capability of the regulator
     D. It provides D1 with current

    E7E10    

  35.   What is the process of detection?
     A. The extraction of weak signals from noise
     B. The recovery of information from a modulated RF signal
     C. The modulation of a carrier
     D. The mixing of noise with a received signal

    E7F03    

  36.   What is the function of a decade counter digital IC?
     A. It produces one output pulse for every ten input pulses
     B. It decodes a decimal number for display on a seven-segment LED display
     C. It produces ten output pulses for every input pulse
     D. It adds two decimal numbers together

    E7G06    

  37.   What steps are typically followed when selecting the external components for an op-amp RC active filter?
     A. Standard capacitor values are chosen first, the resistances are calculated, and resistors of the nearest standard value are used
     B. Standard resistor values are chosen first, the capacitances are calculated, and capacitors of the nearest standard value are used
     C. Standard resistor and capacitor values are used, the circuit is tested, and additional resistors are added to make any needed adjustments
     D. Standard resistor and capacitor values are used, the circuit is tested, and additional capacitors are added to make any needed adjustments

    E7H20    

  38.   What are the major spectral impurity components of phase-locked loop synthesizers?
     A. Broadband noise
     B. Digital conversion noise
     C. Spurs at discrete frequencies
     D. Nyquist limit noise

    E8A06    

  39.   What is the approximate ratio of PEP-to-average power in a typical voice-modulated single-sideband phone signal?
     A. 2.5 to 1
     B. 25 to 1
     C. 1 to 1
     D. 100 to 1

    E8B02    

  40.   How does the modulation index of a phase-modulated emission vary with RF carrier frequency (the modulated frequency)?
     A. It increases as the RF carrier frequency increases
     B. It decreases as the RF carrier frequency increases
     C. It varies with the square root of the RF carrier frequency
     D. It does not depend on the RF carrier frequency

    E8C11    

  41.   What spread-spectrum communications technique alters the center frequency of a conventional carrier many times per second in accordance with a pseudo-random list of channels?
     A. Frequency hopping
     B. Direct sequence
     C. Time-domain frequency modulation
     D. Frequency compandored spread-spectrum

    E8D09    

  42.   What is meant by circularly polarized electromagnetic waves?
     A. Waves with an electric field bent into a circular shape
     B. Waves with a rotating electric field
     C. Waves that circle the Earth
     D. Waves produced by a loop antenna

    E9A11    

  43.   How is antenna efficiency calculated?
     A. (radiation resistance / transmission resistance) x 100%
     B. (radiation resistance / total resistance) x 100%
     C. (total resistance / radiation resistance) x 100%
     D. (effective radiated power / transmitter output) x 100%

    E9B03    

  44.   In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the front-to-back ratio?
     A. 36 dB
     B. 18 dB
     C. 24 dB
     D. 14 dB

    E9C01    

  45.   What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/2-wavelength apart and fed 180 degrees out of phase?
     A. A cardioid
     B. Omnidirectional
     C. A figure-8 broadside to the axis of the array
     D. A figure-8 oriented along the axis of the array

    E9D08    

  46.   What happens to the bandwidth of an antenna as it is shortened through the use of loading coils?
     A. It is increased
     B. It is decreased
     C. No change occurs
     D. It becomes flat

    E9E13    

  47.   What is the purpose of a "Wilkinson divider"?
     A. It divides the operating frequency of a transmitter signal so it can be used on a lower frequency band
     B. It is used to feed high-impedance antennas from a low-impedance source
     C. It divides power equally among multiple loads while preventing changes in one load from disturbing power flow to the others
     D. It is used to feed low-impedance loads from a high-impedance source

    E9F08    

  48.   What is the term for the ratio of the actual speed at which a signal travels through a transmission line to the speed of light in a vacuum?
     A. Velocity factor
     B. Characteristic impedance
     C. Surge impedance
     D. Standing wave ratio

    E9G01    

  49.   Which of the following can be calculated using a Smith chart?
     A. Impedance along transmission lines
     B. Radiation resistance
     C. Antenna radiation pattern
     D. Radio propagation

    E9H03    

  50.   What is the effective radiated power of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 2-dB feed line loss, 2.8-dB duplexer loss, 1.2-dB circulator loss and 7-dBd antenna gain?
     A. 159 watts
     B. 252 watts
     C. 632 watts
     D. 63.2 watts

    G0A04    

  51.   What does "time averaging" mean in reference to RF radiation exposure?
     A. The average time of day when the exposure occurs
     B. The average time it takes RF radiation to have any long-term effect on the body
     C. The total time of the exposure
     D. The total RF exposure averaged over a certain time

    G0B12    

  52.   What is the purpose of a transmitter power supply interlock?
     A. To prevent unauthorized access to a transmitter
     B. To guarantee that you cannot accidentally transmit out of band
     C. To ensure that dangerous voltages are removed if the cabinet is opened
     D. To shut off the transmitter if too much current is drawn

    G1A16    

  53.   Which of the following operating restrictions applies to amateur radio stations as a secondary service in the 60 meter band?
     A. They must not cause harmful interference to stations operating in other radio services
     B. They must transmit no more than 30 minutes during each hour to minimize harmful interference to other radio services
     C. They must use lower sideband, suppressed-carrier, only
     D. They must not exceed 2.0 kHz of bandwidth

    G1B02    

  54.   With which of the following conditions must beacon stations comply?
     A. Identification must be in Morse Code
     B. The frequency must be coordinated with the National Beacon Organization
     C. The frequency must be posted on the Internet or published in a national periodical
     D. There must be no more than one beacon signal in the same band from a single

    G1C05     97.313]

  55.   What is the maximum transmitting power a station with a General Class control operator may use on the 28 MHz band?
     A. 100 watts PEP output
     B. 1000 watts PEP output
     C. 1500 watts PEP output
     D. 2000 watts PEP output

    G1D04    

  56.   Which of the following are requirements for administering a Technician Class operator examination?
     A. At Least three VEC-accredited General Class or higher VEs must be present
     B. At least two VEC-accredited General Class or higher VEs must be present
     C. At least two General Class or higher VEs must be present, but only one need be VEC accredited
     D. At least three VEs of Technician Class or higher must be present

    G1E04     97.303]

  57.   Which of the following conditions require an amateur radio station to take specific steps to avoid harmful interference to other users or facilities?
     A. When operating within one mile of an FCC Monitoring Station
     B. When using a band where the amateur service is secondary
     C. When a station is transmitting spread spectrum emissions
     D. All of these answers are correct

    G2A04    

  58.   Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17 and 12 meter bands?
     A. Upper Sideband
     B. Lower Sideband
     C. Vestigial Sideband
     D. Double Sideband

    G2B12    

  59.   What is a practical way to avoid harmful interference when selecting a frequency to call CQ using phone?
     A. Ask if the frequency is in use, say your callsign, and listen for a response
     B. Keep your CQ to less than 2 minutes in length to avoid interference to contacts that may be in progress
     C. Listen for 2 minutes before calling CQ to avoid interference to contacts that may be in progress
     D. Call CQ at low power first and if there is no indication of interference, increase

    G2C03    

  60.   When may the FCC restrict normal frequency operations of amateur stations participating in RACES?
     A. When they declare a temporary state of communication emergency
     B. When they seize your equipment for use in disaster communications
     C. Only when all amateur stations are instructed to stop transmitting
     D. When the President's War Emergency Powers have been invoked

    G2D05    

  61.   What is the most useful type of map to use when orienting a directional HF antenna toward a distant station?
     A. Azimuthal projection
     B. Mercator projection
     C. Polar projection
     D. Stereographic projection

    G2E10    

  62.   What is a major advantage of MFSK16 compared to other digital modes?
     A. It is much higher speed than RTTY
     B. It is much narrower bandwidth than most digital modes
     C. It has built-in error correction
     D. It offers good performance in weak signal environment without error correction

    G2F04    

  63.   What does it mean when a CW operator sends "CL" at the end of a transmission?
     A. Keep frequency clear
     B. Operating full break-in
     C. Listening only for a specific station or stations
     D. Closing station

    G3A06    

  64.   What is a geomagnetic disturbance?
     A. A sudden drop in the solar-flux index
     B. A shifting of the Earth's magnetic pole
     C. Ripples in the ionosphere
     D. A significant change in the Earth's magnetic field over a short period of time

    G3B10    

  65.   What is the maximum distance along the Earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop using the E region?
     A. 180 miles
     B. 1,200 miles
     C. 2,500 miles
     D. 12,000 miles

    G3C10    

  66.   Which of the following might be an indication that signals heard on the HF bands are being received via scatter propagation?
     A. The communication is during a sunspot maximum
     B. The communication is during a sudden ionospheric disturbance
     C. The signal is heard on a frequency below the maximum usable frequency
     D. The signal is heard on a frequency above the maximum usable frequency

    G4A12    

  67.   What type of signals are used to conduct a two-tone test?
     A. Two audio signals of the same frequency shifted 90-degrees
     B. Two non-harmonically related audio signals
     C. Two swept frequency tones
     D. Two audio frequency range square wave signals of equal amplitude

    G4B06    

  68.   What signal source is connected to the vertical input of a monitoring oscilloscope when checking the quality of a transmitted signal?
     A. The local oscillator of the transmitter
     B. The audio input of the transmitter
     C. The transmitter balanced mixer output
     D. The attenuated RF output of the transmitter

    G4C08    

  69.   Which of the following is a reason to place ferrite beads around audio cables to reduce common mode RF interference?
     A. They act as a series inductor
     B. They act as a shunt capacitor
     C. They lower the impedance of the cable
     D. They increase the admittance of the cable

    G4D03    

  70.   Which of the following can be the result of an incorrectly adjusted speech processor?
     A. Distorted speech
     B. Splatter
     C. Excessive background pickup
     D. All of these answers are correct

    G4E12    

  71.   Which of the following is a primary reason for not placing a gasoline-fueled generator inside an occupied area?
     A. Danger of carbon monoxide poisoning
     B. Danger of engine over torque
     C. Lack of oxygen for adequate combustion
     D. Lack of nitrogen for adequate combustion

    G5A14    

  72.   Which of the following describes one method of impedance matching between two AC circuits?
     A. Insert an LC network between the two circuits
     B. Reduce the power output of the first circuit
     C. Increase the power output of the first circuit
     D. Insert a circulator between the two circuits

    G5B14    

  73.   What is the output PEP from a transmitter if an oscilloscope measures 500 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm resistor connected to the transmitter output?
     A. 8.75 watts
     B. 625 watts
     C. 2500 watts
     D. 5000 watts

    G5C07    

  74.   What is the turns ratio of a transformer used to match an audio amplifier having a 600-ohm output impedance to a speaker having a 4-ohm impedance?
     A. 12.2 to 1
     B. 24.4 to 1
     C. 150 to 1
     D. 300 to 1

    G6A06    

  75.   What is the main disadvantage of using a conventional wire-wound resistor in a resonant circuit?
     A. The resistor's tolerance value would not be adequate for such a circuit
     B. The resistor's inductance could detune the circuit
     C. The resistor could overheat
     D. The resistor's internal capacitance would detune the circuit

    G6B09    

  76.   Which of the following describes the construction of a MOSFET?
     A. The gate is formed by a back-biased junction
     B. The gate is separated from the channel with a thin insulating layer
     C. The source is separated from the drain by a thin insulating later
     D. The source is formed by depositing metal on silicon

    G6C04    

  77.   What is meant by the term ROM?
     A. Resistor Operated Memory
     B. Read Only Memory
     C. Random Operational Memory
     D. Resistant to Overload Memory

    G7A22    

  78.   Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a variable capacitor?
     A. Symbol 2
     B. Symbol 11
     C. Symbol 5
     D. Symbol 12

    G7B02    

  79.   Why do digital circuits use the binary number system?
     A. Binary "ones" and "zeros" are easy to represent with an "on" or "off" state
     B. The binary number system is most accurate
     C. Binary numbers are more compatible with analog circuitry
     D. All of these answers are correct

    G8A01    

  80.   What is the name of the process that changes the envelope of an RF wave to convey information?
     A. Phase modulation
     B. Frequency modulation
     C. Spread Spectrum modulation
     D. Amplitude modulation

    G8B04    

  81.   What is the name of the stage in a VHF FM transmitter that selects a harmonic of an HF signal to reach the desired operating frequency?
     A. Mixer
     B. Reactance modulator
     C. Pre-emphasis network
     D. Multiplier

    G9A09    

  82.   What standing-wave-ratio will result from the connection of a 50-ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having a 200-ohm impedance?
     A. 4:1
     B. 1:4
     C. 2:1
     D. 1:2

    G9B05    

  83.   How does antenna height affect the horizontal (azimuthal) radiation pattern of a horizontal dipole HF antenna?
     A. If the antenna is too high, the pattern becomes unpredictable
     B. Antenna height has no effect on the pattern
     C. If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, the azimuthal pattern is almost omnidirectional
     D. If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, radiation off the ends of the

    G9C18    

  84.   Which of the following antenna types consists of a driven element and some combination of parasitically excited reflector and/or director elements?
     A. A collinear array
     B. A rhombic antenna
     C. A double-extended Zepp antenna
     D. A Yagi antenna

    G9D06    

  85.   Which of the following is an advantage of a log periodic antenna?
     A. Wide bandwidth
     B. Higher gain per element than a Yagi antenna
     C. Harmonic suppression
     D. Polarization diversity

    T0A13    

  86.   What kind of hazard might exist in a power supply when it isturned off and disconnected?
     A. Static electricity could damage the grounding system
     B. Circulating currents inside the transformer might cause damage
     C. The fuse might blow if you remove the cover
     D. You might receive an electric shock from stored charge in largecapacitors

    T0B09    

  87.   What is the most important safety rule to remember when using acrank-up tower?
     A. This type of tower must never be painted
     B. Crank up towers must be raised and lowered frequently to keepthem properly lubricated
     C. Winch cables must be specially rated for use on this type oftower
     D. A crank-up tower should never be climbed unless it is in thefully lowered position

    T0C01    

  88.   What type of radiation are VHF and UHF radio signals?
     A. Gamma radiation
     B. Ionizing radiation
     C. Alpha radiation
     D. Non-ionizing radiation

    T1A03     [97.501]

  89.   What classes of US amateur radio licenses may currently be earnedby examination?
     A. Novice, Technician, General, Advanced
     B. Technician, General, Advanced
     C. Technician, General, Extra
     D. Technician, Tech Plus, General

    T1B02     [97.301]

  90.   What is the purpose of ITU Regions?
     A. They are used to assist in the management of frequencyallocations
     B. They are useful when operating maritime mobile
     C. They are used in call sign assignments
     D. They must be used after your call sign to indicate yourlocation

    T1C01    

  91.   What is required before you can control an amateur station in theUS?
     A. You must hold an FCC restricted operator's permit for alicensed radio station
     B. You must submit an FCC Form 605 with a license examination fee
     C. You must be named in the FCC amateur license database, or be analien with reciprocal operating authorization
     D. The FCC must issue you a Certificate of Successful Completionof Amateur Training

    T1D10     [97.23]

  92.   The FCC requires which address to be kept up to date on theUniversal Licensing System database?
     A. The station location address
     B. The station licensee mailing address
     C. The station location address and mailing address
     D. The station transmitting location address

    T2A03     [97.217]

  93.   When is the transmission of codes or ciphers allowed to hide themeaning of a message transmitted by an amateur station?
     A. Only during contests
     B. Only when operating mobile
     C. Only when transmitting control commands to space stations orradio control craft
     D. Only when frequencies above 1280 MHz are used

    T2B07    

  94.   What is a permissible way to identify your station when you arespeaking to another amateur operator using a language other thanEnglish?
     A. You must identify using the official version of the foreignlanguage
     B. Identification is not required when using other languages
     C. You must identify using the English language
     D. You must identify using phonetics

    T2C03    

  95.   What minimum class of amateur license must you hold to be acontrol operator of a repeater station?
     A. Technician Plus
     B. Technician
     C. General
     D. Amateur Extra

    T2D10    

  96.   Why are unlicensed persons in your family not allowed to transmiton your amateur station if you are not there?
     A. They must not use your equipment without your permission
     B. They must be licensed before they are allowed to be controloperators
     C. They must know how to use proper procedures and Q signals
     D. They must know the right frequencies and emissions fortransmitting

    T3A09    

  97.   Why should you avoid using cute phrases or word combinations toidentify your station?
     A. They are not easily understood by some operators
     B. They might offend some operators
     C. They do not meet FCC identification requirements
     D. They might be interpreted as codes or ciphers intended toobscure your identification

    T3B10    

  98.   What emission modes are permitted in the restricted sub-band at144.0-144.1 MHz?
     A. CW only
     B. CW and RTTY
     C. SSB only
     D. CW and SSB

    T3C08    

  99.   Where can an official list be found of prohibited obscene andindecent words that should not be used in amateur radio?
     A. On the FCC web site
     B. There is no official list of prohibited obscene and indecentwords
     C. On the Department of Commerce web site
     D. The official list is in public domain and found in all amateurstudy guides

    T3D09    

  100.   What rules apply to your station when using amateur radio at therequest of public service officials or at the scene of anemergency?
     A. RACES
     B. ARES
     C. FCC
     D. FEMA

    T4A07    

  101.   What is the basic unit of resistance?
     A. The volt
     B. The watt
     C. The ampere
     D. The ohm

    T4B06    

  102.   How does the wavelength of a radio wave relate to its frequency?
     A. The wavelength gets longer as the frequency increases
     B. The wavelength gets shorter as the frequency increases
     C. There is no relationship between wavelength and frequency
     D. The wavelength depends on the bandwidth of the signal

    T4C07    

  103.   What is the nominal voltage per cell of a fully charged nickel-cadmium battery?
     A. 1.0 volts
     B. 1.2 volts
     C. 1.5 volts
     D. 2.2 volts

    T4D01    

  104.   What formula is used to calculate current in a circuit?
     A. Current (I) equals voltage (E) multiplied by resistance (R)
     B. Current (I) equals voltage (E) divided by resistance (R)
     C. Current (I) equals voltage (E) added to resistance (R)
     D. Current (I) equals voltage (E) minus resistance (R)

    T4E04    

  105.   How much power is being used in a circuit when the voltage is 120volts DC and the current is 2.5 amperes?
     A. 1440 watts
     B. 300 watts
     C. 48 watts
     D. 30 watts

    T5A10    

  106.   What can be used to connect a radio with a computer for datatransmission?
     A. Balun
     B. Sound Card
     C. Impedance matcher
     D. Autopatch

    T5B07    

  107.   What is the purpose of the buttons labeled "up" and "down" on manymicrophones?
     A. To allow easy frequency or memory selection
     B. To raise or lower the internal antenna
     C. To set the battery charge rate
     D. To upload or download messages

    T5C11    

  108.   What is the term for a series of repeaters that can be connectedto one another to provide users with a wider coverage?
     A. Open repeater system
     B. Closed repeater system
     C. Linked repeater system
     D. Locked repeater system

    T5D12    

  109.   What might be the problem if you receive a report that your signalthrough the repeater is distorted or weak?
     A. Your transmitter may be slightly off frequency
     B. Your batteries may be running low
     C. You could be in a bad location
     D. All of these answers are correct

    T6A09    

  110.   What is the approximate bandwidth of a single-sideband voicesignal?
     A. 1 kHz
     B. 2 kHz
     C. Between 3 and 6 kHz
     D. Between 2 and 3 kHz

    T6B08    

  111.   What are you listening to if you hear a brief tone and then astation from Russia calling CQ on a 2-meter repeater?
     A. An ionospheric band opening on VHF
     B. A prohibited transmission
     C. An Internet linked DX station
     D. None of these answers are correct

    T6C07    

  112.   What is PSK31?
     A. A high-rate data transmission mode used to transmit files
     B. A method of reducing noise interference to FM signals
     C. A type of television signal
     D. A low-rate data transmission mode that works well in noisyconditions

    T7A07    

  113.   What is a popular operating activity that involves contacting asmany stations as possible during a specified period of time?
     A. Contesting
     B. Net operations
     C. Public service events
     D. Simulated emergency exercises

    T7B03    

  114.   What is something you can do when using an amateur radiosatellite?
     A. Listen to the Space Shuttle
     B. Get global positioning information
     C. Make autopatch calls
     D. Talk to amateur radio operators in other countries

    T8A05    

  115.   What is one reason for using tactical call signs such as "commandpost" or "weather center" during an emergency?
     A. They help to keep the general public informed
     B. They are more efficient and help coordinate public-servicecommunications
     C. They are required by the FCC
     D. They increase goodwill and sound professional

    T8B04    

  116.   What is the primary function of ARES in relation to emergencyactivities?
     A. ARES organizations are restricted to serving local, state,and federal government emergency management agencies
     B. ARES supports agencies like the Red Cross, SalvationArmy, and National Weather Service
     C. ARES groups work only with local school districts
     D. ARES supports local National Guard units

    T8C07    

  117.   What should the net control station do if someone breaks in withemergency traffic?
     A. Ask them to wait until the roll has been called
     B. Stop all net activity until the emergency has been handled
     C. Ask the station to call the local police and then resumenormal net activities
     D. Ask them to move off your net frequency immediately

    T9A11    

  118.   What is the approximate length, in inches, of a quarter-wavelengthvertical antenna for 146 MHz?
     A. 112 inches
     B. 50 inches
     C. 19 inches
     D. 12 inches

    T9B11    

  119.   Why do VHF and UHF Radio signals usually travel about a thirdfarther than the visual line of sight distance between 2 stations?
     A. Radio signals move somewhat faster than the speed of light andtravel farther in the same amount of time
     B. Radio waves are not blocked by dust particles
     C. The Earth seems less curved to radio waves than to light
     D. Radio waves are blocked by dust particles

    T9C03    

  120.   What might be indicated by erratic changes in SWR readings?
     A. The transmitter is being modulated
     B. A loose connection in your antenna or feedline
     C. The transmitter is being over modulated
     D. Interference from other stations is distorting your signal