eHam.net Practice Exam -

What is the "far-field" zone of an antenna?
A. The area of the ionosphere where radiated power is not refracted
B. The area where radiated power dissipates over a specified time period
C. The area where radiated field strengths are obstructed by objects of reflection
D. The area where the shape of the antenna pattern is independent of distance

E1A03 [97.301, 97.305]

With your transceiver displaying the carrier frequency of phone signals, you hear a DX station's CQ on 14.349 MHz USB. Is it legal to return the call using upper sideband on the same frequency?
A. Yes, because the DX station initiated the contact
B. Yes, because the displayed frequency is within the 20 meter band
C. No, my sidebands will extend beyond the band edge
D. No, USA stations are not permitted to use phone emissions above 14.340 MHz

E1B09 [97.3]

What is the Radio Amateur Civil Emergency Service (RACES)?
A. A radio service using amateur service frequencies on a regular basis for communications that can reasonably be furnished through other radio services
B. A radio service of amateur stations for civil defense communications during periods of local, regional, or national civil emergencies
C. A radio service using amateur service frequencies for broadcasting to the public during periods of local, regional or national civil emergencies
D. A radio service using local government frequencies by Amateur Radio operators for civil emergency communications

E1C06 [97.109]

Which of the following statements concerning remotely controlled amateur stations is true?
A. Only Extra Class operators may be the control operator of a remote station
B. A control operator need not be present at the control point
C. A control operator must be present at the control point
D. Repeater and auxiliary stations may not be remotely controlled

E1D04 [97.3]

What is an Earth station in the amateur satellite service?
A. An amateur station within 50 km of the Earth's surface for communications with amateur stations by means of objects in space
B. An amateur station that is not able to communicate using amateur satellites
C. An amateur station that transmits telemetry consisting of measurement of upper atmosphere data from space
D. Any amateur station on the surface of the Earth

E1E19 [97.509, 97.527]

How much reimbursement may the VE team and VEC accept for preparing, processing, administering and coordinating an examination?
A. Actual out-of-pocket expenses
B. The national minimum hourly wage for time spent providing examination services
C. Up to the maximum fee per examinee announced by the FCC annually
D. As much as the examinee is willing to donate

E1F10 [97.113]

When may an amateur station send a message to a business?
A. When the total money involved does not exceed $25
B. When the control operator is employed by the FCC or another government agency
C. When transmitting international third-party communications
D. When neither the amateur nor his or her employer has a pecuniary interest in the communications

E2A05

What do the letters in a satellite's mode designator specify?
A. Power limits for uplink and downlink transmissions
B. The location of the ground control station
C. The polarization of uplink and downlink signals
D. The uplink and downlink frequencies

E2B20

What special operating frequency restrictions are imposed on slow scan TV transmissions?
A. None; they are allowed on all amateur frequencies
B. They are restricted to 7.245 MHz, 14.245 MHz, 21.345, MHz, and 28.945 MHz
C. They are restricted to phone band segments and their bandwidth can be no greater than that of a voice signal of the same modulation type
D. They are not permitted above 54 MHz

E2C04

On which of the following frequencies is an amateur radio contest contact generally discouraged?
A. 3.525 MHz
B. 14.020 MHz
C. 28.330 MHz
D. 146.52 MHz

E2D08

Which of the following types of packet frames is used to transmit APRS beacon data?
A. Connect frames
B. Disconnect frames
C. Acknowledgement frames
D. Unnumbered Information frames

E2E05

How does ARQ accomplish error correction?
A. Special binary codes provide automatic correction
B. Special polynomial codes provide automatic correction
C. If errors are detected, redundant data is substituted
D. If errors are detected, a retransmission is requested

E3A04 dited A

What type of receiving system is desirable for EME communications?
A. Equipment with very wide bandwidth
B. Equipment with very low dynamic range
C. Equipment with very low gain
D. Equipment with very low noise figures

E3B01

What is transequatorial propagation?
A. Propagation between two points at approximately the same distance north and south of the magnetic equator
B. Propagation between any two points located on the magnetic equator
C. Propagation between two continents by way of ducts along the magnetic equator
D. Propagation between two stations at the same latitude

E3C05

What causes selective fading?
A. Small changes in beam heading at the receiving station
B. Phase differences in the received signal caused by different paths
C. Large changes in the height of the ionosphere
D. Time differences between the receiving and transmitting stations

E4A09

Which of the following is most important when adjusting PSK31 transmitting levels?
A. Power output
B. PA current
C. ALC level
D. SWR

E4B12

How should a portable SWR analyzer be connected when measuring antenna resonance and feedpoint impedance?
A. Loosely couple the analyzer near the antenna base
B. Connect the analyzer via a high-impedance transformer to the antenna
C. Connect the antenna and a dummy load to the analyzer
D. Connect the antenna feed line directly to the analyzer's connector

E4C06

The thermal noise value of a receiver is -174 dBm/Hz. What is the theoretically best minimum detectable signal for a 400 Hz bandwidth receiver?
A. 174 dBm
B. -164 dBm
C. -155 dBm
D. -148 dBm

E4D12

What is the term for the reduction in receiver sensitivity caused by a strong signal near the received frequency?
A. Desensitization
B. Quieting
C. Cross-modulation interference
D. Squelch gain rollback

E4E13

What might be the cause of a loud "roaring" or "buzzing" AC line type of interference that comes and goes at intervals?
A. Arcing contacts in a thermostatically controlled device
B. A defective doorbell or doorbell transformer inside a nearby residence
C. A malfunctioning illuminated advertising display
D. All of these answers are correct

E5A04

What is the magnitude of the impedance of a circuit with a resistor, an inductor and a capacitor all in parallel, at resonance?
A. Approximately equal to circuit resistance
B. Approximately equal to inductive reactance
C. Low, as compared to the circuit resistance
D. Approximately equal to capacitive reactance

E5B07

What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series R-L-C circuit if XC is 500 ohms, R is 1 kilohm, and XL is 250 ohms?
A. 68.2 degrees with the voltage leading the current
B. 14.0 degrees with the voltage leading the current
C. 14.0 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
D. 68.2 degrees with the voltage lagging the current

E5C16

In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a circuit that has an admittance of 7.09 millisiemens at 45 degrees?
A. 5.03 x 10 ?E05 ohms at an angle of 45 degrees
B. 141 ohms at an angle of -45 degrees
C. 19,900 ohms at an angle of -45 degrees
D. 141 ohms at an angle of 45 degrees

E5D08

What is the term for energy that is stored in an electromagnetic or electrostatic field?
A. Amperes-joules
B. Potential energy
C. Joules-coulombs
D. Kinetic energy

E6A13

What do the initials CMOS stand for?
A. Common mode oscillating system
B. Complementary mica-oxide silicon
C. Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor
D. Complementary metal-oxide substrate

E6B05

What type of semiconductor device varies its internal capacitance as the voltage applied to its terminals varies?
A. Varactor diode
B. Tunnel diode
C. Silicon-controlled rectifier
D. Zener diode

E6C10

In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for a NOR gate?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

E6D18

What is one reason for using ferrite toroids rather than powdered-iron toroids in an inductor?
A. Ferrite toroids generally have lower initial permeabilities
B. Ferrite toroids generally have better temperature stability
C. Ferrite toroids generally require fewer turns to produce a given inductance value
D. Ferrite toroids are easier to use with surface mount technology

E6E13

What is the most common package for inexpensive monolithic microwave integrated circuit (MMIC) amplifiers?
A. Beryllium oxide packages
B. Glass packages
C. Plastic packages
D. Ceramic packages

E6F06

What characteristic of a crystalline solid will photoconductivity change?
A. The capacitance
B. The inductance
C. The specific gravity
D. The resistance

E7A01

What is a bistable circuit?
A. An "AND" gate
B. An "OR" gate
C. A flip-flop
D. A clock

E7B19

What is a parametric amplifier?
A. A type of bipolar operational amplifier with excellent linearity derived from use of very high voltage on the collector
B. A low-noise VHF or UHF amplifier relying on varying reactance for amplification
C. A high power amplifier for HF application utilizing the Miller effect to increase gain
D. An audio push-pull amplifier using silicon carbide transistors for extremely low noise

E7C07

What kind of audio filter would you use to attenuate an interfering carrier signal while receiving an SSB transmission?
A. A band-pass filter
B. A notch filter
C. A Pi-network filter
D. An all-pass filter

E7D11

What is the purpose of R1 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?
A. It provides a constant load to the voltage source
B. It couples hum to D1
C. It supplies current to D1
D. It bypasses hum around D1

E7E01

Which of the following can be used to generate FM-phone emissions?
A. A balanced modulator on the audio amplifier
B. A reactance modulator on the oscillator
C. A reactance modulator on the final amplifier
D. A balanced modulator on the oscillator

E7F11

What is the purpose of a frequency counter?
A. To provide a digital representation of the frequency of a signal
B. To generate a series of reference signals at known frequency intervals
C. To display all frequency components of a transmitted signal
D. To provide a signal source at a very accurate frequency

E7G15

What is meant by the term "op-amp input-offset voltage"?
A. The output voltage of the op-amp minus its input voltage
B. The difference between the output voltage of the op-amp and the input voltage required in the immediately following stage
C. The potential between the amplifier input terminals of the op-amp in a closed-loop condition
D. The potential between the amplifier input terminals of the op-amp in an open-loop condition

E7H04

How is positive feedback supplied in a Colpitts oscillator?
A. Through a tapped coil
B. Through link coupling
C. Through a capacitive divider
D. Through a neutralizing capacitor

E8A05

What would be the most accurate way of measuring the RMS voltage of a complex waveform?
A. By using a grid dip meter
B. By measuring the voltage with a D'Arsonval meter
C. By using an absorption wavemeter
D. By measuring the heating effect in a known resistor

E8B06

What is the deviation ratio of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus or minus 7.5 kHz and accepting a maximum modulation frequency of 3.5 kHz?
A. 2.14
B. 0.214
C. 0.47
D. 47

E8C07

What is the necessary bandwidth of a 170-hertz shift, 300-baud ASCII transmission?
A. 0.1 Hz
B. 0.3 kHz
C. 0.5 kHz
D. 1.0 kHz

E8D10

What is the polarization of an electromagnetic wave if its magnetic field is parallel to the surface of the Earth?
A. Circular
B. Horizontal
C. Elliptical
D. Vertical

E9A09

What is meant by antenna gain?
A. The numerical ratio relating the radiated signal strength of an antenna in the direction of maximum radiation to that of a reference antenna
B. The numerical ratio of the signal in the forward direction to that in the opposite direction
C. The ratio of the amount of power radiated by an antenna compared to the transmitter output power
D. The final amplifier gain minus the transmission-line losses (including any phasing lines present)

E9B04

In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the front-to-side ratio?
A. 12 dB
B. 14 dB
C. 18 dB
D. 24 dB

E9C03

What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/2-wavelength apart and fed in phase?
A. Omnidirectional
B. A cardioid
C. A Figure-8 broadside to the axis of the array
D. A Figure-8 end-fire along the axis of the array

E9D10

What is the approximate feed-point impedance at the center of a folded dipole antenna?
A. 300 ohms
B. 72 ohms
C. 50 ohms
D. 450 ohms

E9E10

Which of these choices is an effective way to match an antenna with a 100-ohm terminal impedance to a 50-ohm coaxial cable feed-line?
A. Connect a 1/4-wavelength open stub of 300-ohm twin-lead in parallel with the coaxial feed-line where it connects to the antenna
B. Insert a 1/2 wavelength piece of 300-ohm twin-lead in series between the antenna terminals and the 50-ohm feed cable
C. Insert a 1/4-wavelength piece of 75-ohm coaxial cable transmission line in series between the antenna terminals and the 50-ohm feed cable
D. Connect 1/2 wavelength shorted stub of 75-ohm cable in parallel with the 50-ohm cable where it attaches to the antenna

E9F16

What is the primary difference between foam-dielectric coaxial cable as opposed to solid-dielectric cable, assuming all other parameters are the same?
A. Reduced safe operating voltage limits
B. Reduced losses per unit of length
C. Higher velocity factor
D. All of these answers are correct

E9G04

What are the two families of circles and arcs that make up a Smith chart?
A. Resistance and voltage
B. Reactance and voltage
C. Resistance and reactance
D. Voltage and impedance

E9H09

What is a receiving loop antenna?
A. A large circularly-polarized antenna
B. A small coil of wire tightly wound around a toroidal ferrite core
C. One or more turns of wire wound in the shape of a large open coil
D. Any antenna coupled to a feed line through an inductive loop of wire

G0A02

Which property is NOT important in estimating if an RF signal exceeds the maximum permissible exposure (MPE)?
A. Its duty cycle
B. Its critical angle
C. Its power density
D. Its frequency

G0B03

Which size of fuse or circuit breaker would be appropriate to use with a circuit that uses AWG number 14 wiring?
A. 100 amperes
B. 60 amperes
C. 30 amperes
D. 15 amperes

G1A01

On which of the following bands is a General Class license holder granted all amateur frequency privileges?
A. 20, 17, and 12 meters
B. 160, 80, 40, and 10 meters
C. 160, 30, 17, 12, and 10 meters
D. 160, 30, 17, 15, 12, and 10 meters

G1B12

Who or what determines "good engineering and good amateur practice" that apply to operation of an amateur station in all respects not covered by the Part 97 rules?
A. The FCC
B. The Control Operator
C. The IEEE
D. The ITU

G1C13 97.303s]

What is the maximum bandwidth permitted by FCC rules for amateur radio stations when operating on USB frequencies in the 60-meter band?
A. 2.8 kHz
B. 5.6 kHz
C. +/-2.8 kHz
D. 3 kHz

G1D08

What document must be issued to a person that passes an exam element?
A. FCC form 605
B. CSCE
C. CCSA
D. NCVEC form 605

G1E05 97.117]

What types of messages for a third party in another country may be transmitted by an amateur station?
A. Any message, as long as the amateur operator is not paid
B. Only messages for other licensed amateurs
C. Only messages relating to amateur radio or remarks of a personal character, or messages relating to emergencies or disaster relief
D. No messages may be transmitted to foreign countries for third parties

G2A08

Which of the following statements is true of single sideband (SSB) voice mode?
A. It is a form of amplitude modulation in which one sideband and the carrier are suppressed
B. It is a form of frequency modulation in which higher frequencies are emphasized
C. It reproduces upper frequencies more efficiently than lower frequencies
D. It is the only voice mode authorized on the HF bands between 14 and 30 MHz

G2B04

What minimum frequency separation between CW signals should be allowed to minimize interference?
A. 5 to 50 Hz
B. 150 to 500 Hz
C. 1 to 3 kHz
D. 3 to 6 kHz

G2C09

What type of transmissions may an amateur station make during a disaster?
A. Only transmissions when RACES net is activated
B. Transmissions necessary to meet essential communications needs and to facilitate relief actions
C. Only transmissions from an official emergency station
D. Only one-way communications

G2D06

How is a directional antenna pointed when making a "long-path" contact with another station?
A. Toward the rising sun
B. Along the Gray Line
C. 180 degrees from its short-path heading
D. Toward the North

G2E04

Which of the following 20 meter band segments is most often used for most data transmissions?
A. 14.000 - 14.050 MHz
B. 14.070 - 14.100 MHz
C. 14.150 - 14.225 MHz
D. 14.275 - 14.350 MHz

G2F09

What does the Q signal "QSL" mean when operating CW?
A. Send slower
B. We have already confirmed by card
C. I acknowledge receipt
D. We have worked before

G3A04

What is measured by the solar flux index?
A. The density of the sun's magnetic field
B. The radio energy emitted by the sun
C. The number of sunspots on the side of the sun facing the Earth
D. A measure of the tilt of the Earth's ionosphere on the side toward the sun

G3B14

Which of the following is a good indicator of the possibility of sky-wave propagation on the 6 meter band?
A. Short hop sky-wave propagation on the 10 meter band
B. Long hop sky-wave propagation on the 10 meter band
C. Severe attenuation of signals on the 10 meter band
D. Long delayed echoes on the 10 meter band

G3C01

Which of the following ionospheric layers is closest to the surface of the Earth?
A. The D layer
B. The E layer
C. The F1 layer
D. The F2 layer

G4A10

What is the reason for neutralizing the final amplifier stage of a transmitter?
A. To limit the modulation index
B. To eliminate self oscillations
C. To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods
D. To keep the carrier on frequency

G4B16

Why is high input impedance desirable for a voltmeter?
A. It improves the frequency response
B. It decreases battery consumption in the meter
C. It improves the resolution of the readings
D. It decreases the loading on circuits being measured

G4C01

Which of the following might be useful in reducing RF interference to audio-frequency devices?
A. Bypass inductor
B. Bypass capacitor
C. Forward-biased diode
D. Reverse-biased diode

G4D08

Which of the following connectors would be a good choice for a serial data port?
A. PL-259
B. Type N
C. Type SMA
D. DB-9

G4E10

Which of these materials is used as the active element of a solar cell?
A. Doped Silicon
B. Nickel Hydride
C. Doped Platinum
D. Aluminum nitride

G5A06

How does a capacitor react to AC?
A. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
B. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
C. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
D. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

G5B04

How many watts of electrical power are used by a 12-VDC light bulb that draws 0.2 amperes?
A. 2.4 watts
B. 24 watts
C. 6 watts
D. 60 watts

G5C06

What is the voltage across a 500-turn secondary winding in a transformer if the 2250-turn primary is connected to 120 VAC?
A. 2370 volts
B. 540 volts
C. 26.7 volts
D. 5.9 volts

G6A13

What type of component is a thermistor?
A. A resistor that is resistant to changes in value with temperature variations
B. A device having a controlled change in resistance with temperature variations
C. A special type of transistor for use at very cold temperatures
D. A capacitor that changes value with temperature

G6B03

What is the approximate junction threshold voltage of a germanium diode?
A. 0.1 volt
B. 0.3 volts
C. 0.7 volts
D. 1.0 volts

G6C12

What two devices in an amateur radio station might be connected using a USB interface?
A. Computer and transceiver
B. Microphone and transceiver
C. Amplifier and antenna
D. Power supply and amplifier

G7A16

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a half-wave rectifier?
A. 90 degrees
B. 180 degrees
C. 270 degrees
D. 360 degrees

G7B12

Which of the following is an advantage of a Class C amplifier?
A. High efficiency
B. Linear operation
C. No need for tuned circuits
D. All of these answers are correct

G8A03

What is the name of the process which changes the frequency of an RF wave to convey information?
A. Frequency convolution
B. Frequency transformation
C. Frequency conversion
D. Frequency modulation

G8B07

What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21-MHz reactance-modulated oscillator in a 5-kHz deviation, 146.52-MHz FM-phone transmitter?
A. 101.75 Hz
B. 416.7 Hz
C. 5 kHz
D. 60 kHz

G9A14

If the SWR on an antenna feedline is 5 to 1, and a matching network at the transmitter end of the feedline is adjusted to 1 to 1 SWR, what is the resulting SWR on the feedline?
A. 1 to 1
B. 5 to 1
C. Between 1 to 1 and 5 to 1 depending on the characteristic impedance of the line
D. Between 1 to 1 and 5 to 1 depending on the reflected power at the transmitter

G9B04

What is the low angle azimuthal radiation pattern of an ideal half-wavelength dipole antenna installed 1/2 wavelength high and parallel to the earth?
A. It is a figure-eight at right angles to the antenna
B. It is a figure-eight off both ends of the antenna
C. It is a circle (equal radiation in all directions)
D. It has a pair of lobes on one side of the antenna and a single lobe on the other

G9C07

What does "front-to-back ratio" mean in reference to a Yagi antenna?
A. The number of directors versus the number of reflectors
B. The relative position of the driven element with respect to the reflectors and directors
C. The power radiated in the major radiation lobe compared to the power radiated in exactly the opposite direction
D. The ratio of forward gain to dipole gain

G9D12

What is the primary purpose of traps installed in antennas?
A. To permit multiband operation
B. To notch spurious frequencies
C. To provide balanced feed-point impedance
D. To prevent out of band operation

T0A13

What kind of hazard might exist in a power supply when it isturned off and disconnected?
A. Static electricity could damage the grounding system
B. Circulating currents inside the transformer might cause damage
C. The fuse might blow if you remove the cover
D. You might receive an electric shock from stored charge in largecapacitors

T0B01

Why should you wear a hard hat and safety glasses if you are onthe ground helping someone work on an antenna tower?
A. It is required by FCC rules
B. To keep RF energy away from your head during antenna testing
C. To protect your head and eyes in case something accidentallyfalls from the tower
D. It is required by the electrical code

T0C03

What is the maximum power level that an amateur radio station mayuse at frequencies above 30 MHz before an RF exposure evaluationis required?
A. 1500 watts PEP transmitter output
B. 1 watt forward power
C. 50 watts PEP at the antenna
D. 50 watts PEP reflected power

T1A01

Who is an amateur operator as defined in Part 97?
A. A person named in an amateur operator/primary license grant inthe FCC ULS database
B. A person who has passed a written license examination
C. The person named on the FCC Form 605 Application
D. A person holding a Restricted Operating Permit

T1B01

What is the ITU?
A. The International Telecommunications Utility
B. The International Telephone Union
C. The International Telecommunication Union
D. The International Technology Union

T1C02

Where does a US amateur license allow you to transmit?
A. From anywhere in the world
B. From wherever the Amateur Radio Service is regulated by the FCCor where reciprocal agreements are in place
C. From a country that shares a third party agreement with the US
D. Only from the mailing address printed on your license

T1D08

What is your responsibility as a station licensee?
A. You must allow another amateur to operate your station uponrequest
B. You must be present whenever the station is operated
C. You must notify the FCC if another amateur acts as the controloperator
D. Your station must be operated in accordance with the FCC rules

T2A06

What does the term broadcasting mean?
A. Transmissions intended for reception by the general public,either direct or relayed
B. Retransmission by automatic means of programs or signals fromnon-amateur stations
C. One-way radio communications, regardless of purpose or content
D. One-way or two-way radio communications between two or morestations

T2B09

What is required when using one or more self-assigned indicatorswith your assigned call sign?
A. The indicator must not conflict with an indicator specified byFCC rules or with a prefix assigned to another country
B. The indicator must consist only of numeric digits
C. The indicator must include the 2-letter abbreviation for yourstate
D. The indicator must be separated from your call sign by adouble slash mark

T2C07

What type of amateur station does not require a control operatorto be at the control point?
A. A locally controlled station
B. A remotely controlled station
C. An automatically controlled station
D. An earth station controlling a space station

T2D10

Why are unlicensed persons in your family not allowed to transmiton your amateur station if you are not there?
A. They must not use your equipment without your permission
B. They must be licensed before they are allowed to be controloperators
C. They must know how to use proper procedures and Q signals
D. They must know the right frequencies and emissions fortransmitting

T3A10

What brief statement is often used in place of "CQ" to indicatethat you are listening for calls on a repeater?
A. Say "Hello test" followed by your call sign
B. Say your call sign
C. Say the repeater call sign followed by your call sign
D. Say the letters "QSY" followed by your call sign

T3B10

What emission modes are permitted in the restricted sub-band at144.0-144.1 MHz?
A. CW only
B. CW and RTTY
C. SSB only
D. CW and SSB

T3C10

When circumstances are not specifically covered by FCC rules, whatgeneral operating standard must be applied to amateur stationoperation?
A. Designated operator control
B. Politically correct control
C. Good engineering and amateur practices
D. Reasonable operator control

T3D01

What should you do if you receive a report that your transmissionsare causing splatter or interference on nearby frequencies?
A. Increase transmit power
B. Change mode of transmission
C. Report the interference to the equipment manufacturer
D. Check transmitter for off frequency operation or spuriousemissions

T4A09

Which of the following is a good electrical conductor?
A. Glass
B. Wood
C. Copper
D. Rubber

T4B02

What term describes the number of times that an alternatingcurrent flows back and forth per second?
A. Pulse rate
B. Speed
C. Wavelength
D. Frequency

T4C10

What is the best way to get the most amount of energy from abattery?
A. Draw current from the battery as rapidly as possible
B. Draw current from the battery at the slowest rate needed
C. Reverse the leads when the battery reaches the 1/2 charge level
D. Charge the battery as frequently as possible

T4D03

What formula is used to calculate resistance in a circuit?
A. Resistance (R) equals voltage (E) multiplied by current (I)
B. Resistance (R) equals voltage (E) divided by current (I)
C. Resistance (R) equals voltage (E) added to current (I)
D. Resistance (R) equals voltage (E) minus current (I)

T4E08

What is another way to specify the frequency of a radio signalthat is oscillating at 1,500,000 Hertz?
A. 1500 kHz
B. 1500 MHz
C. 15 GHz
D. 150 kHz

T5A06

Where must a filter be installed to reduce spurious emissions?
A. At the transmitter
B. At the receiver
C. At the station power supply
D. At the microphone

T5B04

What is the purpose of the squelch control on a transceiver?
A. It is used to set the highest level of volume desired
B. It is used to set the transmitter power level
C. It is used to adjust the antenna polarization
D. It is used to quiet noise when no signal is being received

T5C13

Which of the following statements regarding use of repeaters istrue?
A. All amateur radio operators have the right to use any repeaterat any time
B. Access to any repeater may be limited by the repeater owner
C. Closed repeaters must be opened at the request of any amateurwishing to use it
D. Open repeaters are required to use CTCSS tones for access

T5D01

What is meant by fundamental overload in reference to a receiver?
A. Too much voltage from the power supply
B. Too much current from the power supply
C. Interference caused by very strong signals from a nearby source
D. Interference caused by turning the volume up too high

T6A09

What is the approximate bandwidth of a single-sideband voicesignal?
A. 1 kHz
B. 2 kHz
C. Between 3 and 6 kHz
D. Between 2 and 3 kHz

T6B03

Who may operate on the Echolink system?
A. Only club stations
B. Any licensed amateur radio operator
C. Technician class licensed amateur radio operators only
D. Any person, licensed or not, who is registered with theEcholink system

T6C06

What does the abbreviation PSK mean?
A. Pulse Shift Keying
B. Phase Shift Keying
C. Packet Short Keying
D. Phased Slide Keying

T7A04

What would be a good thing to have when operating from a locationthat includes lots of crowd noise?
A. A portable bullhorn
B. An encrypted radio
C. A combination headset and microphone
D. A pulse noise blanker

T7B08

What is the name of the group that coordinates the building and/orlaunch of the largest number of amateur radio satellites?
A. NSA
B. USOC
C. AMSAT
D. FCC

T8A01

What information is included in an FCC declaration of a temporarystate of communication emergency?
A. A list of organizations authorized to use radio communicationsin the affected area
B. A list of amateur frequency bands to be used in the affectedarea
C. Any special conditions and rules to be observed during theemergency
D. An operating schedule for authorized amateur emergency stations

T8B04

What is the primary function of ARES in relation to emergencyactivities?
A. ARES organizations are restricted to serving local, state,and federal government emergency management agencies
B. ARES supports agencies like the Red Cross, SalvationArmy, and National Weather Service
C. ARES groups work only with local school districts
D. ARES supports local National Guard units

T8C03

What should you do to minimize disruptions to an emergency trafficnet once you have checked in?
A. Whenever the net frequency is quiet, announce your call signand location
B. Move 5 kHz away from the net's frequency and use high power toask other hams to keep clear of the net frequency
C. Do not transmit on the net frequency until asked to do so bythe net control station
D. Wait until the net frequency is quiet, then ask for anyemergency traffic for your area

T9A06

What is the advantage of 5/8 wavelength over 1/4 wavelengthvertical antennas?
A. They are easier to match to the feed line than other types
B. Their radiation pattern concentrates energy at lower angles
C. They pick up less noise
D. Their radiation pattern concentrates energy at higher angles

T9B05

What should you do if a station reports that your signals werestrong just a moment ago, but now they are weak or distorted?
A. Change the batteries in your radio to a different type
B. Speak more slowly so he can understand your better
C. Ask the other operator to adjust his squelch control
D. Try moving a few feet, random reflections may be causing multi-path distortion.

T9C04

What is the SWR value where the protection circuits in most solid-state transmitters begin to reduce transmitter power?
A. 2 to 1
B. 1 to 2
C. 6 to 1
D. 10 to 1