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eHam.net Practice Exam -


    E0A05    

  1.   What is one of the potential hazards of using microwaves in the amateur radio bands?
     A. Microwaves are ionizing radiation
     B. The high gain antennas commonly used can result in high exposure levels
     C. Microwaves often travel long distances by ionospheric reflection
     D. The extremely high frequency energy can damage the joints of antenna structures

    E1A12     [97.11]

  2.   If an amateur station is installed on board a ship or aircraft, what condition must be met before the station is operated?
     A. Its operation must be approved by the master of the ship or the pilot in command of the aircraft
     B. The amateur station operator must agree to not transmit when the main ship or aircraft radios are in use
     C. It must have a power supply that is completely independent of the main ship or aircraft power supply
     D. Its operator must have an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement on his or her amateur license

    E1B06     [97.15]

  3.   Which of the following additional rules apply if you are installing an amateur station antenna at a site within 20,000 feet of a public use airport?
     A. You may have to notify the Federal Aviation Administration and register it with the FCC
     B. No special rules apply if your antenna structure will be less than 300 feet in height
     C. You must file an Environmental Impact Statement with the EPA before construction begins
     D. You must obtain a construction permit from the airport zoning authority

    E1C03     [97.3, 97.109]

  4.   How do the control operator responsibilities of a station under automatic control differ from one under local control?
     A. Under local control there is no control operator
     B. Under automatic control the control operator is not required to be present at the control point
     C. Under automatic control there is no control operator
     D. Under local control a control operator is not required to be present at a control point

    E1D04     [97.3]

  5.   What is an Earth station in the amateur satellite service?
     A. An amateur station within 50 km of the Earth's surface for communications with amateur stations by means of objects in space
     B. An amateur station that is not able to communicate using amateur satellites
     C. An amateur station that transmits telemetry consisting of measurement of upper atmosphere data from space
     D. Any amateur station on the surface of the Earth

    E1E02     [97.523]

  6.   Where are the questions for all written US amateur license examinations listed?
     A. In FCC Part 97
     B. In an FCC-maintained question pool
     C. In the VEC-maintained question pool
     D. In the appropriate FCC Report and Order

    E1F12     [97.311]

  7.   FCC-licensed amateur stations may use spread spectrum (SS) emissions to communicate under which of the following conditions?
     A. When the other station is in an area regulated by the FCC
     B. When the other station is in a country permitting SS communications
     C. When the transmission is not used to obscure the meaning of any communication
     D. All of these choices are correct

    E2A08    

  8.   What is the primary reason for satellite users to limit their transmit ERP?
     A. For RF exposure safety
     B. Because the satellite transmitter output power is limited
     C. To avoid limiting the signal of the other users
     D. To avoid interfering with terrestrial QSOs

    E2B13    

  9.   How many lines are commonly used in each frame on an amateur slow-scan color television picture?
     A. 30 to 60
     B. 60 or 100
     C. 128 or 256
     D. 180 or 360

    E2C01    

  10.   Which of the following is true about contest operating?
     A. Operators are permitted to make contacts even if they do not submit a log
     B. Interference to other amateurs is unavoidable and therefore acceptable
     C. It is mandatory to transmit the call sign of the station being worked as part of every transmission to that station
     D. Every contest requires a signal report in the exchange

    E2D08    

  11.   Which of the following types of packet frames is used to transmit APRS beacon data?
     A. Connect frames
     B. Disconnect frames
     C. Acknowledgement frames
     D. Unnumbered Information frames

    E2E06    

  12.   What is the most common data rate used for HF packet communications?
     A. 48 baud
     B. 110 baud
     C. 300 baud
     D. 1200 baud

    E3A04     dited A

  13.   What type of receiving system is desirable for EME communications?
     A. Equipment with very wide bandwidth
     B. Equipment with very low dynamic range
     C. Equipment with very low gain
     D. Equipment with very low noise figures

    E3B10    

  14.   What is the cause of gray-line propagation?
     A. At midday, the sun, being directly overhead, superheats the ionosphere causing increased refraction of radio waves
     B. At twilight, solar absorption drops greatly, while atmospheric ionization is not weakened enough to reduce the MUF
     C. At darkness, solar absorption drops greatly, while atmospheric ionization remains steady
     D. At mid afternoon, the sun heats the ionosphere, increasing radio wave refraction and the MUF

    E3C05    

  15.   What causes selective fading?
     A. Small changes in beam heading at the receiving station
     B. Phase differences in the received signal caused by different paths
     C. Large changes in the height of the ionosphere
     D. Time differences between the receiving and transmitting stations

    E4A03    

  16.   Which of the following parameters would a typical spectrum analyzer display on the vertical axis?
     A. Amplitude
     B. Duration
     C. SWR
     D. Q

    E4B11    

  17.   Which of the following describes a method to measure intermodulation distortion in an SSB transmitter?
     A. Modulate the transmitter with two non-harmonically related radio frequencies and observe the RF output with a spectrum analyzer
     B. Modulate the transmitter with two non-harmonically related audio frequencies and observe the RF output with a spectrum analyzer
     C. Modulate the transmitter with two harmonically related audio frequencies and observe the RF output with a peak reading wattmeter
     D. Modulate the transmitter with two harmonically related audio frequencies and observe the RF output with a logic analyzer

    E4C15    

  18.   What is the primary source of noise that can be heard from an HF-band receiver with an antenna connected?
     A. Detector noise
     B. Induction motor noise
     C. Receiver front-end noise
     D. Atmospheric noise

    E4D03    

  19.   How can intermodulation interference between two repeaters occur?
     A. When the repeaters are in close proximity and the signals cause feedback in one or both transmitter final amplifiers
     B. When the repeaters are in close proximity and the signals mix in one or both transmitter final amplifiers
     C. When the signals from the transmitters are reflected out of phase from airplanes passing overhead
     D. When the signals from the transmitters are reflected in phase from airplanes passing overhead

    E4E04    

  20.   How can conducted and radiated noise caused by an automobile alternator be suppressed?
     A. By installing filter capacitors in series with the DC power lead and by installing a blocking capacitor in the field lead
     B. By connecting the radio to the battery by the longest possible path and installing a blocking capacitor in both leads
     C. By installing a high-pass filter in series with the radio's power lead and a low-pass filter in parallel with the field lead
     D. By connecting the radio's power leads directly to the battery and by installing coaxial capacitors in line with the alternator leads

    E5A08    

  21.   What is the phase relationship between the current through and the voltage across a series resonant circuit?
     A. The voltage leads the current by 90 degrees
     B. The current leads the voltage by 90 degrees
     C. The voltage and current are in phase
     D. The voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase

    E5B05    

  22.   How long does it take for an initial charge of 20 V DC to decrease to 7.36 V DC in a 0.01-microfarad capacitor when a 2-megohm resistor is connected across it?
     A. 0.02 seconds
     B. 0.04 seconds
     C. 20 seconds
     D. 40 seconds

    E5C08    

  23.   In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of a 300-ohm-reactance inductor in series with a 400-ohm resistor?
     A. 400 ohms at an angle of 27 degrees
     B. 500 ohms at an angle of 37 degrees
     C. 500 ohms at an angle of 47 degrees
     D. 700 ohms at an angle of 57 degrees

    E5D17     as [E5H14]

  24.   What is the power factor of an RL circuit having a 30 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current?
     A. 1.73
     B. 0.5
     C. 0.866
     D. 0.577

    E6A03    

  25.   What are the majority charge carriers in P-type semiconductor material?
     A. Free neutrons
     B. Free protons
     C. Holes
     D. Free electrons

    E6B14    

  26.   What type of bias is required for an LED to produce luminescence?
     A. Reverse bias
     B. Forward bias
     C. Zero bias
     D. Inductive bias

    E6C06    

  27.   Why do CMOS digital integrated circuits have high immunity to noise on the input signal or power supply?
     A. Larger bypass capacitors are used in CMOS circuit design
     B. The input switching threshold is about two times the power supply voltage
     C. The input switching threshold is about one-half the power supply voltage
     D. Input signals are stronger

    E6D07    

  28.   What is a liquid-crystal display (LCD)?
     A. A modern replacement for a quartz crystal oscillator which displays its fundamental frequency
     B. A display that uses a crystalline liquid to change the way light is refracted
     C. A frequency-determining unit for a transmitter or receiver
     D. A display that uses a glowing liquid to remain brightly lit in dim light

    E6E09    

  29.   What type of amplifier device consists of a small pill-type package with an input lead, an output lead and 2 ground leads?
     A. A junction field-effect transistor (JFET)
     B. An operational amplifier integrated circuit (OAIC)
     C. An indium arsenide integrated circuit (IAIC)
     D. A monolithic microwave integrated circuit (MMIC)

    E6F13    

  30.   What is the most common type of photovoltaic cell used for electrical power generation?
     A. Selenium
     B. Silicon
     C. Cadmium Sulfide
     D. Copper oxide

    E7A02    

  31.   How many output level changes are obtained for every two trigger pulses applied to the input of a "T" flip-flop circuit?
     A. None
     B. One
     C. Two
     D. Four

    E7B10    

  32.   In Figure E7-1, what is the purpose of R3?
     A. Fixed bias
     B. Emitter bypass
     C. Output load resistor
     D. Self bias

    E7C02    

  33.   A T-network with series capacitors and a parallel (shunt) inductor has which of the following properties?
     A. It transforms impedance and is a low-pass filter
     B. It transforms reactance and is a low-pass filter
     C. It transforms impedance and is a high-pass filter
     D. It transforms reactance and is a narrow bandwidth notch filter

    E7D16    

  34.   When several electrolytic filter capacitors are connected in series to increase the operating voltage of a power supply filter circuit, why should resistors be connected across each capacitor?
     A. To equalize, as much as possible, the voltage drop across each capacitor
     B. To provide a safety bleeder to discharge the capacitors when the supply is off
     C. To provide a minimum load current to reduce voltage excursions at light loads
     D. All of these answers are correct

    E7E05    

  35.   What circuit is added to an FM transmitter to proportionally attenuate the lower audio frequencies?
     A. A de-emphasis network
     B. A heterodyne suppressor
     C. An audio prescaler
     D. A pre-emphasis network

    E7F01    

  36.   What is the purpose of a prescaler circuit?
     A. It converts the output of a JK flip-flop to that of an RS flip-flop
     B. It multiplies a higher frequency signal so a low-frequency counter can display the operating frequency
     C. It prevents oscillation in a low-frequency counter circuit
     D. It divides a higher frequency signal so a low-frequency counter can display the operating frequency

    E7G03    

  37.   What are the advantages of using an op-amp instead of LC elements in an audio filter?
     A. Op-amps are more rugged and can withstand more abuse than can LC elements
     B. Op-amps are fixed at one frequency
     C. Op-amps are available in more varieties than are LC elements
     D. Op-amps exhibit gain rather than insertion loss

    E7H10    

  38.   What type of frequency synthesizer circuit uses a phase accumulator, lookup table, digital to analog converter and a low-pass anti-alias filter?
     A. A direct digital synthesizer
     B. A hybrid synthesizer
     C. A phase locked loop synthesizer
     D. A diode-switching matrix synthesizer

    E8A10    

  39.   Which of the following is a distinguishing characteristic of a pulse waveform?
     A. Regular sinusoidal oscillations
     B. Narrow bursts of energy separated by periods of no signal
     C. A series of tones that vary between two frequencies
     D. A signal that contains three or more discrete tones

    E8B03    

  40.   What is the modulation index of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency deviation of 3000 Hz either side of the carrier frequency, when the modulating frequency is 1000 Hz?
     A. 3
     B. 0.3
     C. 3000
     D. 1000

    E8C01    

  41.   Which one of the following digital codes consists of elements having unequal length?
     A. ASCII
     B. AX.25
     C. Baudot
     D. Morse code

    E8D19    

  42.   What is the RMS value of a 340-volt peak-to-peak pure sine wave?
     A. 120-V AC
     B. 170-V AC
     C. 240-V AC
     D. 300-V AC

    E9A05    

  43.   Which of the following factors determine the radiation resistance of an antenna?
     A. Transmission-line length and antenna height
     B. Antenna height and conductor length/diameter ratio, and location of nearby conductive objects
     C. It is a physical constant and is the same for all antennas
     D. Sunspot activity and time of day

    E9B05    

  44.   What may occur when a directional antenna is operated at different frequencies within the band for which it was designed?
     A. Feed-point impedance may become negative
     B. The E-field and H-field patterns may reverse
     C. Element spacing limits could be exceeded
     D. The gain may exhibit significant variations

    E9C10    

  45.   What is the front-to-back ratio of the radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?
     A. 15 dB
     B. 28 dB
     C. 3 dB
     D. 24 dB

    E9D02    

  46.   What is one way to produce circular polarization when using linearly polarized antennas?
     A. Stack two Yagis, fed 90 degrees out of phase, to form an array with the respective elements in parallel planes
     B. Stack two Yagis, fed in phase, to form an array with the respective elements in parallel planes
     C. Arrange two Yagis perpendicular to each other with the driven elements at the same point on the boom and fed 90 degrees out of phase
     D. Arrange two Yagis collinear to each other, with the driven elements fed 180 degrees out of phase

    E9E11    

  47.   What is an effective way of matching a feed-line to a VHF or UHF antenna when the impedances of both the antenna and feed-line are unknown?
     A. Use a 50-ohm 1:1 balun between the antenna and feed-line
     B. Use the "universal stub" matching technique
     C. Connect a series-resonant LC network across the antenna feed terminals
     D. Connect a parallel-resonant LC network across the antenna feed terminals

    E9F10    

  48.   What kind of impedance does a 1/8-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is shorted at the far end?
     A. A capacitive reactance
     B. The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
     C. An inductive reactance
     D. The same as the input impedance to the final generator stage

    E9G08    

  49.   What is the process of normalization with regard to a Smith chart?
     A. Reassigning resistance values with regard to the reactance axis
     B. Reassigning reactance values with regard to the resistance axis
     C. Reassigning impedance values with regard to the prime center
     D. Reassigning prime center with regard to the reactance axis

    E9H01    

  50.   What is the effective radiated power of a repeater station with 150 watts transmitter power output, 2-dB feed line loss, 2.2-dB duplexer loss and 7-dBd antenna gain?
     A. 1977 watts
     B. 78.7 watts
     C. 420 watts
     D. 286 watts

    G0A02    

  51.   Which property is NOT important in estimating if an RF signal exceeds the maximum permissible exposure (MPE)?
     A. Its duty cycle
     B. Its critical angle
     C. Its power density
     D. Its frequency

    G0B14    

  52.   What is the maximum amount of electrical current flow through the human body that can be tolerated safely?
     A. 5 microamperes
     B. 50 microamperes
     C. 500 milliamperes
     D. 5 amperes

    G1A05    

  53.   Which of the following frequencies is in the General Class portion of the 40 meter band?
     A. 7.250 MHz
     B. 7.500 MHz
     C. 40.200 MHz
     D. 40.500 MHz

    G1B05    

  54.   When may music be transmitted by an amateur station?
     A. At any time, as long as it produces no spurious emissions
     B. When it is unintentionally transmitted from the background at the transmitter
     C. When it is transmitted on frequencies above 1215 MHz
     D. When it is an incidental part of a space shuttle or ISS retransmission

    G1C12    

  55.   What is the maximum authorized bandwidth for RTTY, data or multiplexed emissions using an unspecified digital code transmitted on the 6 and 2 meter bands?
     A. 20 kHz
     B. 50 kHz
     C. The total bandwidth shall not exceed that of a single-sideband phone emission
     D. The total bandwidth shall not exceed 10 times that of a CW emission

    G1D09    

  56.   How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination(CSCE)valid for exam element credit?
     A. 30 days
     B. 180 days
     C. 365 days
     D. For as long as your current license is valid

    G1E08    

  57.   Which of the following is a requirement for a non-licensed person to communicate with a foreign amateur radio station from a US amateur station at which a licensed control operator is present?
     A. Information must be exchanged in English
     B. The foreign amateur station must be in a country with which the United States has a third party agreement
     C. The control operator must have at least a General class license
     D. All of these answers are correct

    G2A03    

  58.   Which sideband is commonly used in the VHF and UHF bands?
     A. Upper Sideband
     B. Lower Sideband
     C. Vestigial Sideband
     D. Double Sideband

    G2B13    

  59.   What is a practical way to avoid harmful interference when calling CQ using Morse code or CW?
     A. Send the letter "V" 12 times and then listen for a response
     B. Keep your CQ to less than 2 minutes in length to avoid interference with contacts already in progress
     C. Send "QRL? de" followed by your callsign and listen for a response
     D. Call CQ at low power first; if there is no indication of interference then

    G2C01     97.403]

  60.   When normal communications systems are not available, what means may an amateur station use to provide essential communications when there is an immediate threat to the safety of human life or the protection of property?
     A. Only transmissions sent on internationally recognized emergency channels
     B. Any means, but only to RACES recognized emergency stations
     C. Any means of radiocommunication at its disposal
     D. Only those means of radiocommunication for which the station is licensed

    G2D05    

  61.   What is the most useful type of map to use when orienting a directional HF antenna toward a distant station?
     A. Azimuthal projection
     B. Mercator projection
     C. Polar projection
     D. Stereographic projection

    G2E11    

  62.   What does the abbreviation "MFSK" stand for?
     A. Manual Frequency Shift Keying
     B. Multi (or Multiple) Frequency Shift Keying
     C. Manual Frequency Sideband Keying
     D. Multi (or Multiple) Frequency Sideband Keying

    G2F06    

  63.   What does the term "zero beat" mean in CW operation?
     A. Matching the speed of the transmitting stationA. Chirpy or unstable signal
     B. Operating split to avoid interference on frequencyB. Report was read from S meter reading rather than estimated
     C. Sending without errorC. 100 percent copy
     D. Matching the frequency of the transmitting station G2FO7 (A) When sending CW, what does a "C" mean when added to the RST report?A. Chirpy or unstable signalB. Report was read from S meter reading rather than estimatedC. 100 percent copyD. Key clicks

    G3A04    

  64.   What is measured by the solar flux index?
     A. The density of the sun's magnetic field
     B. The radio energy emitted by the sun
     C. The number of sunspots on the side of the sun facing the Earth
     D. A measure of the tilt of the Earth's ionosphere on the side toward the sun

    G3B08    

  65.   What does MUF stand for?
     A. The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
     B. The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
     C. The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24 hour period
     D. The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24 hour period

    G3C10    

  66.   Which of the following might be an indication that signals heard on the HF bands are being received via scatter propagation?
     A. The communication is during a sunspot maximum
     B. The communication is during a sudden ionospheric disturbance
     C. The signal is heard on a frequency below the maximum usable frequency
     D. The signal is heard on a frequency above the maximum usable frequency

    G4A09    

  67.   What does a neutralizing circuit do in an RF amplifier?
     A. It controls differential gain
     B. It cancels the effects of positive feedback
     C. It eliminates AC hum from the power supply
     D. It reduces incidental grid modulation

    G4B01    

  68.   What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?
     A. An ohmmeter
     B. A signal generator
     C. An ammeter
     D. An oscilloscope

    G4C07    

  69.   What is one good way to avoid stray RF energy in an amateur station?
     A. Keep the station's ground wire as short as possible
     B. Install an RF filter in series with the ground wire
     C. Use a ground loop for best conductivity
     D. Install a few ferrite beads on the ground wire where it connects to your station

    G4D05    

  70.   How does an S-meter reading of 20 db over S-9 compare to an S-9 signal, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?
     A. It is 10 times weaker
     B. It is 20 times weaker
     C. It is 20 times stronger
     D. It is 100 times stronger

    G4E09    

  71.   What is the approximate open-circuit voltage from a modern, well illuminated photovoltaic cell?
     A. 0.02 VDC
     B. 0.5 VDC
     C. 0.2 VDC
     D. 1.38 VDC

    G5A02    

  72.   What is reactance?
     A. Opposition to the flow of direct current caused by resistance
     B. Opposition to the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
     C. A property of ideal resistors in AC circuits
     D. A large spark produced at switch contacts when an inductor is deenergized

    G5B14    

  73.   What is the output PEP from a transmitter if an oscilloscope measures 500 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm resistor connected to the transmitter output?
     A. 8.75 watts
     B. 625 watts
     C. 2500 watts
     D. 5000 watts

    G5C16    

  74.   What component should be added to an existing resistor in a circuit to increase circuit resistance?
     A. A resistor in parallel
     B. A resistor in series
     C. A capacitor in series
     D. A capacitor in parallel

    G6A06    

  75.   What is the main disadvantage of using a conventional wire-wound resistor in a resonant circuit?
     A. The resistor's tolerance value would not be adequate for such a circuit
     B. The resistor's inductance could detune the circuit
     C. The resistor could overheat
     D. The resistor's internal capacitance would detune the circuit

    G6B11    

  76.   Which of the following solid state devices is most like a vacuum tube in its general characteristics?
     A. A bipolar transistor
     B. An FET
     C. A tunnel diode
     D. A varistor

    G6C06    

  77.   Which type of integrated circuit is an operational amplifier?
     A. Digital
     B. MMIC
     C. Programmable
     D. Analog

    G7A20    

  78.   Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a single cell battery?
     A. Symbol 5
     B. Symbol 12
     C. Symbol 8
     D. Symbol 13

    G7B06    

  79.   What is a shift register?
     A. A clocked array of circuits that passes data in steps along the array
     B. An array of operational amplifiers used for tri-state arithmetic operations
     C. A digital mixer
     D. An analog mixer

    G8A12    

  80.   What signal(s) would be found at the output of a properly adjusted balanced modulator?
     A. Both upper and lower sidebands
     B. Either upper or lower sideband, but not both
     C. Both upper and lower sidebands and the carrier
     D. The modulating signal and the unmodulated carrier

    G8B09    

  81.   What do RTTY, Morse code, PSK31 and packet communications have in common?
     A. They require the same bandwidth
     B. They are digital modes
     C. They use on/off keying
     D. They use phase shift modulation

    G9A04    

  82.   What is a common reason for the occurrence of reflected power at the point where a feedline connects to an antenna?
     A. Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency
     B. Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle
     C. A difference between feedline impedance and antenna feed point impedance
     D. Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feedline

    G9B01    

  83.   What is one disadvantage of a directly fed random-wire antenna?
     A. It must be longer than 1 wavelength
     B. You may experience RF burns when touching metal objects in your station
     C. It produces only vertically polarized radiation
     D. It is not effective on the higher HF bands

    G9C10    

  84.   Which of the following is a Yagi antenna design variable that could be adjusted to optimize forward gain, front-to-back ratio, or SWR bandwidth?
     A. The physical length of the boom
     B. The number of elements on the boom
     C. The spacing of each element along the boom
     D. All of these choices are correct

    G9D06    

  85.   Which of the following is an advantage of a log periodic antenna?
     A. Wide bandwidth
     B. Higher gain per element than a Yagi antenna
     C. Harmonic suppression
     D. Polarization diversity

    T0A05    

  86.   What might happen if you install a 20-ampere fuse in yourtransceiver in the place of a 5-ampere fuse?
     A. The larger fuse would better protect your transceiver fromusing too much current
     B. The transceiver will run cooler
     C. Excessive current could cause a fire
     D. The transceiver would not be able to produce as much RF output

    T0B03    

  87.   What should you do before you climb a tower?
     A. Arrange for a helper or observer
     B. Inspect the tower for damage or loose hardware
     C. Make sure there are no electrical storms nearby
     D. All of these answers are correct

    T0C06    

  88.   How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RFexposure regulations?
     A. By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65
     B. By calculation based on computer modeling
     C. By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment
     D. All of these choices are correct

    T1A03     [97.501]

  89.   What classes of US amateur radio licenses may currently be earnedby examination?
     A. Novice, Technician, General, Advanced
     B. Technician, General, Advanced
     C. Technician, General, Extra
     D. Technician, Tech Plus, General

    T1B09    

  90.   What letters must be used for the first letter in US amateur callsigns?
     A. K, N, U and W
     B. A, K, N and W
     C. A, B, C and D
     D. A, N, V and W

    T1C02    

  91.   Where does a US amateur license allow you to transmit?
     A. From anywhere in the world
     B. From wherever the Amateur Radio Service is regulated by the FCCor where reciprocal agreements are in place
     C. From a country that shares a third party agreement with the US
     D. Only from the mailing address printed on your license

    T1D02    

  92.   Who can become an amateur licensee in the US?
     A. Anyone except a representative of a foreign government
     B. Only a citizen of the United States
     C. Anyone except an employee of the US government
     D. Anyone

    T2A01    

  93.   When is an amateur station authorized to transmit information tothe general public?
     A. Never
     B. Only when the operator is being paid
     C. Only when the transmission lasts more than 10 minutes
     D. Only when the transmission lasts longer than 15 minutes

    T2B02    

  94.   What is a transmission called that does not contain a stationidentification?
     A. Unidentified communications or signals
     B. Reluctance modulation
     C. Test emission
     D. Intentional interference

    T2C06     [97.3]

  95.   What is the control point of an amateur station?
     A. The on/off switch of the transmitter
     B. The input/output port of a packet controller
     C. The variable frequency oscillator of a transmitter
     D. The location at which the control operator function isperformed

    T2D01    

  96.   Who is responsible for proper operation if you transmit fromanother amateur's station?
     A. Both of you
     B. Only the other station licensee
     C. Only you as the control operator
     D. Only the station licensee, unless the station records showsanother control operator at the time

    T3A07    

  97.   Which of the following is true when making a test transmission?
     A. Station identification is not required if the transmission isless than 15 seconds
     B. Station identification is not required if the transmission isless than 1 watt
     C. Station identification is required only if your station can beheard
     D. Station identification is required at least every ten minutesand at the end of every transmission.

    T3B02    

  98.   Which of the following statements is true of band plans?
     A. They are mandated by the FCC to regulate spectrum use
     B. They are mandated by the ITU
     C. They are voluntary guidelines for efficient use of the radiospectrum
     D. They are mandatory only in the US

    T3C04    

  99.   What rule applies if two amateur stations want to use the samefrequency?
     A. The station operator with a lesser class of license must yieldthe frequency to a higher-class licensee
     B. The station operator with a lower power output must yield thefrequency to the station with a higher power output
     C. No frequency will be assigned for the exclusive use of anystation and neither has priority
     D. Station operators in ITU Regions 1 and 3 must yield thefrequency to stations in ITU Region 2

    T3D11    

  100.   What is meant by receiver front-end overload?
     A. Too much voltage from the power supply
     B. Too much current from the power supply
     C. Interference caused by strong signals from a nearby source
     D. Interference caused by turning the volume up too high

    T4A06    

  101.   How much voltage does an automobile battery usually supply?
     A. About 12 volts
     B. About 30 volts
     C. About 120 volts
     D. About 240 volts

    T4B11    

  102.   What is the frequency range of the 6 meter band in the UnitedStates?
     A. 144 to 148 MHz
     B. 222 to 225 MHz
     C. 420 to 450 MHz
     D. 50 to 54 MHz

    T4C01    

  103.   What is used to convert radio signals into sounds we can hear?
     A. Transmitter
     B. Receiver
     C. Microphone
     D. Antenna

    T4D07    

  104.   What is the voltage across the resistor if a current of 0.5amperes flows through a 2 ohm resistor?
     A. 1 volt
     B. 0.25 volts
     C. 2.5 volts
     D. 1.5 volts

    T4E07    

  105.   How many milliamperes is the same as 1.5 amperes?
     A. 15 milliamperes
     B. 150 milliamperes
     C. 1500 milliamperes
     D. 15000 milliamperes

    T5A10    

  106.   What can be used to connect a radio with a computer for datatransmission?
     A. Balun
     B. Sound Card
     C. Impedance matcher
     D. Autopatch

    T5B08    

  107.   What is the purpose of the "shift" control found on many VHF/UHFtransceivers?
     A. Adjust transmitter power level
     B. Change bands
     C. Adjust the offset between transmit and receive frequency
     D. Change modes

    T5C10    

  108.   How might you find out if you could communicate with a stationusing simplex instead of a repeater?
     A. Check the repeater input frequency to see if you can hear theother station
     B. Check to see if you can hear the other station on a differentfrequency band
     C. Check to see if you can hear a more distant repeater
     D. Check to see if a third station can hear both of you

    T5D10    

  109.   What could be happening if another operator tells you he ishearing a variable high-pitched whine on the signals from yourmobile transmitter?
     A. Your microphone is picking up noise from an open window
     B. You have the volume on your receiver set too high
     C. You need to adjust your squelch control
     D. The power wiring for your radio is picking up noise from thevehicle's electrical system

    T6A04    

  110.   Which type of voice modulation is most often used for longdistance and weak signal contacts on the VHF and UHF bands?
     A. FM
     B. AM
     C. SSB
     D. PM

    T6B04    

  111.   What technology do Echolink and IRLP have in common?
     A. Voice over Internet protocol
     B. Ionospheric propagation
     C. AC power lines
     D. PSK31

    T6C05    

  112.   What emission mode may be used by a Technician class operator inthe 219 - 220 MHz frequency range?
     A. Slow-scan television
     B. Point-to-point digital message forwarding
     C. FM voice
     D. Fast-scan television

    T7A12    

  113.   What is the station identification requirement when sendingcommands to a radio control model using amateur frequencies?
     A. Voice identification must be transmitted every 10 minutes
     B. Morse code ID must be sent once per hour
     C. A label indicating the licensee's call sign and address must beaffixed to the transmitter
     D. There is no station identification requirement for this service

    T7B11    

  114.   What do the initials LEO tell you about an amateur satellite?
     A. The satellite battery is in Low Energy Operation mode
     B. The satellite is performing a Lunar Ejection Orbit maneuver
     C. The satellite is in a Low Earth Orbit
     D. The satellite uses Light Emitting Optics

    T8A03    

  115.   What should you do if you are in contact with another station andan emergency call is heard?
     A. Tell the calling station that the frequency is in use
     B. Direct the calling station to the nearest emergency netfrequency
     C. Disregard the call and continue with your contact
     D. Stop your contact immediately and take the emergency call

    T8B08    

  116.   When can you use non-amateur frequencies or equipment to call forhelp in a situation involving immediate danger to life orproperty?
     A. Never; your license only allows you to use the frequenciesauthorized to your class of license
     B. In a genuine emergency you may use any means at your disposalto call for help on any frequency
     C. When you have permission from the owner of the set
     D. When you have permission from a police officer on the scene

    T8C04    

  117.   What is one thing that must be included when passing emergencymessages?
     A. The call signs of all the stations passing the message
     B. The name of the person originating the message
     C. A status report
     D. The message title

    T9A01    

  118.   What is a beam antenna?
     A. An antenna built from metal I-beams
     B. An antenna that transmits and receives equally well in alldirections
     C. An antenna that concentrates signals in one direction
     D. An antenna that reverses the phase of received signals

    T9B01    

  119.   Why are VHF/UHF signals not normally heard over long distances?
     A. They are too weak to go very far
     B. FCC regulations prohibit them from going more than 50 miles
     C. VHF and UHF signals are usually not reflected by theionosphere
     D. They collide with trees and shrubbery and fade out

    T9C05    

  120.   What happens to the power lost in a feed line?
     A. It increases the SWR
     B. It comes back into your transmitter and could cause damage
     C. It is converted into heat by losses in the line
     D. It can cause distortion of your signal