eHam.net Practice Exam -

What does SAR measure?
A. Synthetic Aperture Ratio of the human body
B. Signal Amplification Rating
C. The rate at which RF energy is absorbed by the body
D. The rate of RF energy reflected from stationary terrain

E1A03 [97.301, 97.305]

With your transceiver displaying the carrier frequency of phone signals, you hear a DX station's CQ on 14.349 MHz USB. Is it legal to return the call using upper sideband on the same frequency?
A. Yes, because the DX station initiated the contact
B. Yes, because the displayed frequency is within the 20 meter band
C. No, my sidebands will extend beyond the band edge
D. No, USA stations are not permitted to use phone emissions above 14.340 MHz

E1B07 [97.15]

Whose approval is required before erecting an amateur station antenna located at or near a public use airport if the antenna would exceed a certain height depending upon the antenna?s distance from the nearest active runway?
A. The FAA must be notified and it must be registered with the FCC
B. Approval must be obtained from the airport manager
C. Approval must be obtained from the local zoning authorities
D. The FAA must approve any antenna structure that is higher than 20 feet

E1C09 [97.205]

Which of these frequencies are available for automatically controlled ground-station repeater operation?
A. 18.110 - 18.168 MHz
B. 24.940 - 24.990 MHz
C. 10.100 - 10.150 MHz
D. 29.500 - 29.700 MHz

E1D12 [97.207]

Who must be notified before launching an amateur space station?
A. The National Aeronautics and Space Administration, Houston, TX
B. The FCC?s International Bureau, Washington, DC
C. The Amateur Satellite Corp., Washington, DC
D. All of these answers are correct

E1E08 [97.5091, 97.525]

Which of the following best describes the Volunteer Examiner accreditation process?
A. Each General, Advanced and Amateur Extra Class operator is automatically accredited as a VE when the license is granted
B. The amateur operator applying must pass a VE examination administered by the FCC Enforcement Bureau
C. The prospective VE obtains accreditation from a VE team
D. The procedure by which a VEC confirms that the VE applicant meets FCC requirements to serve as an examiner

E1F06 [97.3]

Which of the following geographic descriptions approximately describes "Line A"?
A. A line roughly parallel to and south of the US-Canadian border
B. A line roughly parallel to and west of the US Atlantic coastline
C. A line roughly parallel to and north of the US-Mexican border and Gulf coastline
D. A line roughly parallel to and east of the US Pacific coastline

E2A05

What do the letters in a satellite's mode designator specify?
A. Power limits for uplink and downlink transmissions
B. The location of the ground control station
C. The polarization of uplink and downlink signals
D. The uplink and downlink frequencies

E2B15

What signals SSTV receiving equipment to begin a new picture line?
A. Specific tone frequencies
B. Elapsed time
C. Specific tone amplitudes
D. A two-tone signal

E2C02

Which of the following best describes ?self spotting? in regards to contest operating?
A. The generally prohibited practice of posting one?s own call sign and frequency on a call sign spotting network
B. The acceptable practice of manually posting the call signs of stations on a call sign spotting network
C. A manual technique for rapidly zero beating or tuning to a station?s frequency before calling that station
D. An automatic method for rapidly zero beating or tuning to a station?s frequency before calling that station

E2D04

What is the purpose of digital store-and-forward functions on an Amateur satellite?
A. To upload operational software for the transponder
B. To delay download of telemetry until the satellite is over the control station
C. To store digital messages in the satellite for later download by other stations
D. To relay messages between satellites

E2E01

What is a common method of transmitting data emissions below 30 MHz?
A. DTMF tones modulating an FM signal
B. FSK/AFSK
C. Pulse modulation
D. Spread spectrum

E3A03

When scheduling EME contacts, which of these conditions will generally result in the least path loss?
A. When the moon is at perigee
B. When the moon is full
C. When the moon is at apogee
D. When the MUF is above 30 MHz

E3B09 edited A]

At what time of day is gray-line propagation most prevalent?
A. At sunrise and sunset
B. When the sun is directly above the location of the transmitting station
C. When the sun is directly overhead at the middle of the communications path between the two stations
D. When the sun is directly above the location of the receiving station

E3C14

Why does the radio-path horizon distance exceed the geometric horizon?
A. E-region skip
B. D-region skip
C. Auroral skip
D. Radio waves may be bent

E4A11

Which of the following test instruments can be used to indicate pulse conditions in a digital logic circuit?
A. A logic probe
B. An ohmmeter
C. An electroscope
D. A Wheatstone bridge

E4B02

Which of the following factors most affects the accuracy of a frequency counter?
A. Input attenuator accuracy
B. Time base accuracy
C. Decade divider accuracy
D. Temperature coefficient of the logic

E4C10

Which of the following is a desirable amount of selectivity for an amateur RTTY HF receiver?
A. 100 Hz
B. 300 Hz
C. 6000 Hz
D. 2400 Hz

E4D12

What is the term for the reduction in receiver sensitivity caused by a strong signal near the received frequency?
A. Desensitization
B. Quieting
C. Cross-modulation interference
D. Squelch gain rollback

E4E06

What is a major cause of atmospheric static?
A. Solar radio frequency emissions
B. Thunderstorms
C. Geomagnetic storms
D. Meteor showers

E5A17

What is the resonant frequency of a parallel RLC circuit if R is 47 ohms, L is 25 microhenrys and C is 10 picofarads?
A. 10.1 MHz
B. 63.2 MHz
C. 10.1 kHz
D. 63.2 kHz

E5B07

What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series R-L-C circuit if XC is 500 ohms, R is 1 kilohm, and XL is 250 ohms?
A. 68.2 degrees with the voltage leading the current
B. 14.0 degrees with the voltage leading the current
C. 14.0 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
D. 68.2 degrees with the voltage lagging the current

E5C08

In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of a 300-ohm-reactance inductor in series with a 400-ohm resistor?
A. 400 ohms at an angle of 27 degrees
B. 500 ohms at an angle of 37 degrees
C. 500 ohms at an angle of 47 degrees
D. 700 ohms at an angle of 57 degrees

E5D09

What is the term for an out-of-phase, nonproductive power associated with inductors and capacitors?
A. Effective power
B. True power
C. Peak envelope power
D. Reactive power

E6A12

Why do many MOSFET devices have built-in gate-protective Zener diodes?
A. To provide a voltage reference for the correct amount of reverse-bias gate voltage
B. To protect the substrate from excessive voltages
C. To keep the gate voltage within specifications and prevent the device from overheating
D. To reduce the chance of the gate insulation being punctured by static discharges or excessive voltages

E6B08

What limits the maximum forward current rating in a junction diode?
A. Peak inverse voltage
B. Junction temperature
C. Forward voltage
D. Back EMF

E6C05

Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS logic devices over TTL devices?
A. Differential output capability
B. Lower distortion
C. Immune to damage from static discharge
D. Lower power consumption

E6D04

Exceeding what design rating can cause a cathode ray tube (CRT) to generate X-rays?
A. The heater voltage
B. The anode voltage
C. The operating temperature
D. The operating frequency

E6E06

What is one aspect of the piezoelectric effect?
A. Physical deformation of a crystal by the application of a voltage
B. Mechanical deformation of a crystal by the application of a magnetic field
C. The generation of electrical energy by the application of light
D. Reversed conduction states when a P-N junction is exposed to light

E6F04

Which of the following is an optoisolator?
A. An LED and a phototransistor
B. A P-N junction that develops an excess positive charge when exposed to light
C. An LED and a capacitor
D. A P-N junction that develops an excess negative charge when exposed to light

E7A08

What logical operation does a NAND gate perform?
A. It produces a logic "0" at its output only when all inputs are logic "0"
B. It produces a logic "1" at its output only when all inputs are logic "1"
C. It produces a logic "0" at its output if some but not all of its inputs are logic "1"
D. It produces a logic "0" at its output only when all inputs are logic "1"

E7B13

In Figure E7-2, what is the purpose of C2?
A. Output coupling
B. Emitter bypass
C. Input coupling
D. Hum filtering

E7C05

Which filter type is described as having ripple in the passband and a sharp cutoff?
A. A Butterworth filter
B. An active LC filter
C. A passive op-amp filter
D. A Chebyshev filter

E7D13

What is the purpose of D1 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?
A. To provide line voltage stabilization
B. To provide a voltage reference
C. Peak clipping
D. Hum filtering

E7E04

What is one way a single-sideband phone signal can be generated?
A. By using a balanced modulator followed by a filter
B. By using a reactance modulator followed by a mixer
C. By using a loop modulator followed by a mixer
D. By driving a product detector with a DSB signal

E7F11

What is the purpose of a frequency counter?
A. To provide a digital representation of the frequency of a signal
B. To generate a series of reference signals at known frequency intervals
C. To display all frequency components of a transmitted signal
D. To provide a signal source at a very accurate frequency

E7G11

What will be the output voltage of the circuit shown in Figure E7-4 if R1 is 1000 ohms, RF is 10,000 ohms, and 0.23 volts is applied to the input?
A. 0.23 volts
B. 2.3 volts
C. -0.23 volts
D. -2.3 volts

E7H15

What is the capture range of a phase-locked loop circuit?
A. The frequency range over which the circuit can lock
B. The voltage range over which the circuit can lock
C. The input impedance range over which the circuit can lock
D. The range of time it takes the circuit to lock

E8A15

What would the waveform of a digital data stream signal look like on a conventional oscilloscope?
A. A series of sine waves with evenly spaced gaps
B. A series of pulses with varying patterns
C. A running display of alpha-numeric characters
D. None of the above; this type of signal cannot be seen on a conventional oscilloscope

E8B11

Which of these methods can be used to combine several separate analog information streams into a single analog radio frequency signal?
A. Frequency shift keying
B. A diversity combiner
C. Frequency division multiplexing
D. Pulse compression

E8C08

What is the necessary bandwidth of a 4800-Hz frequency shift, 9600-baud ASCII FM transmission?
A. 15.36 kHz
B. 9.6 kHz
C. 4.8 kHz
D. 5.76 kHz

E8D14

What is the average power dissipated by a 50-ohm resistive load during one complete RF cycle having a peak voltage of 35 volts?
A. 12.2 watts
B. 9.9 watts
C. 24.5 watts
D. 16 watts

E9A13

Which is the most important factor that determines ground losses for a ground-mounted vertical antenna operating in the 3-30 MHz range?
A. The standing-wave ratio
B. Base current
C. Soil conductivity
D. Base impedance

E9B11

What is the principle of a Method of Moments analysis?
A. A wire is modeled as a series of segments, each having a distinct value of current
B. A wire is modeled as a single sine-wave current generator
C. A wire is modeled as a series of points, each having a distinct location in space
D. A wire is modeled as a series of segments, each having a distinct value of voltage across it

E9C01

What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/2-wavelength apart and fed 180 degrees out of phase?
A. A cardioid
B. Omnidirectional
C. A figure-8 broadside to the axis of the array
D. A figure-8 oriented along the axis of the array

E9D03

How does the beamwidth of an antenna vary as the gain is increased?
A. It increases geometrically
B. It increases arithmetically
C. It is essentially unaffected
D. It decreases

E9E02

What is the name of an antenna matching system that matches an unbalanced feed line to an antenna by feeding the driven element both at the center of the element and at a fraction of a wavelength to one side of center?
A. The gamma match
B. The delta match
C. The omega match
D. The stub match

E9F01

What is the velocity factor of a transmission line?
A. The ratio of the characteristic impedance of the line to the terminating impedance
B. The index of shielding for coaxial cable
C. The velocity of the wave in the transmission line multiplied by the velocity of light in a vacuum
D. The velocity of the wave in the transmission line divided by the velocity of light in a vacuum

E9G10

What do the arcs on a Smith chart represent?
A. Frequency
B. SWR
C. Points with constant resistance
D. Points with constant reactance

E9H10

How can the output voltage of a receiving loop antenna be increased?
A. By reducing the permeability of the loop shield
B. By increasing the number of wire turns in the loop and reducing the area of the loop structure
C. By reducing either the number of wire turns in the loop or the area of the loop structure
D. By increasing either the number of wire turns in the loop or the area of the loop structure

G0A14

What is one thing that can be done if evaluation shows that a neighbor might receive more than the allowable limit of RF exposure from the main lobe of a directional antenna?
A. Change from horizontal polarization to vertical polarization
B. Change from horizontal polarization to circular polarization
C. Use an antenna with a higher front-to-back ratio
D. Take precautions to ensure that the antenna cannot be pointed at their house

G0B03

Which size of fuse or circuit breaker would be appropriate to use with a circuit that uses AWG number 14 wiring?
A. 100 amperes
B. 60 amperes
C. 30 amperes
D. 15 amperes

G1A12 97.301]

When a General Class licensee is not permitted to use the entire voice portion of a particular band, which portion of the voice segment is generally available to them?
A. The lower end
B. The upper end
C. The lower end on frequencies below 7.3 MHz and the upper end on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
D. The upper end on frequencies below 7.3 MHz and the lower end on frequencies above

G1B05

When may music be transmitted by an amateur station?
A. At any time, as long as it produces no spurious emissions
B. When it is unintentionally transmitted from the background at the transmitter
C. When it is transmitted on frequencies above 1215 MHz
D. When it is an incidental part of a space shuttle or ISS retransmission

G1C13 97.303s]

What is the maximum bandwidth permitted by FCC rules for amateur radio stations when operating on USB frequencies in the 60-meter band?
A. 2.8 kHz
B. 5.6 kHz
C. +/-2.8 kHz
D. 3 kHz

G1D11

What criteria must be met for a non U.S. citizen to be an accredited Volunteer Examiner?
A. The person must be a resident of the U.S. for a minimum of 5 years
B. The person must hold a U.S. amateur radio license of General class or above
C. The person's home citizenship must be in the ITU 2 region
D. None of these answers is correct; non U.S. citizens cannot be volunteer examiners

G1E04 97.303]

Which of the following conditions require an amateur radio station to take specific steps to avoid harmful interference to other users or facilities?
A. When operating within one mile of an FCC Monitoring Station
B. When using a band where the amateur service is secondary
C. When a station is transmitting spread spectrum emissions
D. All of these answers are correct

G2A03

Which sideband is commonly used in the VHF and UHF bands?
A. Upper Sideband
B. Lower Sideband
C. Vestigial Sideband
D. Double Sideband

G2B06

What minimum frequency separation between 170 Hz shift RTTY signals should be allowed to minimize interference?
A. 60 Hz
B. 250 to 500 Hz
C. Approximately 3 kHz
D. 170 Hz

G2C07

What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in?
A. Continue your communication because you were on frequency first
B. Acknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be needed
C. Change to a different frequency
D. Immediately cease all transmissions

G2D08

Why do many amateurs keep a log even though the FCC doesn't require it?
A. The ITU requires a log of all international contacts
B. The ITU requires a log of all international third party traffic
C. The log provides evidence of operation needed to renew a license without retest
D. To help with a reply if the FCC requests information on who was control operator

G2E07

What does the abbreviation "RTTY" stand for?
A. "Returning To You", meaning "your turn to transmit"
B. Radio-Teletype
C. A general call to all digital stations
D. Repeater Transmission Type

G2F11

What does the Q signal "QRV" mean when operating CW?
A. You are sending too fast
B. There is interference on the frequency
C. I am quitting for the day
D. I am ready to receive messages

G3A01

What can be done at an amateur station to continue communications during a sudden ionospheric disturbance?
A. Try a higher frequency
B. Try the other sideband
C. Try a different antenna polarization
D. Try a different frequency shift

G3B13

How might a sky-wave signal sound if it arrives at your receiver by both short path and long path propagation?
A. Periodic fading approximately every 10 seconds
B. Signal strength increased by 3 dB
C. The signal will be cancelled causing severe attenuation
D. A well-defined echo can be heard

G3C08

Why are HF scatter signals in the skip zone usually weak?
A. Only a small part of the signal energy is scattered into the skip zone
B. Signals are scattered from the troposphere which is not a good reflector
C. Propagation is through ground waves which absorb most of the signal energy
D. Propagations is through ducts in F region which absorb most of the energy

G4A01

Which of the following is one use for a DSP in an amateur station?
A. To provide adequate grounding
B. To remove noise from received signals
C. To increase antenna gain
D. To increase antenna bandwidth

G4B14

Which of the following must be connected to an antenna analyzer when it is being used for SWR measurements?
A. Receiver
B. Transmitter
C. Antenna and feedline
D. All of these answers are correct

G4C09

Which of the following statements about station grounding is true?
A. The chassis of each piece of station equipment should be tied together with high-impedance conductors
B. If the chassis of all station equipment is connected with a good conductor, there is no need to tie them to an earth ground
C. RF hot spots can occur in a station located above the ground floor if the equipment is grounded by a long ground wire
D. A ground loop is an effective way to ground station equipment

G4D01

What is the reason for using a properly adjusted speech processor with a single sideband phone transmitter?
A. It reduces average transmitter power requirements
B. It reduces unwanted noise pickup from the microphone
C. It improves voice-frequency fidelity
D. It improves signal intelligibility at the receiver

G4E07

When might a lead-acid storage battery give off explosive hydrogen gas?
A. When stored for long periods of time
B. When being discharged
C. When being charged
D. When not placed on a level surface

G5A09

What unit is used to measure reactance?
A. Farad
B. Ohm
C. Ampere
D. Siemens

G5B11

What is the ratio of peak envelope power to average power for an unmodulated carrier?
A. .707
B. 1.00
C. 1.414
D. 2.00

G5C05

What is the value of each resistor if three equal value resistors in parallel produce 50 ohms of resistance, and the same three resistors in series produce 450 ohms?
A. 1500 ohms
B. 90 ohms
C. 150 ohms
D. 175 ohms

G6A05

Which of the following is one effect of lead inductance in a capacitor used at VHF and above?
A. Effective capacitance may be reduced
B. Voltage rating may be reduced
C. ESR may be reduced
D. The polarity of the capacitor might become reversed

G6B12

What is the primary purpose of a screen grid in a vacuum tube?
A. To reduce grid-to-plate capacitance
B. To increase efficiency
C. To increase the high frequency response
D. To decrease plate resistance

G6C04

What is meant by the term ROM?
A. Resistor Operated Memory
B. Read Only Memory
C. Random Operational Memory
D. Resistant to Overload Memory

G7A07

Which circuit is used to combine signals from the carrier oscillator and speech amplifier and send the result to the filter in a typical single-sideband phone transmitter?
A. Mixer
B. Detector
C. IF amplifier
D. Balanced modulator

G7B04

What is the output of a NOR gate given that both inputs are "zero"?
A. Zero
B. One
C. Minus one
D. The opposite from the previous state

G8A05

What type of transmission varies the instantaneous power level of the RF signal to convey information?
A. Frequency shift keying
B. Pulse modulation
C. Frequency modulation
D. Amplitude modulation

G8B11

What part of the 20 meter band is most commonly used for PSK31 operation?
A. At the bottom of the slow-scan TV segment, near 14.230 MHz
B. At the top of the SSB phone segment, near 14.325 MHz
C. In the middle of the CW segment, near 14.100 MHz
D. Below the RTTY segment, near 14.070 MHz

G9A01

Which of the following factors help determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor antenna feedline?
A. The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors
B. The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line
C. The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal
D. The frequency of the signal and the length of the line

G9B02

What is an advantage of downward sloping radials on a ground-plane antenna?
A. They lower the radiation angle
B. They bring the feed-point impedance closer to 300 ohms
C. They increase the radiation angle
D. They can be adjusted to bring the feed-point impedance closer to 50 ohms

G9C08

What is meant by the "main lobe" of a directive antenna?
A. The magnitude of the maximum vertical angle of radiation
B. The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element
C. The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating element
D. The direction of maximum radiated field strength from the antenna

G9D02

Which of the following is an advantage of an NVIS antenna?
A. Low vertical angle radiation for DX work
B. High vertical angle radiation for short skip during the day
C. High forward gain
D. All of these choices are correct

T0A02

What is the lowest amount of electrical current flowing throughthe human body that is likely to cause death?
A. 10 microamperes
B. 100 milliamperes
C. 10 amperes
D. 100 amperes

T0B05

What must be considered when erecting an antenna near an airport?
A. The maximum allowed height with regard to nearby airports
B. The possibility of interference to aircraft radios
C. The radiation angle of the signals it produces
D. The polarization of signal to be radiated

T0C05

Why must the frequency of an RF source be considered whenevaluating RF radiation exposure?
A. Lower frequency RF fields have more energy than higherfrequency fields
B. Lower frequency RF fields do not penetrate the human body
C. Higher frequency RF fields are transient in nature and do notaffect the human body
D. The human body absorbs more RF energy at some frequencies thanothers

T1A10

What is a transmission called that disturbs other communications?
A. Interrupted CW
B. Harmful interference
C. Transponder signals
D. Unidentified transmissions

T1B09

What letters must be used for the first letter in US amateur callsigns?
A. K, N, U and W
B. A, K, N and W
C. A, B, C and D
D. A, N, V and W

T1C03 [97.111]

Under what conditions are amateur stations allowed to communicatewith stations operating in other radio services?
A. When other radio services make contact with amateur stations
B. When authorized by the FCC
C. When communicating with stations in the Family Radio Service
D. When commercial broadcast stations are off the air

T1D04

What government agency grants your amateur radio license?
A. The Department of Defense
B. The Bureau of Public Communications
C. The Department of Commerce
D. The Federal Communications Commission

T2A10

What type of communications are prohibited when using a repeaterautopatch?
A. Calls to a recorded weather report
B. Calls to your employer requesting directions to a customer'soffice
C. Calls to the police reporting a traffic accident
D. Calls to a public utility reporting an outage of your telephone

T2B06

What is the longest period of time an amateur station can operatewithout transmitting its call sign?
A. 5 minutes
B. 10 minutes
C. 15 minutes
D. 30 minutes

T2C10

What type of control is being used when transmitting using ahandheld radio?
A. Radio control
B. Unattended control
C. Automatic control
D. Local control

T2D04

Which of the following is a prohibited amateur radio transmission?
A. Using amateur radio to seek emergency assistance
B. Using amateur radio for conducting business
C. Using an amateur phone patch to call for a taxi or fooddelivery
D. Using an amateur phone patch to call home to say you arerunning late

T3A10

What brief statement is often used in place of "CQ" to indicatethat you are listening for calls on a repeater?
A. Say "Hello test" followed by your call sign
B. Say your call sign
C. Say the repeater call sign followed by your call sign
D. Say the letters "QSY" followed by your call sign

T3B02

Which of the following statements is true of band plans?
A. They are mandated by the FCC to regulate spectrum use
B. They are mandated by the ITU
C. They are voluntary guidelines for efficient use of the radiospectrum
D. They are mandatory only in the US

T3C03

What should you do before responding to another stations call?
A. Make sure you are operating on a permissible frequency for yourlicense class
B. Adjust your transmitter for maximum power output
C. Ask the station to send their signal report and location
D. Verify the other station's license class

T3D09

What rules apply to your station when using amateur radio at therequest of public service officials or at the scene of anemergency?
A. RACES
B. ARES
C. FCC
D. FEMA

T4A07

What is the basic unit of resistance?
A. The volt
B. The watt
C. The ampere
D. The ohm

T4B03

What does 60 hertz (Hz) mean?
A. 6000 cycles per second
B. 60 cycles per second
C. 6000 meters per second
D. 60 meters per second

T4C10

What is the best way to get the most amount of energy from abattery?
A. Draw current from the battery as rapidly as possible
B. Draw current from the battery at the slowest rate needed
C. Reverse the leads when the battery reaches the 1/2 charge level
D. Charge the battery as frequently as possible

T4D04

What is the resistance of a circuit when a current of 3 amperesflows through a resistor connected to 90 volts?
A. 3 ohms
B. 30 ohms
C. 93 ohms
D. 270 ohms

T4E10

How many volts are equal to one microvolt?
A. one one-millionth of a volt
B. one million volts
C. one thousand kilovolts
D. one one-thousandth of a volt

T5A02

Which piece of station equipment converts electrical signals tosound waves?
A. Frequency coordinator
B. Frequency discriminator
C. Speaker
D. Microphone

T5B01

What may happen if a transmitter is operated with the microphonegain set too high?
A. The output power will be too high
B. It may cause the signal to become distorted and unreadable
C. The frequency will vary
D. The SWR will increase

T5C01

What is one purpose of a repeater?
A. To cut your power bill by using someone else's higher powersystem
B. To extend the usable range of mobile and low-power stations
C. To transmit signals for observing propagation and reception
D. To communicate with stations in services other than amateur

T5D10

What could be happening if another operator tells you he ishearing a variable high-pitched whine on the signals from yourmobile transmitter?
A. Your microphone is picking up noise from an open window
B. You have the volume on your receiver set too high
C. You need to adjust your squelch control
D. The power wiring for your radio is picking up noise from thevehicle's electrical system

T6A11

What is the normal bandwidth required for a conventional fast-scanTV transmission using combined video and audio on the 70-centimeter band?
A. More than 10 MHz
B. About 6 MHz
C. About 3 MHz
D. About 1 MHz

T6B05

What method is used to transfer data by IRLP?
A. VHF Packet radio
B. PSK31
C. Voice over Internet protocol
D. None of these answers are correct

T6C03

What item is required along with your normal radio for sendingautomatic location reports?
A. A connection to the vehicle speedometer
B. A connection to a WWV receiver
C. A connection to a broadcast FM sub-carrier receiver
D. A global positioning system receiver

T7A06

Which of these items would be the most useful for a hiddentransmitter hunt?
A. Binoculars and a compass
B. A directional antenna
C. A calibrated noise bridge
D. Calibrated SWR meter

T7B01

What class of license is required to use amateur satellites?
A. Only Extra class licensees can use amateur radio satellites
B. General or higher class licensees who have a satellite operatorcertification
C. Only persons who are AMSAT members and who have paid their dues
D. Any amateur whose license allows them to transmit on thesatellite uplink frequency

T8A11

What type of communications has priority at all times in theAmateur Radio Service?
A. Repeater communications
B. Emergency communications
C. Simplex communications
D. Third-party communications

T8B03

What is the primary function of RACES in relation to emergencyactivities?
A. RACES organizations are restricted to serving local, state,and federal government emergency management agencies
B. RACES supports agencies like the Red Cross, SalvationArmy, and National Weather Service
C. RACES supports the National Traffic System
D. RACES is a part of the National Emergency Warning System

T8C11

What is the recommended guideline for the maximum number of wordsto be included in the text of an emergency message?
A. 10 words
B. 25 words
C. 50 words
D. 75 words

T9A07

What is the primary purpose of a dummy load?
A. It does not radiate interfering signals when making tests
B. It will prevent over-modulation of your transmitter
C. It keeps you from making mistakes while on the air
D. It is used for close in work to prevent overloads

T9B08

What can happen if the antennas at opposite ends of a VHF or UHFline of sight radio link are not using the same polarization?
A. The modulation sidebands might become inverted
B. Signals could be as much as 100 times weaker
C. Signals have an echo effect on voices
D. Nothing significant will happen

T9C06

What instrument other than a SWR meter could you use to determineif your feedline and antenna are properly matched?
A. Voltmeter
B. Ohmmeter
C. Iambic pentameter
D. Directional wattmeter