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eHam.net Practice Exam -


    E0A10    

  1.   What material found in some electronic components such as high-voltage capacitors and transformers is considered toxic?
     A. Polychlorinated biphenyls
     B. Polyethylene
     C. Polytetrafluroethylene
     D. Polymorphic silicon

    E1A02     [97.301, 97.305]

  2.   When using a transceiver that displays the carrier frequency of phone signals, which of the following displayed frequencies represents the lowest frequency at which a properly adjusted LSB emission will be totally within the band?
     A. The exact lower band edge
     B. 300 Hz above the lower band edge
     C. 1 kHz above the lower band edge
     D. 3 kHz above the lower band edge

    E1B10     [97.407]

  3.   What frequencies are authorized to an amateur station participating in RACES?
     A. All amateur service frequencies authorized to the control operator
     B. Specific segments in the amateur service MF, HF, VHF and UHF bands
     C. Specific local government channels
     D. Military Affiliate Radio System (MARS) channels

    E1C02     [97.3, 97.109]

  4.   What is meant by automatic control of a station?
     A. The use of devices and procedures for control so that the control operator does not have to be present at a control point
     B. A station operating with its output power controlled automatically
     C. Remotely controlling a station's antenna pattern through a directional control link
     D. The use of a control link between a control point and a locally controlled station

    E1D11     [97.209]

  5.   Which amateur stations are eligible to operate as Earth stations?
     A. Any amateur station whose licensee has filed a pre-space notification with the FCC's International Bureau
     B. Only those of General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators
     C. Only those of Amateur Extra Class operators
     D. Any amateur station, subject to the privileges of the class of operator license held by the control operator

    E1E03     [97.521]

  6.   What is a Volunteer Examiner Coordinator?
     A. A person who has volunteered to administer amateur operator license examinations
     B. A person who has volunteered to prepare amateur operator license examinations
     C. An organization that has entered into an agreement with the FCC to coordinate amateur operator license examinations
     D. The person who has entered into an agreement with the FCC to be the VE session manager

    E1F03     [97.315]

  7.   Under what circumstances may a dealer sell an external RF power amplifier capable of operation below 144 MHz if it has not been granted FCC certification?
     A. It was purchased in used condition from an amateur operator and is sold to another amateur operator for use at that operator's station
     B. The equipment dealer assembled it from a kit
     C. It was imported from a manufacturer in a country that does not require certification of RF power amplifiers
     D. It was imported from a manufacturer in another country, and it was certificated by that country's government

    E2A13    

  8.   What type of satellite appears to stay in one position in the sky?
     A. HEO
     B. Geostationary
     C. Geomagnetic
     D. LEO

    E2B02    

  9.   How many horizontal lines make up a fast-scan (NTSC) television frame?
     A. 30
     B. 60
     C. 525
     D. 1080

    E2C03    

  10.   From which of the following bands is amateur radio contesting generally excluded?
     A. 30 meters
     B. 6 meters
     C. 2 meters
     D. 33 cm

    E2D11    

  11.   Which of the following data are used by the APRS network to communicate your location?
     A. Polar coordinates
     B. Time and frequency
     C. Radio direction finding LOPs
     D. Latitude and longitude

    E2E10    

  12.   Which of these digital communications modes has the narrowest bandwidth?
     A. MFSK16
     B. 170-Hz shift, 45 baud RTTY
     C. PSK31
     D. 300-baud packet

    E3A05    

  13.   Which of the following describes a method of establishing EME contacts?
     A. Time synchronous transmissions with each station alternating
     B. Storing and forwarding digital messages
     C. Judging optimum transmission times by monitoring beacons from the Moon
     D. High speed CW identification to avoid fading

    E3B11    

  14.   Which of the following describes gray-line propagation?
     A. Backscatter contacts on the 10 meter band
     B. Over the horizon propagation on the 6 and 2 meter bands
     C. Long distance communications at twilight on frequencies less than 15 MHz
     D. Tropospheric propagation on the 2 meter and 70 centimeter bands

    E3C01    

  15.   Which of the following effects does Aurora activity have on radio communications?
     A. SSB signals are raspy
     B. Signals propagating through the Aurora are fluttery
     C. CW signals appear to be modulated by white noise
     D. All of these choices are correct

    E4A03    

  16.   Which of the following parameters would a spectrum analyzer display on the vertical axis?
     A. Amplitude
     B. Duration
     C. SWR
     D. Q

    E4B02    

  17.   What is an advantage of using a bridge circuit to measure impedance?
     A. It provides an excellent match under all conditions
     B. It is relatively immune to drift in the signal generator source
     C. The measurement is based on obtaining a signal null, which can be done very precisely
     D. It can display results directly in Smith chart format

    E4C11    

  18.   Which of the following is a desirable amount of selectivity for an amateur SSB phone receiver?
     A. 1 kHz
     B. 2.4 kHz
     C. 4.2 kHz
     D. 4.8 kHz

    E4D07    

  19.   Which of the following describes the most significant effect of an off-frequency signal when it is causing cross-modulation interference to a desired signal?
     A. A large increase in background noise
     B. A reduction in apparent signal strength
     C. The desired signal can no longer be heard
     D. The off-frequency unwanted signal is heard in addition to the desired signal

    E4E06    

  20.   What is a major cause of atmospheric static?
     A. Solar radio frequency emissions
     B. Thunderstorms
     C. Geomagnetic storms
     D. Meteor showers

    E5A05    

  21.   What is the magnitude of the current at the input of a series RLC circuit as the frequency goes through resonance?
     A. Minimum
     B. Maximum
     C. R/L
     D. L/R

    E5B06    

  22.   How long does it take for an initial charge of 800 V DC to decrease to 294 V DC in a 450-microfarad capacitor when a 1-megohm resistor is connected across it?
     A. 4.50 seconds
     B. 9 seconds
     C. 450 seconds
     D. 900 seconds

    E5C14    

  23.   What coordinate system is often used to display the phase angle of a circuit containing resistance, inductive and/or capacitive reactance?
     A. Maidenhead grid
     B. Faraday grid
     C. Elliptical coordinates
     D. Polar coordinates

    E5D04    

  24.   What unit measures electrical energy stored in an electrostatic field?
     A. Coulomb
     B. Joule
     C. Watt
     D. Volt

    E6A05    

  25.   What is the alpha of a bipolar junction transistor?
     A. The change of collector current with respect to base current
     B. The change of base current with respect to collector current
     C. The change of collector current with respect to emitter current
     D. The change of collector current with respect to gate current

    E6B09    

  26.   What is a common use for point contact diodes?
     A. As a constant current source
     B. As a constant voltage source
     C. As an RF detector
     D. As a high voltage rectifier

    E6C02    

  27.   What logic state do the inputs of a TTL device assume if they are left open?
     A. A logic-high state
     B. A logic-low state
     C. The device becomes randomized and will not provide consistent high or low-logic states
     D. Open inputs on a TTL device are ignored

    E6D16    

  28.   What is one reason for using ferrite toroids rather than powdered-iron toroids in an inductor?
     A. Ferrite toroids generally have lower initial permeabilities
     B. Ferrite toroids generally have better temperature stability
     C. Ferrite toroids generally require fewer turns to produce a given inductance value
     D. Ferrite toroids are easier to use with surface mount technology

    E6E07    

  29.   Which of the following techniques is typically used to construct a MMIC-based microwave amplifier?
     A. Ground-plane construction
     B. Microstrip construction
     C. Point-to-point construction
     D. Wave-soldering construction

    E6F02    

  30.   What happens to the conductivity of a photoconductive material when light shines on it?
     A. It increases
     B. It decreases
     C. It stays the same
     D. It becomes unstable

    E7A02    

  31.   How many output level changes are obtained for every two trigger pulses applied to the input of a T flip-flop circuit?
     A. None
     B. One
     C. Two
     D. Four

    E7B05    

  32.   What can be done to prevent unwanted oscillations in an RF power amplifier?
     A. Tune the stage for maximum SWR
     B. Tune both the input and output for maximum power
     C. Install parasitic suppressors and/or neutralize the stage
     D. Use a phase inverter in the output filter

    E7C14    

  33.   Which of these modes is most affected by non-linear phase response in a receiver IF filter?
     A. Meteor Scatter
     B. Single-Sideband voice
     C. Digital
     D. Video

    E7D13    

  34.   What is the purpose of D1 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?
     A. To provide line voltage stabilization
     B. To provide a voltage reference
     C. Peak clipping
     D. Hum filtering

    E7E07    

  35.   What is meant by the term baseband in radio communications?
     A. The lowest frequency band that the transmitter or receiver covers
     B. The frequency components present in the modulating signal
     C. The unmodulated bandwidth of the transmitted signal
     D. The basic oscillator frequency in an FM transmitter that is multiplied to increase the deviation and carrier frequency

    E7F05    

  36.   Which of the following is a technique for providing high stability oscillators needed for microwave transmission and reception?
     A. Use a GPS signal reference
     B. Use a rubidium stabilized reference oscillator
     C. Use a temperature-controlled high Q dielectric resonator
     D. All of these choices are correct

    E7G05    

  37.   How can unwanted ringing and audio instability be prevented in a multi-section op-amp RC audio filter circuit?
     A. Restrict both gain and Q
     B. Restrict gain, but increase Q
     C. Restrict Q, but increase gain
     D. Increase both gain and Q

    E7H12    

  38.   Which of the following is a principal component of a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?
     A. Phase splitter
     B. Hex inverter
     C. Chroma demodulator
     D. Phase accumulator

    E8A13    

  39.   What is an advantage of using digital signals instead of analog signals to convey the same information?
     A. Less complex circuitry is required for digital signal generation and detection
     B. Digital signals always occupy a narrower bandwidth
     C. Digital signals can be regenerated multiple times without error
     D. All of these choices are correct

    E8B01    

  40.   What is the term for the ratio between the frequency deviation of an RF carrier wave, and the modulating frequency of its corresponding FM-phone signal?
     A. FM compressibility
     B. Quieting index
     C. Percentage of modulation
     D. Modulation index

    E8C03    

  41.   What is one advantage of using the ASCII code for data communications?
     A. It includes built-in error-correction features
     B. It contains fewer information bits per character than any other code
     C. It is possible to transmit both upper and lower case text
     D. It uses one character as a shift code to send numeric and special characters

    E8D01    

  42.   Which of the following is the easiest voltage amplitude parameter to measure when viewing a pure sine wave signal on an analog oscilloscope?
     A. Peak-to-peak voltage
     B. RMS voltage
     C. Average voltage
     D. DC voltage

    E9A04    

  43.   Why would one need to know the feed point impedance of an antenna?
     A. To match impedances in order to minimize standing wave ratio on the transmission line
     B. To measure the near-field radiation density from a transmitting antenna
     C. To calculate the front-to-side ratio of the antenna
     D. To calculate the front-to-back ratio of the antenna

    E9B05    

  44.   What usually occurs if a Yagi antenna is designed solely for maximum forward gain?
     A. The front-to-back ratio increases
     B. The front-to-back ratio decreases
     C. The frequency response is widened over the whole frequency band
     D. The SWR is reduced

    E9C07    

  45.   What type of antenna pattern over real ground is shown in Figure E9-2?
     A. Elevation
     B. Azimuth
     C. Radiation resistance
     D. Polarization

    E9D05    

  46.   Where should a high-Q loading coil be placed to minimize losses in a shortened vertical antenna?
     A. Near the center of the vertical radiator
     B. As low as possible on the vertical radiator
     C. As close to the transmitter as possible
     D. At a voltage node

    E9E10    

  47.   Which of these choices is an effective way to match an antenna with a 100-ohm feed point impedance to a 50-ohm coaxial cable feed line?
     A. Connect a 1/4-wavelength open stub of 300-ohm twin-lead in parallel with the coaxial feed line where it connects to the antenna
     B. Insert a 1/2 wavelength piece of 300-ohm twin-lead in series between the antenna terminals and the 50-ohm feed cable
     C. Insert a 1/4-wavelength piece of 75-ohm coaxial cable transmission line in series between the antenna terminals and the 50-ohm feed cable
     D. Connect 1/2 wavelength shorted stub of 75-ohm cable in parallel with the 50-ohm cable where it attaches to the antenna

    E9F11    

  48.   What impedance does a 1/8-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at the far end?
     A. The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
     B. An inductive reactance
     C. A capacitive reactance
     D. The same as the input impedance of the final generator stage

    E9G08    

  49.   What is the process of normalization with regard to a Smith chart?
     A. Reassigning resistance values with regard to the reactance axis
     B. Reassigning reactance values with regard to the resistance axis
     C. Reassigning impedance values with regard to the prime center
     D. Reassigning prime center with regard to the reactance axis

    E9H01    

  50.   What is the effective radiated power relative to a dipole of a repeater station with 150 watts transmitter power output, 2-dB feed line loss, 2.2-dB duplexer loss and 7-dBd antenna gain?
     A. 1977 watts
     B. 78.7 watts
     C. 420 watts
     D. 286 watts

    G0A02    

  51.   Which of the following properties is important in estimating whether an RF signal exceeds the maximum permissible exposure (MPE)?
     A. Its duty cycle
     B. Its frequency
     C. Its power density
     D. All of these choices are correct

    G0B06    

  52.   Why must the metal enclosure of every item of station equipment be grounded?
     A. It prevents blowing of fuses in case of an internal short circuit
     B. It prevents signal overload
     C. It ensures that the neutral wire is grounded
     D. It ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis

    G1A09     [97.301(d)]

  53.   Which of the following frequencies is within the General Class portion of the 80 meter band?
     A. 1855 kHz
     B. 2560 kHz
     C. 3560 kHz
     D. 3650 kHz

    G1B05     [97.113(a)(5),(e)]

  54.   When may music be transmitted by an amateur station?
     A. At any time, as long as it produces no spurious emissions
     B. When it is unintentionally transmitted from the background at the transmitter
     C. When it is transmitted on frequencies above 1215 MHz
     D. When it is an incidental part of a manned space craft retransmission

    G1C01     [97.313(c)(1)]

  55.   What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?
     A. 200 watts PEP output
     B. 1000 watts PEP output
     C. 1500 watts PEP output
     D. 2000 watts PEP output

    G1D03     [97.9(b)]

  56.   On which of the following band segments may you operate if you are a Technician Class operator and have a CSCE for General Class privileges?
     A. Only the Technician band segments until your upgrade is posted on the FCC database
     B. Only on the Technician band segments until your license arrives in the mail
     C. On any General or Technician Class band segment
     D. On any General or Technician Class band segment except 30 and 60 meters

    G1E07     [97.115(a)(2)]

  57.   With which foreign countries is third party traffic prohibited, except for messages directly involving emergencies or disaster relief communications?
     A. Countries in ITU Region 2
     B. Countries in ITU Region 1
     C. Every foreign country, unless there is a third party agreement in effect with that country
     D. Any country which is not a member of the International Amateur Radio Union (IARU)

    G2A02    

  58.   Which of the following modes is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160, 75, and 40 meter bands?
     A. Upper sideband
     B. Lower sideband
     C. Vestigial sideband
     D. Double sideband

    G2B06    

  59.   What is a practical way to avoid harmful interference when selecting a frequency to call CQ on CW or phone?
     A. Send "QRL?" on CW, followed by your call sign; or, if using phone, ask if the frequency is in use, followed by your call sign
     B. Listen for 2 minutes before calling CQ
     C. Send the letter "V" in Morse code several times and listen for a response
     D. Send "QSY" on CW or if using phone, announce "the frequency is in use", then send your call and listen for a response

    G2C06    

  60.   What does the term "zero beat" mean in CW operation?
     A. Matching the speed of the transmitting station
     B. Operating split to avoid interference on frequency
     C. Sending without error
     D. Matching your transmit frequency to the frequency of a received signal.

    G2D07     [97.303s]

  61.   Which of the following is required by the FCC rules when operating in the 60 meter band?
     A. If you are using other than a dipole antenna, you must keep a record of the gain of your antenna
     B. You must keep a log of the date, time, frequency, power level and stations worked
     C. You must keep a log of all third party traffic
     D. You must keep a log of the manufacturer of your equipment and the antenna used

    G2E06    

  62.   What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands?
     A. 85 Hz
     B. 170 Hz
     C. 425 Hz
     D. 850 Hz

    G3A01    

  63.   What is the sunspot number?
     A. A measure of solar activity based on counting sunspots and sunspot groups
     B. A 3 digit identifier which is used to track individual sunspots
     C. A measure of the radio flux from the Sun measured at 10.7 cm
     D. A measure of the sunspot count based on radio flux measurements

    G3B04    

  64.   What is a reliable way to determine if the Maximum Usable Frequency (MUF) is high enough to support skip propagation between your station and a distant location on frequencies between 14 and 30 MHz?
     A. Listen for signals from an international beacon
     B. Send a series of dots on the band and listen for echoes from your signal
     C. Check the strength of TV signals from Western Europe
     D. Check the strength of signals in the MF AM broadcast band

    G3C04    

  65.   What does the term "critical angle" mean as used in radio wave propagation?
     A. The long path azimuth of a distant station
     B. The short path azimuth of a distant station
     C. The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to the Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
     D. The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to the Earth under specific ionospheric conditions

    G4A03    

  66.   What is normally meant by operating a transceiver in "split" mode?
     A. The radio is operating at half power
     B. The transceiver is operating from an external power source
     C. The transceiver is set to different transmit and receive frequencies
     D. The transmitter is emitting a SSB signal, as opposed to DSB operation

    G4B10    

  67.   Which of the following can be determined with a directional wattmeter?
     A. Standing wave ratio
     B. Antenna front-to-back ratio
     C. RF interference
     D. Radio wave propagation

    G4C10    

  68.   What could be a symptom of a ground loop somewhere in your station?
     A. You receive reports of "hum" on your station's transmitted signal
     B. The SWR reading for one or more antennas is suddenly very high
     C. An item of station equipment starts to draw excessive amounts of current
     D. You receive reports of harmonic interference from your station

    G4D04    

  69.   What does an S meter measure?
     A. Conductance
     B. Impedance
     C. Received signal strength
     D. Transmitter power output

    G4E06    

  70.   What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full size antenna?
     A. Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals
     B. Short antennas can only receive vertically polarized signals
     C. Operating bandwidth may be very limited
     D. Harmonic radiation may increase

    G5A05    

  71.   How does an inductor react to AC?
     A. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
     B. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
     C. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
     D. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

    G5B04    

  72.   How many watts of electrical power are used by a 12-VDC light bulb that draws 0.2 amperes?
     A. 2.4 watts
     B. 24 watts
     C. 6 watts
     D. 60 watts

    G5C02    

  73.   Which part of a transformer is normally connected to the incoming source of energy?
     A. The secondary
     B. The primary
     C. The core
     D. The plates

    G6A01    

  74.   Which of the following is an important characteristic for capacitors used to filter the DC output of a switching power supply?
     A. Low equivalent series resistance
     B. High equivalent series resistance
     C. Low Temperature coefficient
     D. High Temperature coefficient

    G6B15    

  75.   When is it acceptable to recharge a carbon-zinc primary cell?
     A. As long as the voltage has not been allowed to drop below 1.0 volt
     B. When the cell is kept warm during the recharging period
     C. When a constant current charger is used
     D. Never

    G6C03    

  76.   Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?
     A. Low power consumption
     B. High power handling capability
     C. Better suited for RF amplification
     D. Better suited for power supply regulation

    G7A01    

  77.   What safety feature does a power-supply bleeder resistor provide?
     A. It acts as a fuse for excess voltage
     B. It discharges the filter capacitors
     C. It removes shock hazards from the induction coils
     D. It eliminates ground-loop current

    G7B06    

  78.   What is a shift register?
     A. A clocked array of circuits that passes data in steps along the array
     B. An array of operational amplifiers used for tri state arithmetic operations
     C. A digital mixer
     D. An analog mixer

    G7C01    

  79.   Which of the following is used to process signals from the balanced modulator and send them to the mixer in a single-sideband phone transmitter?
     A. Carrier oscillator
     B. Filter
     C. IF amplifier
     D. RF amplifier

    G8A10    

  80.   What is meant by flat-topping of a single-sideband phone transmission?
     A. Signal distortion caused by insufficient collector current
     B. The transmitter's automatic level control is properly adjusted
     C. Signal distortion caused by excessive drive
     D. The transmitter's carrier is properly suppressed

    G8B07    

  81.   What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21-MHz reactance-modulated oscillator in a 5-kHz deviation, 146.52-MHz FM-phone transmitter?
     A. 101.75 Hz
     B. 416.7 Hz
     C. 5 kHz
     D. 60 kHz

    G9A09    

  82.   What standing wave ratio will result from the connection of a 50-ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having a 200-ohm impedance?
     A. 4:1
     B. 1:4
     C. 2:1
     D. 1:2

    G9B06    

  83.   Where should the radial wires of a ground-mounted vertical antenna system be placed?
     A. As high as possible above the ground
     B. Parallel to the antenna element
     C. On the surface or buried a few inches below the ground
     D. At the top of the antenna

    G9C05    

  84.   How does increasing boom length and adding directors affect a Yagi antenna?
     A. Gain increases
     B. Beamwidth increases
     C. Weight decreases
     D. Wind load decreases

    G9D03    

  85.   At what height above ground is an NVIS antenna typically installed?
     A. As close to one-half wave as possible
     B. As close to one wavelength as possible
     C. Height is not critical as long as it is significantly more than 1/2 wavelength
     D. Between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength

    T0A04    

  86.   What is the purpose of a fuse in an electrical circuit?
     A. To prevent power supply ripple from damaging a circuit
     B. To interrupt power in case of overload
     C. To limit current to prevent shocks
     D. All of these choices are correct

    T0B10    

  87.   Which of the following is true concerning grounding conductors used for lightning protection?
     A. Only non-insulated wire must be used
     B. Wires must be carefully routed with precise right-angle bends
     C. Sharp bends must be avoided
     D. Common grounds must be avoided

    T0C04    

  88.   What factors affect the RF exposure of people near an amateur station antenna?
     A. Frequency and power level of the RF field
     B. Distance from the antenna to a person
     C. Radiation pattern of the antenna
     D. All of these choices are correct

    T1A07     [97.3(a)(46)]

  89.   What is the FCC Part 97 definition of telemetry?
     A. An information bulletin issued by the FCC
     B. A one-way transmission to initiate, modify or terminate functions of a device at a distance
     C. A one-way transmission of measurements at a distance from the measuring instrument
     D. An information bulletin from a VEC

    T1B08     [97.303]

  90.   Which of the following is a result of the fact that the amateur service is secondary in some portions of the 70 cm band?
     A. U.S. amateurs may find non-amateur stations in the bands, and must avoid interfering with them
     B. U.S. amateurs must give foreign amateur stations priority in those portions
     C. International communications are not permitted on 70 cm
     D. Digital transmissions are not permitted on 70 cm

    T1C13     [97.9(a), 97.17(a)]

  91.   For which licenses classes are new licenses currently available from the FCC?
     A. Novice, Technician, General, Advanced
     B. Technician, Technician Plus, General, Advanced
     C. Novice, Technician Plus, General, Advanced
     D. Technician, General, Amateur Extra

    T1D07     [97.113(d)]

  92.   What types of amateur stations can automatically retransmit the signals of other amateur stations?
     A. Auxiliary, beacon, or Earth stations
     B. Auxiliary, repeater, or space stations
     C. Beacon, repeater, or space stations
     D. Earth, repeater, or space stations

    T1E05     [97.3(a)(14)]

  93.   What is an amateur station control point?
     A. The location of the station's transmitting antenna
     B. The location of the station transmitting apparatus
     C. The location at which the control operator function is performed
     D. The mailing address of the station licensee

    T1F06     [97.119(c)]

  94.   Which of the following formats of a self-assigned indicator is acceptable when identifying using a phone transmission?
     A. KL7CC stroke W3
     B. KL7CC slant W3
     C. KL7CC slash W3
     D. All of these choices are correct

    T2A11     [97.313(a)]

  95.   Which of the following is an FCC rule regarding power levels used in the amateur bands, under normal, non-distress circumstances?
     A. There is no limit to power as long as there is no interference with other services
     B. No more than 200 watts PEP may be used
     C. Up to 1500 watts PEP may be used on any amateur frequency without restriction
     D. While not exceeding the maximum power permitted on a given band, use the minimum power necessary to carry out the desired communication

    T2B05    

  96.   What determines the amount of deviation of an FM (as opposed to PM) signal?
     A. Both the frequency and amplitude of the modulating signal
     B. The frequency of the modulating signal
     C. The amplitude of the modulating signal
     D. The relative phase of the modulating signal and the carrier

    T2C08    

  97.   Which of the following is a characteristic of good emergency traffic handling?
     A. Passing messages exactly as received
     B. Making decisions as to whether or not messages should be relayed or delivered
     C. Communicating messages to the news media for broadcast outside the disaster area
     D. All of these choices are correct

    T3A03    

  98.   What antenna polarization is normally used for long-distance weak-signal CW and SSB contacts using the VHF and UHF bands?
     A. Right-hand circular
     B. Left-hand circular
     C. Horizontal
     D. Vertical

    T3B01    

  99.   What is the name for the distance a radio wave travels during one complete cycle?
     A. Wave speed
     B. Waveform
     C. Wavelength
     D. Wave spread

    T3C06    

  100.   What mode is responsible for allowing over-the-horizon VHF and UHF communications to ranges of approximately 300 miles on a regular basis?
     A. Tropospheric scatter
     B. D layer refraction
     C. F2 layer refraction
     D. Faraday rotation

    T4A06    

  101.   Which of the following would be connected between a transceiver and computer in a packet radio station?
     A. Transmatch
     B. Mixer
     C. Terminal node controller
     D. Antenna

    T4B02    

  102.   Which of the following can be used to enter the operating frequency on a modern transceiver?
     A. The keypad or VFO knob
     B. The CTCSS or DTMF encoder
     C. The Automatic Frequency Control
     D. All of these choices are correct

    T5A10    

  103.   Which term describes the rate at which electrical energy is used?
     A. Resistance
     B. Current
     C. Power
     D. Voltage

    T5B05    

  104.   Which of the following is equivalent to 500 milliwatts?
     A. 0.02 watts
     B. 0.5 watts
     C. 5 watts
     D. 50 watts

    T5C12    

  105.   What is meant by the term impedance?
     A. It is a measure of the opposition to AC current flow in a circuit
     B. It is the inverse of resistance
     C. It is a measure of the Q or Quality Factor of a component
     D. It is a measure of the power handling capability of a component

    T5D05    

  106.   What is the resistance in a circuit for which the applied voltage is 12 volts and the current flow is 1.5 amperes?
     A. 18 ohms
     B. 0.125 ohms
     C. 8 ohms
     D. 13.5 ohms

    T6A02    

  107.   What type of component is often used as an adjustable volume control?
     A. Fixed resistor
     B. Power resistor
     C. Potentiometer
     D. Transformer

    T6B07    

  108.   What does the abbreviation LED stand for?
     A. Low Emission Diode
     B. Light Emitting Diode
     C. Liquid Emission Detector
     D. Long Echo Delay

    T6C08    

  109.   What is component 9 in figure T2?
     A. Variable capacitor
     B. Variable inductor
     C. Variable resistor
     D. Variable transformer

    T6D09    

  110.   What is the name of a device that combines several semiconductors and other components into one package?
     A. Transducer
     B. Multi-pole relay
     C. Integrated circuit
     D. Transformer

    T7A09    

  111.   Which of the following devices is most useful for VHF weak-signal communication?
     A. A quarter-wave vertical antenna
     B. A multi-mode VHF transceiver
     C. An omni-directional antenna
     D. A mobile VHF FM transceiver

    T7B01    

  112.   What can you do if you are told your FM handheld or mobile transceiver is over-deviating?
     A. Talk louder into the microphone
     B. Let the transceiver cool off
     C. Change to a higher power level
     D. Talk farther away from the microphone

    T7C02    

  113.   Which of the following instruments can be used to determine if an antenna is resonant at the desired operating frequency?
     A. A VTVM
     B. An antenna analyzer
     C. A Q meter
     D. A frequency counter

    T7D05    

  114.   What instrument is used to measure resistance?
     A. An oscilloscope
     B. A spectrum analyzer
     C. A noise bridge
     D. An ohmmeter

    T8A09    

  115.   What is the approximate bandwidth of a VHF repeater FM phone signal?
     A. Less than 500 Hz
     B. About 150 kHz
     C. Between 10 and 15 kHz
     D. Between 50 and 125 kHz

    T8B07    

  116.   With regard to satellite communications, what is Doppler shift?
     A. A change in the satellite orbit
     B. A mode where the satellite receives signals on one band and transmits on another
     C. An observed change in signal frequency caused by relative motion between the satellite and the earth station
     D. A special digital communications mode for some satellites

    T8C07     [97.215(c)]

  117.   What is the maximum power allowed when transmitting telecommand signals to radio controlled models?
     A. 500 milliwatts
     B. 1 watt
     C. 25 watts
     D. 1500 watts

    T8D03    

  118.   Which of the following devices provides data to the transmitter when sending automatic position reports from a mobile amateur radio station?
     A. The vehicle speedometer
     B. A WWV receiver
     C. A connection to a broadcast FM sub-carrier receiver
     D. A Global Positioning System receiver

    T9A10    

  119.   In which direction is the radiation strongest from a half-wave dipole antenna in free space?
     A. Equally in all directions
     B. Off the ends of the antenna
     C. Broadside to the antenna
     D. In the direction of the feed line

    T9B05    

  120.   What generally happens as the frequency of a signal passing through coaxial cable is increased?
     A. The apparent SWR increases
     B. The reflected power increases
     C. The characteristic impedance increases
     D. The loss increases