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    E1A03     [97.301, 97.305]

  1.   With your transceiver displaying the carrier frequency of phone signals, you hear a station calling CQ on 14.349 MHz USB. Is it legal to return the call using upper sideband on the same frequency?
     A. Yes, because you were not the station calling CQ
     B. Yes, because the displayed frequency is within the 20 meter band
     C. No, the sideband will extend beyond the band edge
     D. No, U.S. stations are not permitted to use phone emissions above 14.340 MHz

    T1A05     [97.1 (e)]

  2.   Which of the following is a purpose of the Amateur Radio Service rules and regulations as defined by the FCC?
     A. Enhancing international goodwill
     B. Providing inexpensive communication for local emergency organizations
     C. Training of operators in military radio operating procedures
     D. All of these choices are correct

    G1A13     [97.303(h)(2)(j)]

  3.   What is the appropriate action if, when operating on either the 30-meter or 60-meter bands, a station in the primary service interferes with your contact?
     A. Notify the FCCs regional Engineer in Charge of the interference
     B. Increase your transmitter's power to overcome the interference
     C. Attempt to contact the station and request that it stop the interference
     D. Move to a clear frequency or stop transmitting

    G1B03     [97.3(a)(9)]

  4.   Which of the following is a purpose of a beacon station as identified in the FCC rules?
     A. Observation of propagation and reception
     B. Automatic identification of repeaters
     C. Transmission of bulletins of general interest to Amateur Radio licensees
     D. Identifying net frequencies

    E1B11     [97.307]

  5.   What is the permitted mean power of any spurious emission relative to the mean power of the fundamental emission from a station transmitter or external RF amplifier installed after January 1, 2003 and transmitting on a frequency below 30 MHZ?
     A. At least 43 dB below
     B. At least 53 dB below
     C. At least 63 dB below
     D. At least 73 dB below

    T1B11     [97.301(a), 97.305 (a)(c)]

  6.   What emission modes are permitted in the mode-restricted sub-bands at 50.0 to 50.1 MHz and 144.0 to 144.1 MHz?
     A. CW only
     B. CW and RTTY
     C. SSB only
     D. CW and SSB

    G1C03     [97.303(h)(1)]

  7.   What is the maximum bandwidth permitted by FCC rules for Amateur Radio stations transmitting on USB frequencies in the 60-meter band?
     A. 2.8 kHz
     B. 5.6 kHz
     C. 1.8 kHz
     D. 3 kHz


  8.   Which of the following is a vanity call sign which a technician class amateur operator might select if available?
     A. K1XXX
     B. KA1X
     C. W1XX
     D. All of these choices are correct

    E1C08     [97.213]

  9.   What is the maximum permissible duration of a remotely controlled station's transmissions if its control link malfunctions?
     A. 30 seconds
     B. 3 minutes
     C. 5 minutes
     D. 10 minutes

    G1D02     [97.509(b)(3)(i)]

  10.   What license examinations may you administer when you are an accredited VE holding a General Class operator license?
     A. General and Technician
     B. General only
     C. Technician only
     D. Extra, General and Technician

    E1D08     [97.207]

  11.   Which VHF amateur service bands have frequencies available for space stations?
     A. 6 meters and 2 meters
     B. 6 meters, 2 meters, and 1.25 meters
     C. 2 meters and 1.25 meters
     D. 2 meters

    T1D08     [97.113(a)(3)(iii)]

  12.   In which of the following circumstances may the control operator of an amateur station receive compensation for operating the station?
     A. When engaging in communications on behalf of their employer
     B. When the communication is incidental to classroom instruction at an educational institution
     C. When re-broadcasting weather alerts during a RACES net
     D. When notifying other amateur operators of the availability for sale or trade of apparatus

    G1E03     [97.221]

  13.   What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?
     A. The station initiating the contact must be under local or remote control
     B. The interrogating transmission must be made by another automatically controlled station
     C. No third party traffic maybe be transmitted
     D. The control operator of the interrogating station must hold an Extra

    E1E05     [97.503]

  14.   What is the minimum passing score on amateur operator license examinations?
     A. Minimum passing score of 70%
     B. Minimum passing score of 74%
     C. Minimum passing score of 80%
     D. Minimum passing score of 77%

    T1E05     [97.3(a)(14)]

  15.   What is an amateur station control point?
     A. The location of the station's transmitting antenna
     B. The location of the station transmitting apparatus
     C. The location at which the control operator function is performed
     D. The mailing address of the station licensee


  16.   What type of identification is being used when identifying a station on the air as Race Headquarters?
     A. Tactical call sign
     B. An official call sign reserved for RACES drills
     C. SSID
     D. Broadcast station

    E1F03     [97.315]

  17.   Under what circumstances may a dealer sell an external RF power amplifier capable of operation below 144 MHz if it has not been granted FCC certification?
     A. It was purchased in used condition from an amateur operator and is sold to another amateur operator for use at that operator's station
     B. The equipment dealer assembled it from a kit
     C. It was imported from a manufacturer in a country that does not require certification of RF power amplifiers
     D. It was imported from a manufacturer in another country and was certificated by that country's government


  18.   What is an appropriate way to call another station on a repeater if you know the other station's call sign?
     A. Say break, break then say the station's call sign
     B. Say the station's call sign then identify with your call sign
     C. Say CQ three times then the other station's call sign
     D. Wait for the station to call CQ then answer it


  19.   Which of the following types of signals can be relayed through a linear transponder?
     A. FM and CW
     B. SSB and SSTV
     C. PSK and Packet
     D. All of these choices are correct


  20.   What does the expression "CQ DX" usually indicate?
     A. A general call for any station
     B. The caller is listening for a station in Germany
     C. The caller is looking for any station outside their own country
     D. A distress call


  21.   Which of the following describes the muting of receiver audio controlled solely by the presence or absence of an RF signal?
     A. Tone squelch
     B. Carrier squelch
     C. CTCSS
     D. Modulated carrier


  22.   What is the customary minimum frequency separation between SSB signals under normal conditions?
     A. Between 150 and 500 Hz
     B. Approximately 3 kHz
     C. Approximately 6 kHz
     D. Approximately 10 kHz


  23.   How are analog SSTV images typically transmitted on the HF bands?
     A. Video is converted to equivalent Baudot representation
     B. Video is converted to equivalent ASCII representation
     C. Varying tone frequencies representing the video are transmitted using PSK
     D. Varying tone frequencies representing the video are transmitted using single sideband


  24.   What is one way to recharge a 12-volt lead-acid station battery if the commercial power is out?
     A. Cool the battery in ice for several hours
     B. Add acid to the battery
     C. Connect the battery in parallel with a vehicle's battery and run the engine
     D. All of these choices are correct


  25.   From which of the following bands is amateur radio contesting generally excluded?
     A. 30 m
     B. 6 m
     C. 2 m
     D. 33 cm


  26.   What does the Q signal "QRL?" mean?
     A. "Will you keep the frequency clear?"
     B. "Are you operating full break-in" or "Can you operate full break-in?"
     C. "Are you listening only for a specific station?"
     D. "Are you busy?", or "Is this frequency in use?"


  27.   What is the purpose of digital store-and-forward functions on an Amateur Radio satellite?
     A. To upload operational software for the transponder
     B. To delay download of telemetry between satellites
     C. To store digital messages in the satellite for later download by other stations
     D. To relay messages between satellites

    G2D05     [97.111(a)(1)]

  28.   When is it permissible to communicate with amateur stations in countries outside the areas administered by the Federal Communications Commission?
     A. Only when the foreign country has a formal third party agreement filed with the FCC
     B. When the contact is with amateurs in any country except those whose administrations have notified the ITU that they object to such communications
     C. When the contact is with amateurs in any country as long as the communication is conducted in English
     D. Only when the foreign country is a member of the International Amateur Radio Union


  29.   What is indicated when one of the ellipses in an FSK crossed-ellipse display suddenly disappears?
     A. Selective fading has occurred
     B. One of the signal filters is saturated
     C. The receiver has drifted 5 kHz from the desired receive frequency
     D. The mark and space signal have been inverted


  30.   In what segment of the 20-meter band are most PSK31 operations commonly found?
     A. At the bottom of the slow-scan TV segment, near 14.230 MHz
     B. At the top of the SSB phone segment, near 14.325 MHz
     C. In the middle of the CW segment, near 14.100 MHz
     D. Below the RTTY segment, near 14.070 MHz


  31.   What type of wave carries radio signals between transmitting and receiving stations?
     A. Electromagnetic
     B. Electrostatic
     C. Surface acoustic
     D. Magnetostrictive


  32.   Approximately how long is the typical sunspot cycle?
     A. 8 minutes
     B. 40 hours
     C. 28 days
     D. 11 years


  33.   Which emission mode is best for aurora propagation?
     A. CW
     B. SSB
     C. FM
     D. RTTY


  34.   What are the frequency limits of the VHF spectrum?
     A. 30 to 300 kHz
     B. 30 to 300 MHz
     C. 300 to 3000 kHz
     D. 300 to 3000 MHz


  35.   What does MUF stand for?
     A. The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
     B. The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
     C. The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24 hour period
     D. The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24 hour period


  36.   Why is chordal hop propagation desirable?
     A. The signal experiences less loss along the path compared to normal skip propagation
     B. The MUF for chordal hop propagation is much lower than for normal skip propagation
     C. Atmospheric noise is lower in the direction of chordal hop propagation
     D. Signals travel faster along ionospheric chords


  37.   Where on the Earth do ionospheric layers reach their maximum height?
     A. Where the Sun is overhead
     B. Where the Sun is on the opposite side of the Earth
     C. Where the Sun is rising
     D. Where the Sun has just set


  38.   What is a characteristic of VHF signals received via auroral reflection?
     A. Signals from distances of 10,000 or more miles are common
     B. The signals exhibit rapid fluctuations of strength and often sound distorted
     C. These types of signals occur only during winter nighttime hours
     D. These types of signals are generally strongest when your antenna is aimed west


  39.   What type of polarization is best for ground-wave propagation?
     A. Vertical
     B. Horizontal
     C. Circular
     D. Elliptical


  40.   What might be an advantage of a digital vs an analog oscilloscope?
     A. Automatic amplitude and frequency numerical readout
     B. Storage of traces for future reference
     C. Manipulation of time base after trace capture
     D. All of these choices are correct


  41.   What is a reason to use Automatic Level Control (ALC) with an RF power amplifier?
     A. To balance the transmitter audio frequency response
     B. To reduce harmonic radiation
     C. To reduce distortion due to excessive drive
     D. To increase overall efficiency


  42.   Which of the following would be connected between a transceiver and computer in a packet radio station?
     A. Transmatch
     B. Mixer
     C. Terminal node controller
     D. Antenna


  43.   What may happen if a transmitter is operated with the microphone gain set too high?
     A. The output power might be too high
     B. The output signal might become distorted
     C. The frequency might vary
     D. The SWR might increase


  44.   Which S parameter is equivalent to forward gain?
     A. S11
     B. S12
     C. S21
     D. S22


  45.   What is a use for an antenna analyzer other than measuring the SWR of an antenna system?
     A. Measuring the front to back ratio of an antenna
     B. Measuring the turns ratio of a power transformer
     C. Determining the impedance of an unknown or unmarked coaxial cable
     D. Determining the gain of a directional antenna


  46.   What is one good way to avoid unwanted effects of stray RF energy in an amateur station?
     A. Connect all equipment grounds together
     B. Install an RF filter in series with the ground wire
     C. Use a ground loop for best conductivity
     D. Install a few ferrite beads on the ground wire where it connects to your station


  47.   How does a narrow-band roofing filter affect receiver performance?
     A. It improves sensitivity by reducing front end noise
     B. It improves intelligibility by using low Q circuitry to reduce ringing
     C. It improves dynamic range by attenuating strong signals near the receive frequency
     D. All of these choices are correct


  48.   What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz LSB signal when the displayed carrier frequency is set to 7.178 MHz?
     A. 7.178 to 7.181 MHz
     B. 7.178 to 7.184 MHz
     C. 7.175 to 7.178 MHz
     D. 7.1765 to 7.1795 MHz


  49.   Which of the following is a way to reduce the likelihood of receiver desensitization?
     A. Decrease the RF bandwidth of the receiver
     B. Raise the receiver IF frequency
     C. Increase the receiver front end gain
     D. Switch from fast AGC to slow AGC


  50.   What is the approximate open-circuit voltage from a fully illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?
     A. 0.02 VDC
     B. 0.5 VDC
     C. 0.2 VDC
     D. 1.38 VDC


  51.   Which of the following can cause shielded cables to radiate or receive interference?
     A. Low inductance ground connections at both ends of the shield
     B. Common mode currents on the shield and conductors
     C. Use of braided shielding material
     D. Tying all ground connections to a common point resulting in differential mode currents in the shield


  52.   What is reactance?
     A. Opposition to the flow of direct current caused by resistance
     B. Opposition to the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
     C. A property of ideal resistors in AC circuits
     D. A large spark produced at switch contacts when an inductor is


  53.   Electrical power is measured in which of the following units?
     A. Volts
     B. Watts
     C. Ohms
     D. Amperes


  54.   Which of the following can increase Q for inductors and capacitors?
     A. Lower losses
     B. Lower reactance
     C. Lower self-resonant frequency
     D. Higher self-resonant frequency


  55.   How many watts are dissipated when a current of 7.0 milliamperes flows through 1.25 kilohms resistance?
     A. Approximately 61 milliwatts
     B. Approximately 61 watts
     C. Approximately 11 milliwatts
     D. Approximately 11 watts


  56.   Which of the following is equivalent to 500 milliwatts?
     A. 0.02 watts
     B. 0.5 watts
     C. 5 watts
     D. 50 watts


  57.   What is susceptance?
     A. The magnetic impedance of a circuit
     B. The ratio of magnetic field to electric field
     C. The inverse of reactance
     D. A measure of the efficiency of a transformer


  58.   What is the unit of frequency?
     A. Hertz
     B. Henry
     C. Farad
     D. Tesla


  59.   When using rectangular coordinates to graph the impedance of a circuit, what does the vertical axis represent?
     A. Resistive component
     B. Reactive component
     C. The sum of the reactive and resistive components
     D. The difference between the resistive and reactive components


  60.   What is the inductance of a 20 millihenry inductor connected in series with a 50 millihenry inductor?
     A. 0.07 millihenrys
     B. 14.3 millihenrys
     C. 70 millihenrys
     D. 1000 millihenrys


  61.   What formula is used to calculate current in a circuit?
     A. Current (I) equals voltage (E) multiplied by resistance (R)
     B. Current (I) equals voltage (E) divided by resistance (R)
     C. Current (I) equals voltage (E) added to resistance (R)
     D. Current (I) equals voltage (E) minus resistance (R)


  62.   What determines the strength of the magnetic field around a conductor?
     A. The resistance divided by the current
     B. The ratio of the current to the resistance
     C. The diameter of the conductor
     D. The amount of current flowing through the conductor


  63.   In what application is gallium arsenide used as a semiconductor material in preference to germanium or silicon?
     A. In high-current rectifier circuits
     B. In high-power audio circuits
     C. In microwave circuits
     D. In very low frequency RF circuits


  64.   What type of electrical component consists of two or more conductive surfaces separated by an insulator?
     A. Resistor
     B. Potentiometer
     C. Oscillator
     D. Capacitor


  65.   Which of the following solid state devices is most like a vacuum tube in its general operating characteristics?
     A. A bipolar transistor
     B. A field effect transistor
     C. A tunnel diode
     D. A varistor


  66.   Which of the following is a common use of a hot-carrier diode?
     A. As balanced mixers in FM generation
     B. As a variable capacitance in an automatic frequency control circuit
     C. As a constant voltage reference in a power supply
     D. As a VHF/UHF mixer or detector


  67.   What does the abbreviation LED stand for?
     A. Low Emission Diode
     B. Light Emitting Diode
     C. Liquid Emission Detector
     D. Long Echo Delay


  68.   What is a type SMA connector?
     A. A large bayonet connector usable at power levels in excess of 1 KW
     B. A small threaded connector suitable for signals up to several GHz
     C. A connector designed for serial multiple access signals
     D. A type of push-on connector intended for high voltage applications


  69.   What is component 3 in figure T3?
     A. Connector
     B. Meter
     C. Variable capacitor
     D. Variable inductor


  70.   In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for the NOT operation (inverter)?
     A. 2
     B. 4
     C. 5
     D. 6


  71.   What is the name of a device that combines several semiconductors and other components into one package?
     A. Transducer
     B. Multi-pole relay
     C. Integrated circuit
     D. Transformer


  72.   How many turns will be required to produce a 1-mH inductor using a core that has an inductance index (A L) value of 523 millihenrys/1000 turns?
     A. 2 turns
     B. 4 turns
     C. 43 turns
     D. 229 turns


  73.   Why are high-power RF amplifier ICs and transistors sometimes mounted in ceramic packages?
     A. High-voltage insulating ability
     B. Better dissipation of heat
     C. Enhanced sensitivity to light
     D. To provide a low-pass frequency response


  74.   What is a liquid crystal display (LCD)?
     A. A modern replacement for a quartz crystal oscillator which displays its fundamental frequency
     B. A display utilizing a crystalline liquid and polarizing filters which becomes opaque when voltage is applied
     C. A frequency-determining unit for a transmitter or receiver
     D. A display that uses a glowing liquid to remain brightly lit in dim light


  75.   What useful feature does a power supply bleeder resistor provide?
     A. It acts as a fuse for excess voltage
     B. It ensures that the filter capacitors are discharged when power is removed
     C. It removes shock hazards from the induction coils
     D. It eliminates ground loop current


  76.   What device takes the output of a low-powered 28 MHz SSB exciter and produces a 222 MHz output signal?
     A. High-pass filter
     B. Low-pass filter
     C. Transverter
     D. Phase converter


  77.   What type of logic defines "1" as a high voltage?
     A. Reverse Logic
     B. Assertive Logic
     C. Negative logic
     D. Positive Logic


  78.   What determines the frequency of an LC oscillator?
     A. The number of stages in the counter
     B. The number of stages in the divider
     C. The inductance and capacitance in the tank circuit
     D. The time delay of the lag circuit


  79.   In Figure E7-1, what is the purpose of R1 and R2?
     A. Load resistors
     B. Fixed bias
     C. Self bias
     D. Feedback


  80.   What might be the first step to resolve cable TV interference from your ham radio transmission?
     A. Add a low pass filter to the TV antenna input
     B. Add a high pass filter to the TV antenna input
     C. Add a preamplifier to the TV antenna input
     D. Be sure all TV coaxial connectors are installed properly


  81.   How are the capacitors and inductors of a low-pass filter Pi-network arranged between the network's input and output?
     A. Two inductors are in series between the input and output, and a capacitor is connected between the two inductors and ground
     B. Two capacitors are in series between the input and output, and an inductor is connected between the two capacitors and ground
     C. An inductor is connected between the input and ground, another inductor is connected between the output and ground, and a capacitor is connected between the input and output
     D. A capacitor is connected between the input and ground, another capacitor is connected between the output and ground, and an inductor is connected between input and output


  82.   Which of the following instruments can be used to determine if an antenna is resonant at the desired operating frequency?
     A. A VTVM
     B. An antenna analyzer
     C. A Q meter
     D. A frequency counter


  83.   What is meant by the term "software defined radio" (SDR)?
     A. A radio in which most major signal processing functions are performed by software
     B. A radio that provides computer interface for automatic logging of band and frequency
     C. A radio that uses crystal filters designed using software
     D. A computer model that can simulate performance of a radio to aid in the design process


  84.   How is an ammeter usually connected to a circuit?
     A. In series with the circuit
     B. In parallel with the circuit
     C. In quadrature with the circuit
     D. In phase with the circuit


  85.   What is the primary reason that a high-frequency switching type high voltage power supply can be both less expensive and lighter in weight than a conventional power supply?
     A. The inverter design does not require any output filtering
     B. It uses a diode bridge rectifier for increased output
     C. The high frequency inverter design uses much smaller transformers and filter components for an equivalent power output
     D. It uses a large power factor compensation capacitor to create free power from the unused portion of the AC cycle


  86.   How does a diode detector function?
     A. By rectification and filtering of RF signals
     B. By breakdown of the Zener voltage
     C. By mixing signals with noise in the transition region of the diode
     D. By sensing the change of reactance in the diode with respect to frequency


  87.   How might the sampling rate of an existing digital signal be adjusted by a factor of 3/4?
     A. Change the gain by a factor of 3/4
     B. Multiply each sample value by a factor of 3/4
     C. Add 3 to each input value and subtract 4 from each output value
     D. Interpolate by a factor of three, then decimate by a factor of four


  88.   Which of the following is the most appropriate use of an op-amp active filter?
     A. As a high-pass filter used to block RFI at the input to receivers
     B. As a low-pass filter used between a transmitter and a transmission line
     C. For smoothing power supply output
     D. As an audio filter in a receiver


  89.   Which describes a microphonic?
     A. An IC used for amplifying microphone signals
     B. Distortion caused by RF pickup on the microphone cable
     C. Changes in oscillator frequency due to mechanical vibration
     D. Excess loading of the microphone by an oscillator


  90.   What type of modulation is most commonly used for VHF packet radio transmissions?
     A. FM
     B. SSB
     C. AM
     D. Spread Spectrum


  91.   What is the name of the process that changes the instantaneous frequency of an RF wave to convey information?
     A. Frequency convolution
     B. Frequency transformation
     C. Frequency conversion
     D. Frequency modulation


  92.   What is the approximate ratio of PEP-to-average power in a typical single-sideband phone signal?
     A. 2.5 to 1
     B. 25 to 1
     C. 1 to 1
     D. 100 to 1


  93.   What is the modulation index of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency deviation of 3000 Hz either side of the carrier frequency when the modulating frequency is 1000 Hz?
     A. 3
     B. 0.3
     C. 3000
     D. 1000


  94.   What is the approximate bandwidth of a PACTOR3 signal at maximum data rate?
     A. 31.5 Hz
     B. 500 Hz
     C. 1800 Hz
     D. 2300 Hz


  95.   Which of the following are inputs to a satellite tracking program?
     A. The weight of the satellite
     B. The Keplerian elements
     C. The last observed time of zero Doppler shift
     D. All of these answers are correct


  96.   What part of a data packet contains the routing and handling information?
     A. Directory
     B. Preamble
     C. Header
     D. Footer

    T8C08     [97.215(a)]

  97.   What is required in place of on-air station identification when sending signals to a radio control model using amateur frequencies?
     A. Voice identification must be transmitted every 10 minutes
     B. Morse code ID must be sent once per hour
     C. A label indicating the licensee's name, call sign and address must be affixed to the transmitter
     D. A flag must be affixed to the transmitter antenna with the station call sign in 1 inch high letters or larger


  98.   What is an advantage of Gray code in digital communications where symbols are transmitted as multiple bits
     A. It increases security
     B. It has more possible states than simple binary
     C. It has more resolution than simple binary
     D. It facilitates error detection


  99.   What spread spectrum communications technique uses a high speed binary bit stream to shift the phase of an RF carrier?
     A. Frequency hopping
     B. Direct sequence
     C. Binary phase-shift keying
     D. Phase compandored spread spectrum


  100.   What code is used when sending CW in the amateur bands?
     A. Baudot
     B. Hamming
     C. International Morse
     D. Gray


  101.   How does the attenuation of coaxial cable change as the frequency of the signal it is carrying increases?
     A. Attenuation is independent of frequency
     B. Attenuation increases
     C. Attenuation decreases
     D. Attenuation reaches a maximum at approximately 18 MHz


  102.   How would you change a dipole antenna to make it resonant on a higher frequency?
     A. Lengthen it
     B. Insert coils in series with radiating wires
     C. Shorten it
     D. Add capacitive loading to the ends of the radiating wires


  103.   What term describes station output, taking into account all gains and losses?
     A. Power factor
     B. Half-power bandwidth
     C. Effective radiated power
     D. Apparent power


  104.   In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the front-to-side ratio?
     A. 12 dB
     B. 14 dB
     C. 18 dB
     D. 24 dB


  105.   What electrical difference exists between the smaller RG-58 and larger RG-8 coaxial cables?
     A. There is no significant difference between the two types
     B. RG-58 cable has less loss at a given frequency
     C. RG-8 cable has less loss at a given frequency
     D. RG-58 cable can handle higher power levels


  106.   What is the approximate length for a 1/4 wave vertical antenna cut for 28.5 MHz?
     A. 8 feet
     B. 11 feet
     C. 16 feet
     D. 21 feet


  107.   Which statement about a three-element, single-band Yagi antenna is true?
     A. The reflector is normally the longest element
     B. The director is normally the longest element
     C. The reflector is normally the shortest element
     D. All of the elements must be the same length


  108.   What is the approximate feed point impedance at the center of a two-wire folded dipole antenna?
     A. 300 ohms
     B. 72 ohms
     C. 50 ohms
     D. 450 ohms


  109.   Which of the following is an advantage of an NVIS antenna?
     A. Low vertical angle radiation for working stations out to ranges of several thousand kilometers
     B. High vertical angle radiation for working stations within a radius of a few hundred kilometers
     C. High forward gain
     D. All of these choices are correct


  110.   What is an advantage of using top loading in a shortened HF vertical antenna?
     A. Lower Q
     B. Greater structural strength
     C. Higher losses
     D. Improved radiation efficiency


  111.   What is the purpose of the series capacitor in a gamma-type antenna matching network?
     A. To provide DC isolation between the feed line and the antenna
     B. To cancel the inductive reactance of the matching network
     C. To provide a rejection notch that prevents the radiation of harmonics
     D. To transform the antenna impedance to a higher value


  112.   How does ladder line compare to small-diameter coaxial cable such as RG-58 at 50 MHz?
     A. Lower loss
     B. Higher SWR
     C. Smaller reflection coefficient
     D. Lower velocity factor


  113.   What third family of circles is often added to a Smith chart during the process of solving problems?
     A. Standing wave ratio circles
     B. Antenna-length circles
     C. Coaxial-length circles
     D. Radiation-pattern circles


  114.   What is the main drawback of a wire-loop antenna for direction finding?
     A. It has a bidirectional pattern
     B. It is non-rotatable
     C. It receives equally well in all directions
     D. It is practical for use only on VHF bands


  115.   What does "time averaging" mean in reference to RF radiation exposure?
     A. The average amount of power developed by the transmitter over a specific 24 hour period
     B. The average time it takes RF radiation to have any long-term effect on the body
     C. The total time of the exposure
     D. The total RF exposure averaged over a certain time


  116.   What safety equipment should always be included in home-built equipment that is powered from 120V AC power circuits?
     A. A fuse or circuit breaker in series with the AC hot conductor
     B. An AC voltmeter across the incoming power source
     C. An inductor in series with the AC power source
     D. A capacitor across the AC power source


  117.   Which of the following injuries can result from using high-power UHF or microwave transmitters?
     A. Hearing loss caused by high voltage corona discharge
     B. Blood clotting from the intense magnetic field
     C. Localized heating of the body from RF exposure in excess of the MPE limits
     D. Ingestion of ozone gas from the cooling system


  118.   What is considered to be a proper grounding method for a tower?
     A. A single four-foot ground rod, driven into the ground no more than 12 inches from the base
     B. A ferrite-core RF choke connected between the tower and ground
     C. Separate eight-foot long ground rods for each tower leg, bonded to the tower and each other
     D. A connection between the tower base and a cold water pipe


  119.   Which of the following is a danger from lead-tin solder?
     A. Lead can contaminate food if hands are not washed carefully after handling the solder
     B. High voltages can cause lead-tin solder to disintegrate suddenly
     C. Tin in the solder can "cold flow" causing shorts in the circuit
     D. RF energy can convert the lead into a poisonous gas


  120.   What is the maximum power level that an amateur radio station may use at VHF frequencies before an RF exposure evaluation is required?
     A. 1500 watts PEP transmitter output
     B. 1 watt forward power
     C. 50 watts PEP at the antenna
     D. 50 watts PEP reflected power