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    T1A01     [97.1]

  1.   Which of the following is a purpose of the Amateur Radio Service as stated in the FCC rules and regulations?
     A. Providing personal radio communications for as many citizens as possible
     B. Providing communications for international non-profit organizations
     C. Advancing skills in the technical and communication phases of the radio art
     D. All of these choices are correct

    G1A03     [97.305]

  2.   On which of the following bands is image transmission prohibited?
     A. 160 meters
     B. 30 meters
     C. 20 meters
     D. 12 meters

    E1A07     [97.303]

  3.   Which amateur band requires transmission on specific channels rather than on a range of frequencies?
     A. 12 meter band
     B. 17 meter band
     C. 30 meter band
     D. 60 meter band

    G1B04     [97.113(b)]

  4.   Which of the following must be true before amateur stations may provide communications to broadcasters for dissemination to the public?
     A. The communications must directly relate to the immediate safety of human life or protection of property and there must be no other means of communication reasonably available before or at the time of the event
     B. The communications must be approved by a local emergency preparedness official and conducted on officially designated frequencies
     C. The FCC must have declared a state of emergency
     D. All of these choices are correct

    E1B09     [97.407]

  5.   Which amateur stations may be operated under RACES rules?
     A. Only those club stations licensed to Amateur Extra class operators
     B. Any FCC-licensed amateur station except a Technician class
     C. Any FCC-licensed amateur station certified by the responsible civil defense organization for the area served
     D. Any FCC-licensed amateur station participating in the Military Auxiliary Radio System (MARS)

    T1B13     [97.305(c)]

  6.   Which emission may be used between 219 and 220 MHz?
     A. Spread spectrum
     B. Data
     C. SSB voice
     D. Fast-scan television

    T1C03     [97.117]

  7.   What types of international communications are permitted by an FCC-licensed amateur station?
     A. Communications incidental to the purposes of the amateur service and remarks of a personal character
     B. Communications incidental to conducting business or remarks of a personal nature
     C. Only communications incidental to contest exchanges, all other communications are prohibited
     D. Any communications that would be permitted by an international broadcast station

    E1C06     [97.109]

  8.   Which of the following statements concerning remotely controlled amateur stations is true?
     A. Only Extra Class operators may be the control operator of a remote station
     B. A control operator need not be present at the control point
     C. A control operator must be present at the control point
     D. Repeater and auxiliary stations may not be remotely controlled

    G1C11     [97.305(c) and 97.307(f)(5)]

  9.   What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 2-meter band?
     A. 56 kilobaud
     B. 19.6 kilobaud
     C. 1200 baud
     D. 300 baud

    E1D02     [97.3]

  10.   What is the amateur satellite service?
     A. A radio navigation service using satellites for the purpose of self training, intercommunication and technical studies carried out by amateurs
     B. A spacecraft launching service for amateur-built satellites
     C. A radio communications service using amateur radio stations on satellites
     D. A radio communications service using stations on Earth satellites for public service broadcast

    G1D05     [97.509(b)(3)(i)]

  11.   Which of the following must a person have before they can be an administering VE for a Technician Class license examination?
     A. Notification to the FCC that you want to give an examination
     B. Receipt of a CSCE for General Class
     C. Possession of a properly obtained telegraphy license
     D. An FCC General Class or higher license and VEC accreditation

    T1D10     [97.3(a)(10)]

  12.   What is the meaning of the term "broadcasting" in the FCC rules for the amateur services?
     A. Two-way transmissions by amateur stations
     B. Transmission of music
     C. Transmission of messages directed only to amateur operators
     D. Transmissions intended for reception by the general public

    T1E05     [97.3(a)(14)]

  13.   What is an amateur station control point?
     A. The location of the station's transmitting antenna
     B. The location of the station transmitting apparatus
     C. The location at which the control operator function is performed
     D. The mailing address of the station licensee

    E1E07     [97.509]

  14.   What should a VE do if a candidate fails to comply with the examiner's instructions during an amateur operator license examination?
     A. Warn the candidate that continued failure to comply will result in termination of the examination
     B. Immediately terminate the candidate's examination
     C. Allow the candidate to complete the examination, but invalidate the results
     D. Immediately terminate everyone's examination and close the session

    G1E12     [97.115]

  15.   Under what circumstances are messages that are sent via digital modes exempt from Part 97 third party rules that apply to other modes of communication?
     A. Under no circumstances
     B. When messages are encrypted
     C. When messages are not encrypted
     D. When under automatic control

    T1F08     [97.119(f)]

  16.   Which indicator is required by the FCC to be transmitted after a station call sign?
     A. /M when operating mobile
     B. /R when operating a repeater
     C. / followed the FCC Region number when operating out of the region in which the license was issued
     D. /KT, /AE or /AG when using new license privileges earned by CSCE while waiting for an upgrade to a previously issued license to appear in the FCC license database

    E1F09     [97.311]

  17.   Which of the following conditions apply when transmitting spread spectrum emission?
     A. A station transmitting SS emission must not cause harmful interference to other stations employing other authorized emissions
     B. The transmitting station must be in an area regulated by the FCC or in a country that permits SS emissions
     C. The transmission must not be used to obscure the meaning of any communication
     D. All of these choices are correct


  18.   Which of the following is a recommended way to break into a contact when using phone?
     A. Say "QRZ" several times followed by your call sign
     B. Say your call sign during a break between transmissions by the other stations
     C. Say "Break Break Break" and wait for a response
     D. Say "CQ" followed by the call sign of either station


  19.   Why may the received signal from an amateur satellite exhibit a rapidly repeating fading effect?
     A. Because the satellite is spinning
     B. Because of ionospheric absorption
     C. Because of the satellite's low orbital altitude
     D. Because of the Doppler Effect


  20.   Which of the following is a guideline to use when choosing an operating frequency for calling CQ?
     A. Listen first to be sure that no one else is using the frequency
     B. Ask if the frequency is in use
     C. Make sure you are in your assigned band
     D. All of these choices are correct


  21.   How many horizontal lines make up a fast-scan (NTSC) television frame?
     A. 30
     B. 60
     C. 525
     D. 1080


  22.   What is the customary minimum frequency separation between SSB signals under normal conditions?
     A. Between 150 and 500 Hz
     B. Approximately 3 kHz
     C. Approximately 6 kHz
     D. Approximately 10 kHz


  23.   Which of the following applies when two stations transmitting on the same frequency interfere with each other?
     A. Common courtesy should prevail, but no one has absolute right to an amateur frequency
     B. Whoever has the strongest signal has priority on the frequency
     C. Whoever has been on the frequency the longest has priority on the frequency
     D. The station which has the weakest signal has priority on the frequency


  24.   Which of the following contacts may be confirmed through the U.S. QSL bureau system?
     A. Special event contacts between stations in the U.S.
     B. Contacts between a U.S. station and a non-U.S. station
     C. Repeater contacts between U.S. club members
     D. Contacts using tactical call signs


  25.   Which of the following is a characteristic of good emergency traffic handling?
     A. Passing messages exactly as received
     B. Making decisions as to whether or not messages should be relayed or delivered
     C. Communicating messages to the news media for broadcast outside the disaster area
     D. All of these choices are correct


  26.   What does the Q signal "QRV" mean?
     A. You are sending too fast
     B. There is interference on the frequency
     C. I am quitting for the day
     D. I am ready to receive messages


  27.   What skills learned during hidden transmitter hunts are of help to the Amateur Auxiliary?
     A. Identification of out of band operation
     B. Direction finding used to locate stations violating FCC Rules
     C. Identification of different call signs
     D. Hunters have an opportunity to transmit on non-amateur frequencies


  28.   What type of packet frame is used to transmit APRS beacon data?
     A. Unnumbered Information
     B. Disconnect
     C. Acknowledgement
     D. Connect


  29.   Which type of digital mode does not support keyboard-to-keyboard operation?
     A. Winlink
     B. RTTY
     C. PSK31
     D. MFSK


  30.   Which communication system sometimes uses the Internet to transfer messages?
     A. Winlink
     B. RTTY
     C. ARES
     D. Skywarn


  31.   Why are UHF signals often more effective from inside buildings than VHF signals?
     A. VHF signals lose power faster over distance
     B. The shorter wavelength allows them to more easily penetrate the structure of buildings
     C. This is incorrect; VHF works better than UHF inside buildings
     D. UHF antennas are more efficient than VHF antennas


  32.   Which type of atmospheric structure can create a path for microwave propagation?
     A. The jet stream
     B. Temperature inversion
     C. Wind shear
     D. Dust devil


  33.   How long does it take charged particles from coronal mass ejections to affect radio propagation on the Earth?
     A. 28 days
     B. 14 days
     C. 4 to 8 minutes
     D. 20 to 40 hours


  34.   Which of the following is a good indicator of the possibility of sky-wave propagation on the 6-meter band?
     A. Short skip sky-wave propagation on the 10-meter band
     B. Long skip sky-wave propagation on the 10-meter band
     C. Severe attenuation of signals on the 10-meter band
     D. Long delayed echoes on the 10-meter band


  35.   What property of a radio wave is used to describe its polarization?
     A. The orientation of the electric field
     B. The orientation of the magnetic field
     C. The ratio of the energy in the magnetic field to the energy in the electric field
     D. The ratio of the velocity to the wavelength


  36.   At what time of year is Sporadic E propagation most likely to occur?
     A. Around the solstices, especially the summer solstice
     B. Around the solstices, especially the winter solstice
     C. Around the equinoxes, especially the spring equinox
     D. Around the equinoxes, especially the fall equinox


  37.   What orientation of Bz (B sub z) increases the likelihood that incoming particles from the Sun will cause disturbed conditions?
     A. Southward
     B. Northward
     C. Eastward
     D. Westward


  38.   What mode is responsible for allowing over-the-horizon VHF and UHF communications to ranges of approximately 300 miles on a regular basis?
     A. Tropospheric scatter
     B. D layer refraction
     C. F2 layer refraction
     D. Faraday rotation


  39.   Which of the following antenna types will be most effective for skip communications on 40-meters during the day?
     A. A vertical antenna
     B. A horizontal dipole placed between 1/8 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground
     C. A left-hand circularly polarized antenna
     D. A right-hand circularly polarized antenna


  40.   Which of the following parameter determines the bandwidth of a digital or computer-based oscilloscope?
     A. Input capacitance
     B. Input impedance
     C. Sampling rate
     D. Sample resolution


  41.   What is the source of a high-pitched whine that varies with engine speed in a mobile transceiver's receive audio?
     A. The ignition system
     B. The alternator
     C. The electric fuel pump
     D. Anti-lock braking system controllers


  42.   Which of the following is a common use for the dual VFO feature on a transceiver?
     A. To allow transmitting on two frequencies at once
     B. To permit full duplex operation, that is transmitting and receiving at the same time
     C. To permit monitoring of two different frequencies
     D. To facilitate computer interface


  43.   If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 0.1 ppm reads 146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the reading?
     A. 14.652 Hz
     B. 0.1 MHz
     C. 1.4652 Hz
     D. 1.4652 kHz


  44.   Which of the following instruments may be used to monitor relative RF output when making antenna and transmitter adjustments?
     A. A field strength meter
     B. An antenna noise bridge
     C. A multimeter
     D. A Q meter


  45.   Which of the following describes the common meaning of the term "repeater offset"?
     A. The distance between the repeater's transmit and receive antennas
     B. The time delay before the repeater timer resets
     C. The difference between the repeater's transmit and receive frequencies
     D. Matching the antenna impedance to the feed line impedance


  46.   What is an effect of excessive phase noise in the local oscillator section of a receiver?
     A. It limits the receiver's ability to receive strong signals
     B. It reduces receiver sensitivity
     C. It decreases receiver third-order intermodulation distortion dynamic range
     D. It can cause strong signals on nearby frequencies to interfere with reception of weak signals


  47.   How can a ground loop be avoided?
     A. Connect all ground conductors in series
     B. Connect the AC neutral conductor to the ground wire
     C. Avoid using lock washers and star washers when making ground connections
     D. Connect all ground conductors to a single point


  48.   What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz USB signal with the displayed carrier frequency set to 14.347 MHz?
     A. 14.347 to 14.647 MHz
     B. 14.347 to 14.350 MHz
     C. 14.344 to 14.347 MHz
     D. 14.3455 to 14.3485 MHz


  49.   Which of the following is a way to reduce the likelihood of receiver desensitization?
     A. Decrease the RF bandwidth of the receiver
     B. Raise the receiver IF frequency
     C. Increase the receiver front end gain
     D. Switch from fast AGC to slow AGC


  50.   What is the purpose of a capacitance hat on a mobile antenna?
     A. To increase the power handling capacity of a whip antenna
     B. To allow automatic band changing
     C. To electrically lengthen a physically short antenna
     D. To allow remote tuning


  51.   What is one disadvantage of using some types of automatic DSP notch-filters when attempting to copy CW signals?
     A. A DSP filter can remove the desired signal at the same time as it removes interfering signals
     B. Any nearby signal passing through the DSP system will overwhelm the desired signal
     C. Received CW signals will appear to be modulated at the DSP clock frequency
     D. Ringing in the DSP filter will completely remove the spaces between the CW characters


  52.   Which of the following causes opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor?
     A. Conductance
     B. Reluctance
     C. Admittance
     D. Reactance


  53.   What is the magnitude of the impedance of a circuit with a resistor, an inductor and a capacitor all in parallel, at resonance?
     A. Approximately equal to circuit resistance
     B. Approximately equal to inductive reactance
     C. Low, as compared to the circuit resistance
     D. Approximately equal to capacitive reactance


  54.   What is the electrical term for the electromotive force (EMF) that causes electron flow?
     A. Voltage
     B. Ampere-hours
     C. Capacitance
     D. Inductance


  55.   Which of the following is equivalent to 500 milliwatts?
     A. 0.02 watts
     B. 0.5 watts
     C. 5 watts
     D. 50 watts


  56.   What is the RMS voltage of a sine wave with a value of 17 volts peak?
     A. 8.5 volts
     B. 12 volts
     C. 24 volts
     D. 34 volts


  57.   What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 25 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 50 ohms?
     A. 14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
     B. 14 degrees with the voltage leading the current
     C. 76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
     D. 76 degrees with the voltage leading the current


  58.   How many amperes are flowing in a circuit when the applied voltage is 12 volts DC and the load is 120 watts?
     A. 0.1 amperes
     B. 10 amperes
     C. 12 amperes
     D. 132 amperes


  59.   What coordinate system is often used to display the resistive, inductive, and/or capacitive reactance components of impedance?
     A. Maidenhead grid
     B. Faraday grid
     C. Elliptical coordinates
     D. Rectangular coordinates


  60.   What is the value in nanofarads (nF) of a 22,000 pF capacitor?
     A. 0.22 nF         
     B. 2.2 nF        
     C. 22 nF           
     D. 220 nF       


  61.   Which parasitic characteristic increases with conductor length?
     A. Inductance
     B. Permeability
     C. Permittivity
     D. Malleability


  62.   What is the voltage across a 10-ohm resistor if a current of 2 amperes flows through it?
     A. 8 volts
     B. 0.2 volts
     C. 12 volts
     D. 20 volts


  63.   What is the minimum allowable discharge voltage for maximum life of a standard 12 volt lead acid battery?
     A. 6 volts
     B. 8.5 volts
     C. 10.5 volts
     D. 12 volts


  64.   What type of electrical component consists of two or more conductive surfaces separated by an insulator?
     A. Resistor
     B. Potentiometer
     C. Oscillator
     D. Capacitor


  65.   Which of the following indicates that a silicon NPN junction transistor is biased on?
     A. Base-to-emitter resistance of approximately 6 to 7 ohms
     B. Base-to-emitter resistance of approximately 0.6 to 0.7 ohms
     C. Base-to-emitter voltage of approximately 6 to 7 volts
     D. Base-to-emitter voltage of approximately 0.6 to 0.7 volts


  66.   What are the names of the two electrodes of a diode?
     A. Plus and minus
     B. Source and drain
     C. Anode and cathode
     D. Gate and base


  67.   What two devices in an Amateur Radio station might be connected using a USB interface?
     A. Computer and transceiver
     B. Microphone and transceiver
     C. Amplifier and antenna
     D. Power supply and amplifier


  68.   What is used to control the attenuation of RF signals by a PIN diode?
     A. Forward DC bias current
     B. A sub-harmonic pump signal
     C. Reverse voltage larger than the RF signal
     D. Capacitance of an RF coupling capacitor


  69.   What is component 4 in figure T3?
     A. Antenna
     B. Transmitter
     C. Dummy load
     D. Ground


  70.   What is the primary advantage of using a Programmable Gate Array (PGA) in a logic circuit?
     A. Many similar gates are less expensive than a mixture of gate types
     B. Complex logic functions can be created in a single integrated circuit
     C. A PGA contains its own internal power supply
     D. All of these choices are correct


  71.   Which of the following is an aspect of the piezoelectric effect?
     A. Mechanical deformation of material by the application of a voltage
     B. Mechanical deformation of material by the application of a magnetic field
     C. Generation of electrical energy in the presence of light
     D. Increased conductivity in the presence of light


  72.   Which of the following is commonly used as a visual indicator?
     A. LED
     B. FET
     C. Zener diode
     D. Bipolar transistor


  73.   Why are high-power RF amplifier ICs and transistors sometimes mounted in ceramic packages?
     A. High-voltage insulating ability
     B. Better dissipation of heat
     C. Enhanced sensitivity to light
     D. To provide a low-pass frequency response


  74.   What is the efficiency of a photovoltaic cell?
     A. The output RF power divided by the input DC power
     B. The effective payback period
     C. The open-circuit voltage divided by the short-circuit current under full illumination
     D. The relative fraction of light that is converted to current


  75.   Which of the following is an advantage of a switchmode power supply as compared to a linear power supply?
     A. Faster switching time makes higher output voltage possible
     B. Fewer circuit components are required
     C. High frequency operation allows the use of smaller components
     D. All of these choices are correct


  76.   What logical operation is performed by an exclusive NOR gate?
     A. It produces logic "0" at its output only if all inputs are logic "0"
     B. It produces logic "1" at its output only if all inputs are logic "1"
     C. It produces logic "0" at its output if any single input is logic "1"
     D. It produces logic "1" at its output if any single input is logic "1"


  77.   What device increases the low-power output from a handheld transceiver?
     A. A voltage divider
     B. An RF power amplifier
     C. An impedance network
     D. All of these choices are correct


  78.   Which of the following describes the function of a two input NOR gate?
     A. Output is high when either or both inputs are low
     B. Output is high only when both inputs are high
     C. Output is low when either or both inputs are high
     D. Output is low only when both inputs are high


  79.   Where on the load line of a Class A common emitter amplifier would bias normally be set?
     A. Approximately half-way between saturation and cutoff
     B. Where the load line intersects the voltage axis
     C. At a point where the bias resistor equals the load resistor
     D. At a point where the load line intersects the zero bias current curve


  80.   What is a Part 15 device?
     A. An unlicensed device that may emit low powered radio signals on frequencies used by a licensed service
     B. A type of amateur radio that can legally be used in the citizen's band
     C. A device for long distance communications using special codes sanctioned by the International Amateur Radio Union
     D. A type of test set used to determine whether a transmitter is in compliance with FCC regulation 91.15


  81.   What circuit is used to combine signals from the IF amplifier and BFO and send the result to the AF amplifier in some single sideband receivers?
     A. RF oscillator
     B. IF filter
     C. Balanced modulator
     D. Product detector


  82.   What instrument other than an SWR meter could you use to determine if a feed line and antenna are properly matched?
     A. Voltmeter
     B. Ohmmeter
     C. Iambic pentameter
     D. Directional wattmeter


  83.   Which of the following is the common name for a filter network which is equivalent to two L-networks connected back-to-back with the two inductors in series and the capacitors in shunt at the input and output?
     A. Pi-L
     B. Cascode
     C. Omega
     D. Pi


  84.   Which of the following measurements are commonly made using a multimeter?
     A. SWR and RF power
     B. Signal strength and noise
     C. Impedance and reactance
     D. Voltage and resistance


  85.   What is the purpose of a "step-start" circuit in a high voltage power supply?
     A. To provide a dual-voltage output for reduced power applications
     B. To compensate for variations of the incoming line voltage
     C. To allow for remote control of the power supply
     D. To allow the filter capacitors to charge gradually


  86.   Which of the following can be used to generate FM phone emissions?
     A. A balanced modulator on the audio amplifier
     B. A reactance modulator on the oscillator
     C. A reactance modulator on the final amplifier
     D. A balanced modulator on the oscillator


  87.   What function can a Fast Fourier Transform perform?
     A. Converting analog signals to digital form
     B. Converting digital signals to analog form
     C. Converting digital signals from the time domain to the frequency domain
     D. Converting 8-bit data to 16 bit data


  88.   What is an integrated circuit operational amplifier?
     A. A high-gain, direct-coupled differential amplifier with very high input impedance and very low output impedance
     B. A digital audio amplifier whose characteristics are determined by components external to the amplifier
     C. An amplifier used to increase the average output of frequency modulated amateur signals to the legal limit
     D. A RF amplifier used in the UHF and microwave regions


  89.   Which describes a microphonic?
     A. An IC used for amplifying microphone signals
     B. Distortion caused by RF pickup on the microphone cable
     C. Changes in oscillator frequency due to mechanical vibration
     D. Excess loading of the microphone by an oscillator


  90.   Which sideband is normally used for 10 meter HF, VHF and UHF single-sideband communications?
     A. Upper sideband
     B. Lower sideband
     C. Suppressed sideband
     D. Inverted sideband


  91.   What is the approximate ratio of PEP-to-average power in a typical single-sideband phone signal?
     A. 2.5 to 1
     B. 25 to 1
     C. 1 to 1
     D. 100 to 1


  92.   Which of the following phone emissions uses the narrowest bandwidth?
     A. Single sideband
     B. Double sideband
     C. Phase modulation
     D. Frequency modulation


  93.   What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz reactance modulated oscillator in a 5 kHz deviation, 146.52 MHz FM phone transmitter?
     A. 101.75 Hz
     B. 416.7 Hz
     C. 5 kHz
     D. 60 kHz


  94.   What causes spin fading when referring to satellite signals?
     A. Circular polarized noise interference radiated from the sun
     B. Rotation of the satellite and its antennas
     C. Doppler shift of the received signal
     D. Interfering signals within the satellite uplink band


  95.   What describes frequency division multiplexing?
     A. The transmitted signal jumps from band to band at a predetermined rate
     B. Two or more information streams are merged into a baseband, which then modulates the transmitter
     C. The transmitted signal is divided into packets of information
     D. Two or more information streams are merged into a digital combiner, which then pulse position modulates the transmitter


  96.   How is Forward Error Correction implemented?
     A. By the receiving station repeating each block of three data characters
     B. By transmitting a special algorithm to the receiving station along with the data characters
     C. By transmitting extra data that may be used to detect and correct transmission errors
     D. By varying the frequency shift of the transmitted signal according to a predefined algorithm


  97.   Which of the following digital modes is designed to operate at extremely low signal strength on the HF bands?
     A. FSK441 and Hellschreiber
     B. JT9 and JT65
     C. Clover
     D. RTTY


  98.   What is meant by Voice Over Internet Protocol (VoIP) as used in amateur radio?
     A. A set of rules specifying how to identify your station when linked over the Internet to another station
     B. A set of guidelines for working DX during contests using Internet access
     C. A technique for measuring the modulation quality of a transmitter using remote sites monitored via the Internet
     D. A method of delivering voice communications over the Internet using digital techniques


  99.   Which of the following devices provides data to the transmitter when sending automatic position reports from a mobile amateur radio station?
     A. The vehicle speedometer
     B. A WWV receiver
     C. A connection to a broadcast FM sub-carrier receiver
     D. A Global Positioning System receiver


  100.   What is the most common method of reducing key clicks?
     A. Increase keying waveform rise and fall times
     B. Low-pass filters at the transmitter output
     C. Reduce keying waveform rise and fall times
     D. High-pass filters at the transmitter output


  101.   What antenna has no gain in any direction?
     A. Quarter-wave vertical
     B. Yagi
     C. Half-wave dipole
     D. Isotropic antenna


  102.   How does the attenuation of coaxial cable change as the frequency of the signal it is carrying increases?
     A. Attenuation is independent of frequency
     B. Attenuation increases
     C. Attenuation decreases
     D. Attenuation reaches a maximum at approximately 18 MHz


  103.   What is the approximate length, in inches, of a quarter-wavelength vertical antenna for 146 MHz?
     A. 112
     B. 50
     C. 19
     D. 12


  104.   Why is it important to have a low SWR in an antenna system that uses coaxial cable feed line?
     A. To reduce television interference
     B. To allow the efficient transfer of power and reduce losses
     C. To prolong antenna life
     D. All of these choices are correct


  105.   How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed point is moved from the center toward the ends?
     A. It steadily increases
     B. It steadily decreases
     C. It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength from the end
     D. It is unaffected by the location of the feed point


  106.   What type of information can be obtained by submitting the details of a proposed new antenna to a modeling program?
     A. SWR vs frequency charts
     B. Polar plots of the far field elevation and azimuth patterns
     C. Antenna gain
     D. All of these choices are correct


  107.   What is the approximate feed point impedance at the center of a two-wire folded dipole antenna?
     A. 300 ohms
     B. 72 ohms
     C. 50 ohms
     D. 450 ohms


  108.   How does the gain of two 3-element horizontally polarized Yagi antennas spaced vertically 1/2 wavelength apart typically compare to the gain of a single 3-element Yagi?
     A. Approximately 1.5 dB higher
     B. Approximately 3 dB higher
     C. Approximately 6 dB higher
     D. Approximately 9 dB higher


  109.   At what height above ground is an NVIS antenna typically installed?
     A. As close to 1/2 wavelength as possible
     B. As close to one wavelength as possible
     C. Height is not critical as long as it is significantly more than 1/2 wavelength
     D. Between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength


  110.   What happens to the bandwidth of an antenna as it is shortened through the use of loading coils?
     A. It is increased
     B. It is decreased
     C. No change occurs
     D. It becomes flat


  111.   What is the primary purpose of a phasing line when used with an antenna having multiple driven elements?
     A. It ensures that each driven element operates in concert with the others to create the desired antenna pattern
     B. It prevents reflected power from traveling back down the feed line and causing harmonic radiation from the transmitter
     C. It allows single-band antennas to operate on other bands
     D. It makes sure the antenna has a low-angle radiation pattern


  112.   What is the velocity factor of a transmission line?
     A. The ratio of the characteristic impedance of the line to the terminating impedance
     B. The index of shielding for coaxial cable
     C. The velocity of the wave in the transmission line multiplied by the velocity of light in a vacuum
     D. The velocity of the wave in the transmission line divided by the velocity of light in a vacuum


  113.   What type of coordinate system is used in a Smith chart?
     A. Voltage circles and current arcs
     B. Resistance circles and reactance arcs
     C. Voltage lines and current chords
     D. Resistance lines and reactance chords


  114.   What is an advantage of using a shielded loop antenna for direction finding?
     A. It automatically cancels ignition noise in mobile installations
     B. It is electro statically balanced against ground, giving better nulls
     C. It eliminates tracking errors caused by strong out-of-band signals
     D. It allows stations to communicate without giving away their position


  115.   What is the primary function of an external earth connection or ground rod?
     A. Reduce received noise
     B. Lightning protection
     C. Reduce RF current flow between pieces of equipment
     D. Reduce RFI to telephones and home entertainment systems


  116.   What is one way that RF energy can affect human body tissue?
     A. It heats body tissue
     B. It causes radiation poisoning
     C. It causes the blood count to reach a dangerously low level
     D. It cools body tissue


  117.   What kind of hazard is presented by a conventional 12-volt storage battery?
     A. It emits ozone which can be harmful to the atmosphere
     B. Shock hazard due to high voltage
     C. Explosive gas can collect if not properly vented
     D. All of these choices are correct


  118.   Which of the following is a primary reason for not placing a gasoline-fueled generator inside an occupied area?
     A. Danger of carbon monoxide poisoning
     B. Danger of engine over torque
     C. Lack of oxygen for adequate combustion
     D. Lack of nitrogen for adequate combustion


  119.   Why should you avoid attaching an antenna to a utility pole?
     A. The antenna will not work properly because of induced voltages
     B. The utility company will charge you an extra monthly fee
     C. The antenna could contact high-voltage power wires
     D. All of these choices are correct


  120.   Why do exposure limits vary with frequency?
     A. Lower frequency RF fields have more energy than higher frequency fields
     B. Lower frequency RF fields do not penetrate the human body
     C. Higher frequency RF fields are transient in nature
     D. The human body absorbs more RF energy at some frequencies than at others