- Amateur Radio (Ham Radio) Community

Call Search

New to Ham Radio?
My Profile

Friends Remembered
Survey Question

DX Cluster Spots

Ham Exams
Ham Links
List Archives
News Articles
Product Reviews
QSL Managers

Site Info
eHam Help (FAQ)
Support the site
The eHam Team
Advertising Info
Vision Statement

donate to eham Practice Exam -

    G1A06     [97.301(d)]

  1.   Which of the following frequencies is within the General Class portion of the 75-meter phone band?
     A. 1875 kHz
     B. 3750 kHz
     C. 3900 kHz
     D. 4005 kHz

    T1A08     [97.3(a)(22)]

  2.   Which of the following entities recommends transmit/receive channels and other parameters for auxiliary and repeater stations?
     A. Frequency Spectrum Manager
     B. Frequency Coordinator
     C. FCC Regional Field Office
     D. International Telecommunications Union

    E1A11     [97.5]

  3.   Which of the following describes authorization or licensing required when operating an amateur station aboard a U.S.-registered vessel in international waters?
     A. Any amateur license with an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement
     B. Any FCC-issued amateur license
     C. Only General class or higher amateur licenses
     D. An unrestricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit

    G1B02     [97.203(b)]

  4.   With which of the following conditions must beacon stations comply?
     A. A beacon station may not use automatic control
     B. The frequency must be coordinated with the National Beacon Organization
     C. The frequency must be posted on the Internet or published in a national periodical
     D. There must be no more than one beacon signal transmitting in the same band from the same station location

    T1B03     [97.301(a)]

  5.   Which frequency is within the 6 meter band?
     A. 49.00 MHz
     B. 52.525 MHz
     C. 28.50 MHz
     D. 222.15 MHz

    E1B11     [97.307]

  6.   What is the permitted mean power of any spurious emission relative to the mean power of the fundamental emission from a station transmitter or external RF amplifier installed after January 1, 2003 and transmitting on a frequency below 30 MHZ?
     A. At least 43 dB below
     B. At least 53 dB below
     C. At least 63 dB below
     D. At least 73 dB below

    T1C01     [97.3(a)(11)(iii)]

  7.   Which type of call sign has a single letter in both its prefix and suffix?
     A. Vanity
     B. Sequential
     C. Special event
     D. In-memoriam

    G1C05     [97.313(c)(2)]

  8.   Which of the following is a limitation on transmitter power on the 28 MHz band for a General Class control operator?
     A. 100 watts PEP output
     B. 1000 watts PEP output
     C. 1500 watts PEP output
     D. 2000 watts PEP output

    E1C11     [97.5]

  9.   Which of the following operating arrangements allows an FCC-licensed U.S. citizen to operate in many European countries, and alien amateurs from many European countries to operate in the U.S.?
     A. CEPT agreement
     B. IARP agreement
     C. ITU reciprocal license
     D. All of these choices are correct

    E1D06     [97.207]

  10.   Which of the following is a requirement of a space station?
     A. The space station must be capable of terminating transmissions by telecommand when directed by the FCC
     B. The space station must cease all transmissions after 5 years
     C. The space station must be capable of changing its orbit whenever such a change is ordered by NASA
     D. All of these choices are correct

    T1D07     [97.113(d)]

  11.   What types of amateur stations can automatically retransmit the signals of other amateur stations?
     A. Auxiliary, beacon, or Earth stations
     B. Auxiliary, repeater, or space stations
     C. Beacon, repeater, or space stations
     D. Earth, repeater, or space stations


  12.   If a person has an expired FCC issued amateur radio license of General Class or higher, what is required before they can receive a new license?
     A. They must have a letter from the FCC showing they once held an amateur or commercial license
     B. There are no requirements other than being able to show a copy of the expired license
     C. The applicant must be able to produce a copy of a page from a call book published in the USA showing his or her name and address
     D. The applicant must pass the current element 2 exam

    T1E06     [97.109(d)]

  13.   Under what type of control do APRS network digipeaters operate?
     A. Automatic
     B. Remote
     C. Local
     D. Manual

    G1E07     [97.115(a)(2)]

  14.   With which foreign countries is third party traffic prohibited, except for messages directly involving emergencies or disaster relief communications?
     A. Countries in ITU Region 2
     B. Countries in ITU Region 1
     C. Every foreign country, unless there is a third party agreement in effect with that country
     D. Any country which is not a member of the International Amateur Radio Union (IARU)

    E1E11     [97.509]

  15.   What must the VE team do if an examinee scores a passing grade on all examination elements needed for an upgrade or new license?
     A. Photocopy all examination documents and forward them to the FCC for processing
     B. Three VEs must certify that the examinee is qualified for the license grant and that they have complied with the administering VE requirements
     C. Issue the examinee the new or upgrade license
     D. All these choices are correct

    E1F10     [97.313]

  16.   What is the maximum permitted transmitter peak envelope power for an amateur station transmitting spread spectrum communications?
     A. 1 W
     B. 1.5 W
     C. 10 W
     D. 1.5 kW

    T1F12     [97.5(b)(2)]

  17.   How many persons are required to be members of a club for a club station license to be issued by the FCC?
     A. At least 5
     B. At least 4
     C. A trustee and 2 officers
     D. At least 2


  18.   Which of the following is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands?
     A. Upper sideband
     B. Lower sideband
     C. Vestigial sideband
     D. Double sideband


  19.   What brief statement is often transmitted in place of "CQ" to indicate that you are listening on a repeater?
     A. The words "Hello test" followed by your call sign
     B. Your call sign
     C. The repeater call sign followed by your call sign
     D. The letters "QSY" followed by your call sign


  20.   What type of antenna can be used to minimize the effects of spin modulation and Faraday rotation?
     A. A linearly polarized antenna
     B. A circularly polarized antenna
     C. An isotropic antenna
     D. A log-periodic dipole array


  21.   What is a practical way to avoid harmful interference on an apparently clear frequency before calling CQ on CW or phone?
     A. Send "QRL?" on CW, followed by your call sign; or, if using phone, ask if the frequency is in use, followed by your call sign
     B. Listen for 2 minutes before calling CQ
     C. Send the letter "V" in Morse code several times and listen for a response or say "test" several times and listen for a response
     D. Send "QSY" on CW or if using phone, announce "the frequency is in use", then give your call and listen for a response


  22.   What happens when the deviation of an FM transmitter is increased?
     A. Its signal occupies more bandwidth
     B. Its output power increases
     C. Its output power and bandwidth increases
     D. Asymmetric modulation occurs


  23.   What is the function of the Vertical Interval Signaling (VIS) code sent as part of an SSTV transmission?
     A. To lock the color burst oscillator in color SSTV images
     B. To identify the SSTV mode being used
     C. To provide vertical synchronization
     D. To identify the call sign of the station transmitting


  24.   What does it mean when a CW operator sends "KN" at the end of a transmission?
     A. Listening for novice stations
     B. Operating full break-in
     C. Listening only for a specific station or stations
     D. Closing station now

    T2C05     [97.3(a)(38), 97.407]

  25.   Which of the following describes the Radio Amateur Civil Emergency Service (RACES)?
     A. A radio service using amateur frequencies for emergency management or civil defense communications
     B. A radio service using amateur stations for emergency management or civil defense communications
     C. An emergency service using amateur operators certified by a civil defense organization as being enrolled in that organization
     D. All of these choices are correct


  26.   How should you generally identify your station when attempting to contact a DX station during a contest or in a pileup?
     A. Send your full call sign once or twice
     B. Send only the last two letters of your call sign until you make contact
     C. Send your full call sign and grid square
     D. Send the call sign of the DX station three times, the words "this is", then your call sign three times


  27.   What is the purpose of digital store-and-forward functions on an Amateur Radio satellite?
     A. To upload operational software for the transponder
     B. To delay download of telemetry between satellites
     C. To store digital messages in the satellite for later download by other stations
     D. To relay messages between satellites

    G2D07     [97.303(i)]

  28.   Which of the following is required by the FCC rules when operating in the 60-meter band?
     A. If you are using other than a dipole antenna, you must keep a record of the gain of your antenna
     B. You must keep a record of the date, time, frequency, power level and stations worked
     C. You must keep a record of all third party traffic
     D. You must keep a record of the manufacturer of your equipment and the antenna used


  29.   Which type of modulation is common for data emissions below 30 MHz?
     A. DTMF tones modulating an FM signal
     B. FSK
     C. Pulse modulation
     D. Spread spectrum


  30.   How can a PACTOR modem or controller be used to determine if the channel is in use by other PACTOR stations?
     A. Unplug the data connector temporarily and see if the channel-busy indication is turned off
     B. Put the modem or controller in a mode which allows monitoring communications without a connection
     C. Transmit UI packets several times and wait to see if there is a response from another PACTOR station
     D. Send the message: "Is this frequency in use?"


  31.   What is a geomagnetic storm?
     A. A sudden drop in the solar flux index
     B. A thunderstorm which affects radio propagation
     C. Ripples in the ionosphere
     D. A temporary disturbance in the Earth's magnetosphere


  32.   Which part of the atmosphere enables the propagation of radio signals around the world?
     A. The stratosphere
     B. The troposphere
     C. The ionosphere
     D. The magnetosphere


  33.   Which emission mode is best for aurora propagation?
     A. CW
     B. SSB
     C. FM
     D. RTTY


  34.   Which of the following is a good indicator of the possibility of sky-wave propagation on the 6-meter band?
     A. Short skip sky-wave propagation on the 10-meter band
     B. Long skip sky-wave propagation on the 10-meter band
     C. Severe attenuation of signals on the 10-meter band
     D. Long delayed echoes on the 10-meter band


  35.   How does the wavelength of a radio wave relate to its frequency?
     A. The wavelength gets longer as the frequency increases
     B. The wavelength gets shorter as the frequency increases
     C. There is no relationship between wavelength and frequency
     D. The wavelength depends on the bandwidth of the signal


  36.   What type of HF propagation is probably occurring if radio signals travel along the terminator between daylight and darkness?
     A. Transequatorial
     B. Sporadic-E
     C. Long-path
     D. Gray-line


  37.   What is a characteristic of HF scatter signals?
     A. They have high intelligibility
     B. They have a wavering sound
     C. They have very large swings in signal strength
     D. All of these choices are correct


  38.   What band is best suited for communicating via meteor scatter?
     A. 10 meters
     B. 6 meters
     C. 2 meters
     D. 70 cm


  39.   Which of the following descriptors indicates the greatest solar flare intensity?
     A. Class A
     B. Class B
     C. Class M
     D. Class X


  40.   How might a computer be used as part of an amateur radio station?
     A. For logging contacts and contact information
     B. For sending and/or receiving CW
     C. For generating and decoding digital signals
     D. All of these choices are correct


  41.   Which of the following is an advantage of using an antenna analyzer compared to an SWR bridge to measure antenna SWR?
     A. Antenna analyzers automatically tune your antenna for resonance
     B. Antenna analyzers do not need an external RF source
     C. Antenna analyzers display a time-varying representation of the modulation envelope
     D. All of these choices are correct


  42.   What is the correct adjustment for the load or coupling control of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier?
     A. Minimum SWR on the antenna
     B. Minimum plate current without exceeding maximum allowable grid current
     C. Highest plate voltage while minimizing grid current
     D. Maximum power output without exceeding maximum allowable plate current


  43.   Which of the following controls could be used if the voice pitch of a single-sideband signal seems too high or low?
     A. The AGC or limiter
     B. The bandwidth selection
     C. The tone squelch
     D. The receiver RIT or clarifier


  44.   What type of transmitter performance does a two-tone test analyze?
     A. Linearity
     B. Percentage of suppression of carrier and undesired sideband for SSB
     C. Percentage of frequency modulation
     D. Percentage of carrier phase shift


  45.   What three test loads are used to calibrate a standard RF vector network analyzer?
     A. 50 ohms, 75 ohms, and 90 ohms
     B. Short circuit, open circuit, and 50 ohms
     C. Short circuit, open circuit, and resonant circuit
     D. 50 ohms through 1/8 wavelength, 1/4 wavelength, and 1/2 wavelength of coaxial cable


  46.   Which of the following portions of a receiver can be effective in eliminating image signal interference?
     A. A front-end filter or pre-selector
     B. A narrow IF filter
     C. A notch filter
     D. A properly adjusted product detector


  47.   Which of the following is a function of a digital signal processor?
     A. To provide adequate grounding
     B. To remove noise from received signals
     C. To increase antenna gain
     D. To increase antenna bandwidth


  48.   What transmitter frequencies would cause an intermodulation-product signal in a receiver tuned to 146.70 MHz when a nearby station transmits on 146.52 MHz?
     A. 146.34 MHz and 146.61 MHz
     B. 146.88 MHz and 146.34 MHz
     C. 146.10 MHz and 147.30 MHz
     D. 173.35 MHz and 139.40 MHz


  49.   How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?
     A. It is 10 times less powerful
     B. It is 20 times less powerful
     C. It is 20 times more powerful
     D. It is 100 times more powerful


  50.   What is the purpose of a corona ball on a HF mobile antenna?
     A. To narrow the operating bandwidth of the antenna
     B. To increase the "Q" of the antenna
     C. To reduce the chance of damage if the antenna should strike an object
     D. To reduce high voltage discharge from the tip of the antenna


  51.   What undesirable effect can occur when using an IF noise blanker?
     A. Received audio in the speech range might have an echo effect
     B. The audio frequency bandwidth of the received signal might be compressed
     C. Nearby signals may appear to be excessively wide even if they meet emission standards
     D. FM signals can no longer be demodulated


  52.   How much voltage does a mobile transceiver usually require?
     A. About 12 volts
     B. About 30 volts
     C. About 120 volts
     D. About 240 volts


  53.   What is the phase relationship between the current through and the voltage across a series resonant circuit at resonance?
     A. The voltage leads the current by 90 degrees
     B. The current leads the voltage by 90 degrees
     C. The voltage and current are in phase
     D. The voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase


  54.   What unit is used to measure reactance?
     A. Farad
     B. Ohm
     C. Ampere
     D. Siemens


  55.   How many volts are equal to one microvolt?
     A. One one-millionth of a volt
     B. One million volts
     C. One thousand kilovolts
     D. One one-thousandth of a volt


  56.   How many watts are dissipated when a current of 7.0 milliamperes flows through 1.25 kilohms resistance?
     A. Approximately 61 milliwatts
     B. Approximately 61 watts
     C. Approximately 11 milliwatts
     D. Approximately 11 watts


  57.   What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 500 ohms, R is 1 kilohm, and XL is 250 ohms?
     A. 68.2 degrees with the voltage leading the current
     B. 14.0 degrees with the voltage leading the current
     C. 14.0 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
     D. 68.2 degrees with the voltage lagging the current


  58.   What is the total resistance of three 100 ohm resistors in parallel?
     A. 0.30 ohms
     B. 0.33 ohms
     C. 33.3 ohms
     D. 300 ohms


  59.   How much power is being used in a circuit when the applied voltage is 12 volts DC and the current is 2.5 amperes?
     A. 4.8 watts
     B. 30 watts
     C. 14.5 watts
     D. 0.208 watts


  60.   Which point in Figure E5-2 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300 ohm resistor and an 18 microhenry inductor at 3.505 MHz?
     A. Point 1
     B. Point 3
     C. Point 7
     D. Point 8


  61.   What is the resistance of a circuit in which a current of 3 amperes flows through a resistor connected to 90 volts?
     A. 3 ohms
     B. 30 ohms
     C. 93 ohms
     D. 270 ohms


  62.   What is the power factor of an R-L circuit having a 30 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current?
     A. 1.73
     B. 0.5
     C. 0.866
     D. 0.577


  63.   What electrical component is used to protect other circuit components from current overloads?
     A. Fuse
     B. Capacitor
     C. Inductor
     D. All of these choices are correct


  64.   Which of the following describes the construction of a MOSFET?
     A. The gate is formed by a back-biased junction
     B. The gate is separated from the channel with a thin insulating layer
     C. The source is separated from the drain by a thin insulating layer
     D. The source is formed by depositing metal on silicon


  65.   How does DC input impedance at the gate of a field-effect transistor compare with the DC input impedance of a bipolar transistor?
     A. They are both low impedance
     B. An FET has low input impedance; a bipolar transistor has high input impedance
     C. An FET has high input impedance; a bipolar transistor has low input impedance
     D. They are both high impedance


  66.   What is the most useful characteristic of a Zener diode?
     A. A constant current drop under conditions of varying voltage
     B. A constant voltage drop under conditions of varying current
     C. A negative resistance region
     D. An internal capacitance that varies with the applied voltage


  67.   What are the names of the two electrodes of a diode?
     A. Plus and minus
     B. Source and drain
     C. Anode and cathode
     D. Gate and base


  68.   What is the main reason to use keyed connectors instead of non-keyed types?
     A. Prevention of use by unauthorized persons
     B. Reduced chance of incorrect mating
     C. Higher current carrying capacity
     D. All of these choices are correct


  69.   What is the name for standardized representations of components in an electrical wiring diagram?
     A. Electrical depictions
     B. Grey sketch
     C. Schematic symbols
     D. Component callouts


  70.   What is the primary advantage of tri-state logic?
     A. Low power consumption
     B. Ability to connect many device outputs to a common bus
     C. High speed operation
     D. More efficient arithmetic operations


  71.   What type of switch is represented by component 3 in figure T2?
     A. Single-pole single-throw
     B. Single-pole double-throw
     C. Double-pole single-throw
     D. Double-pole double-throw


  72.   What is a primary advantage of using a toroidal core instead of a solenoidal core in an inductor?
     A. Toroidal cores confine most of the magnetic field within the core material
     B. Toroidal cores make it easier to couple the magnetic energy into other components
     C. Toroidal cores exhibit greater hysteresis
     D. Toroidal cores have lower Q characteristics


  73.   Which of the following is true of a charge-coupled device (CCD)?
     A. Its phase shift changes rapidly with frequency
     B. It is a CMOS analog-to-digital converter
     C. It samples an analog signal and passes it in stages from the input to the output
     D. It is used in a battery charger circuit


  74.   What is the efficiency of a photovoltaic cell?
     A. The output RF power divided by the input DC power
     B. The effective payback period
     C. The open-circuit voltage divided by the short-circuit current under full illumination
     D. The relative fraction of light that is converted to current


  75.   Which of the following components are used in a power supply filter network?
     A. Diodes
     B. Transformers and transducers
     C. Quartz crystals
     D. Capacitors and inductors


  76.   What is meant by term "PTT"?
     A. Pre-transmission tuning to reduce transmitter harmonic emission
     B. Precise tone transmissions used to limit repeater access to only certain signals
     C. A primary transformer tuner use to match antennas
     D. The push to talk function which switches between receive and transmit


  77.   What is a truth table?
     A. A table of logic symbols that indicate the high logic states of an op-amp
     B. A diagram showing logic states when the digital device output is true
     C. A list of inputs and corresponding outputs for a digital device
     D. A table of logic symbols that indicate the logic states of an op-amp


  78.   Which of the following components form the output of a class D amplifier circuit?
     A. A low-pass filter to remove switching signal components
     B. A high-pass filter to compensate for low gain at low frequencies
     C. A matched load resistor to prevent damage by switching transients
     D. A temperature compensating load resistor to improve linearity


  79.   Which of the following is a way to reduce or eliminate interference by an amateur transmitter to a nearby telephone?
     A. Put a filter on the amateur transmitter
     B. Reduce the microphone gain
     C. Reduce the SWR on the transmitter transmission line
     D. Put a RF filter on the telephone


  80.   Which of the following is a characteristic of a Class A amplifier?
     A. Low standby power
     B. High Efficiency
     C. No need for bias
     D. Low distortion


  81.   What is the simplest combination of stages that implement a superheterodyne receiver?
     A. RF amplifier, detector, audio amplifier
     B. RF amplifier, mixer, IF discriminator
     C. HF oscillator, mixer, detector
     D. HF oscillator, prescaler, audio amplifier


  82.   Which of the following is the common name for a filter network which is equivalent to two L-networks connected back-to-back with the two inductors in series and the capacitors in shunt at the input and output?
     A. Pi-L
     B. Cascode
     C. Omega
     D. Pi


  83.   What is a disadvantage of air core coaxial cable when compared to foam or solid dielectric types?
     A. It has more loss per foot
     B. It cannot be used for VHF or UHF antennas
     C. It requires special techniques to prevent water absorption
     D. It cannot be used at below freezing temperatures


  84.   What type of circuit is shown in Figure E7-3?
     A. Switching voltage regulator
     B. Grounded emitter amplifier
     C. Linear voltage regulator
     D. Emitter follower


  85.   Which of the following precautions should be taken when measuring circuit resistance with an ohmmeter?
     A. Ensure that the applied voltages are correct
     B. Ensure that the circuit is not powered
     C. Ensure that the circuit is grounded
     D. Ensure that the circuit is operating at the correct frequency


  86.   What are the principal frequencies that appear at the output of a mixer circuit?
     A. Two and four times the original frequency
     B. The sum, difference and square root of the input frequencies
     C. The two input frequencies along with their sum and difference frequencies
     D. 1.414 and 0.707 times the input frequency


  87.   What aspect of receiver analog-to-digital conversion determines the maximum receive bandwidth of a Direct Digital Conversion SDR?
     A. Sample rate
     B. Sample width in bits
     C. Sample clock phase noise
     D. Processor latency


  88.   What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-4 when R1 is 3300 ohms and RF is 47 kilohms?
     A. 28
     B. 14
     C. 7
     D. 0.07


  89.   Which of the following components can be used to reduce thermal drift in crystal oscillators?
     A. NP0 capacitors
     B. Toroidal inductors
     C. Wirewound resistors
     D. Non-inductive resistors


  90.   What control is typically adjusted for proper ALC setting on an amateur single sideband transceiver?
     A. The RF clipping level
     B. Transmit audio or microphone gain
     C. Antenna inductance or capacitance
     D. Attenuator level


  91.   How many levels can an analog-to-digital converter with 8 bit resolution encode?
     A. 8
     B. 8 multiplied by the gain of the input amplifier
     C. 256 divided by the gain of the input amplifier
     D. 256


  92.   What is the typical bandwidth of analog fast-scan TV transmissions on the 70 cm band?
     A. More than 10 MHz
     B. About 6 MHz
     C. About 3 MHz
     D. About 1 MHz

    T8B01     [97.301, 97.207(c)]

  93.   Who may be the control operator of a station communicating through an amateur satellite or space station?
     A. Only an Amateur Extra Class operator
     B. A General Class licensee or higher licensee who has a satellite operator certification
     C. Only an Amateur Extra Class operator who is also an AMSAT member
     D. Any amateur whose license privileges allow them to transmit on the satellite uplink frequency


  94.   What is the deviation ratio of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus-or-minus 5 kHz when the maximum modulation frequency is 3 kHz?
     A. 60
     B. 0.167
     C. 0.6
     D. 1.67


  95.   Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?
     A. It is required by FCC rules
     B. It minimizes power consumption in the receiver
     C. It improves impedance matching of the antenna
     D. It results in the best signal to noise ratio


  96.   What action results from a failure to exchange information due to excessive transmission attempts when using PACTOR or WINMOR?
     A. The checksum overflows
     B. The connection is dropped
     C. Packets will be routed incorrectly
     D. Encoding reverts to the default character set


  97.   How does ARQ accomplish error correction?
     A. Special binary codes provide automatic correction
     B. Special polynomial codes provide automatic correction
     C. If errors are detected, redundant data is substituted
     D. If errors are detected, a retransmission is requested


  98.   How do you select a specific IRLP node when using a portable transceiver?
     A. Choose a specific CTCSS tone
     B. Choose the correct DSC tone
     C. Access the repeater autopatch
     D. Use the keypad to transmit the IRLP node ID


  99.   Why are received spread spectrum signals resistant to interference?
     A. Signals not using the spread spectrum algorithm are suppressed in the receiver
     B. The high power used by a spread spectrum transmitter keeps its signal from being easily overpowered
     C. The receiver is always equipped with a digital blanker
     D. If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to change frequencies


  100.   Which of the following devices provides data to the transmitter when sending automatic position reports from a mobile amateur radio station?
     A. The vehicle speedometer
     B. A WWV receiver
     C. A connection to a broadcast FM sub-carrier receiver
     D. A Global Positioning System receiver


  101.   What is a beam antenna?
     A. An antenna built from aluminum I-beams
     B. An omnidirectional antenna invented by Clarence Beam
     C. An antenna that concentrates signals in one direction
     D. An antenna that reverses the phase of received signals


  102.   What antenna has no gain in any direction?
     A. Quarter-wave vertical
     B. Yagi
     C. Half-wave dipole
     D. Isotropic antenna


  103.   What is the effect of transmission line loss on SWR measured at the input to the line?
     A. The higher the transmission line loss, the more the SWR will read artificially low
     B. The higher the transmission line loss, the more the SWR will read artificially high
     C. The higher the transmission line loss, the more accurate the SWR measurement will be
     D. Transmission line loss does not affect the SWR measurement


  104.   Why is it important to have a low SWR in an antenna system that uses coaxial cable feed line?
     A. To reduce television interference
     B. To allow the efficient transfer of power and reduce losses
     C. To prolong antenna life
     D. All of these choices are correct


  105.   What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 3.550 MHz?
     A. 42 feet
     B. 84 feet
     C. 131 feet
     D. 263 feet


  106.   What is the front-to-back ratio of the radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?
     A. 15 dB
     B. 28 dB
     C. 3 dB
     D. 24 dB


  107.   How does the radiation pattern of a horizontally polarized 3-element beam antenna vary with its height above ground?
     A. The main lobe takeoff angle increases with increasing height
     B. The main lobe takeoff angle decreases with increasing height
     C. The horizontal beam width increases with height
     D. The horizontal beam width decreases with height


  108.   Approximately how long is each leg of a symmetrical delta-loop antenna?
     A. 1/4 wavelength
     B. 1/3 wavelength
     C. 1/2 wavelength
     D. 2/3 wavelength


  109.   Where should a high Q loading coil be placed to minimize losses in a shortened vertical antenna?
     A. Near the center of the vertical radiator
     B. As low as possible on the vertical radiator
     C. As close to the transmitter as possible
     D. At a voltage node


  110.   Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband antennas?
     A. They present low impedance on all design frequencies
     B. They must be used with an antenna tuner
     C. They must be fed with open wire line
     D. They have poor harmonic rejection


  111.   What is the purpose of the series capacitor in a gamma-type antenna matching network?
     A. To provide DC isolation between the feed line and the antenna
     B. To cancel the inductive reactance of the matching network
     C. To provide a rejection notch that prevents the radiation of harmonics
     D. To transform the antenna impedance to a higher value


  112.   What impedance does a 1/8 wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at the far end?
     A. The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
     B. An inductive reactance
     C. A capacitive reactance
     D. The same as the input impedance of the final generator stage


  113.   Which of the following is often determined using a Smith chart?
     A. Beam headings and radiation patterns
     B. Satellite azimuth and elevation bearings
     C. Impedance and SWR values in transmission lines
     D. Trigonometric functions


  114.   How can the output voltage of a multiple turn receiving loop antenna be increased?
     A. By reducing the permeability of the loop shield
     B. By increasing the number of wire turns in the loop and reducing the area of the loop structure
     C. By winding adjacent turns in opposing directions
     D. By increasing either the number of wire turns in the loop or the area of the loop structure or both


  115.   What is the purpose of a fuse in an electrical circuit?
     A. To prevent power supply ripple from damaging a circuit
     B. To interrupt power in case of overload
     C. To limit current to prevent shocks
     D. All of these choices are correct


  116.   What effect does transmitter duty cycle have when evaluating RF exposure?
     A. A lower transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels
     B. A higher transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels
     C. Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements
     D. High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements


  117.   How may dangerous levels of carbon monoxide from an emergency generator be detected?
     A. By the odor
     B. Only with a carbon monoxide detector
     C. Any ordinary smoke detector can be used
     D. By the yellowish appearance of the gas


  118.   Why should you avoid attaching an antenna to a utility pole?
     A. The antenna will not work properly because of induced voltages
     B. The utility company will charge you an extra monthly fee
     C. The antenna could contact high-voltage power wires
     D. All of these choices are correct


  119.   Which of the following is covered by the National Electrical Code?
     A. Acceptable bandwidth limits
     B. Acceptable modulation limits
     C. Electrical safety inside the ham shack
     D. RF exposure limits of the human body


  120.   How can you make sure your station stays in compliance with RF safety regulations?
     A. By informing the FCC of any changes made in your station
     B. By re-evaluating the station whenever an item of equipment is changed
     C. By making sure your antennas have low SWR
     D. All of these choices are correct