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About Practice Exam -

    T1A01     [97.1]

  1.   Which of the following is a purpose of the Amateur Radio Service as stated in the FCC rules and regulations?
     A. Providing personal radio communications for as many citizens as possible
     B. Providing communications for international non-profit organizations
     C. Advancing skills in the technical and communication phases of the radio art
     D. All of these choices are correct

    G1A08     [97.301(d)]

  2.   Which of the following frequencies is within the General Class portion of the 80-meter band?
     A. 1855 kHz
     B. 2560 kHz
     C. 3560 kHz
     D. 3650 kHz

    E1A10     [97.11]

  3.   If an amateur station is installed aboard a ship or aircraft, what condition must be met before the station is operated?
     A. Its operation must be approved by the master of the ship or the pilot in command of the aircraft
     B. The amateur station operator must agree not to transmit when the main radio of the ship or aircraft is in use
     C. The amateur station must have a power supply that is completely independent of the main ship or aircraft power supply
     D. The amateur operator must have an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement on his or her amateur license


  4.   What is the ITU?
     A. An agency of the United States Department of Telecommunications Management
     B. A United Nations agency for information and communication technology issues
     C. An independent frequency coordination agency
     D. A department of the FCC

    E1B11     [97.307]

  5.   What is the permitted mean power of any spurious emission relative to the mean power of the fundamental emission from a station transmitter or external RF amplifier installed after January 1, 2003 and transmitting on a frequency below 30 MHZ?
     A. At least 43 dB below
     B. At least 53 dB below
     C. At least 63 dB below
     D. At least 73 dB below

    G1B12     [97.101(a)]

  6.   Who or what determines "good engineering and good amateur practice" as applied to the operation of an amateur station in all respects not covered by the Part 97 rules?
     A. The FCC
     B. The Control Operator
     C. The IEEE
     D. The ITU

    T1C01     [97.3(a)(11)(iii)]

  7.   Which type of call sign has a single letter in both its prefix and suffix?
     A. Vanity
     B. Sequential
     C. Special event
     D. In-memoriam

    G1C11     [97.305(c) and 97.307(f)(5)]

  8.   What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 2-meter band?
     A. 56 kilobaud
     B. 19.6 kilobaud
     C. 1200 baud
     D. 300 baud

    E1C12     [97.117]

  9.   What types of communications may be transmitted to amateur stations in foreign countries?
     A. Business-related messages for non-profit organizations
     B. Messages intended for connection to users of the maritime satellite service
     C. Communications incidental to the purpose of the amateur service and remarks of a personal nature
     D. All of these choices are correct

    G1D01     [97.501, 97.505(a)]

  10.   Who may receive credit for the elements represented by an expired amateur radio license?
     A. Any person who can demonstrate that they once held an FCC issued General, Advanced, or Amateur Extra class license that was not revoked by the FCC
     B. Anyone who held an FCC issued amateur radio license that has been expired for not less than 5 years and not more than 15 years
     C. Any person who previously held an amateur license issued by another country, but only if that country has a current reciprocal licensing agreement with the FCC
     D. Only persons who once held an FCC issued Novice, Technician, or Technician Plus license

    T1D01     [97.111(a)(1)]

  11.   With which countries are FCC-licensed amateur stations prohibited from exchanging communications?
     A. Any country whose administration has notified the ITU that it objects to such communications
     B. Any country whose administration has notified the ARRL that it objects to such communications
     C. Any country engaged in hostilities with another country
     D. Any country in violation of the War Powers Act of 1934

    E1D05     [97.207]

  12.   What class of licensee is authorized to be the control operator of a space station?
     A. All except Technician Class
     B. Only General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class
     C. Any class with appropriate operator privileges
     D. Only Amateur Extra Class

    G1E03     [97.221]

  13.   What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?
     A. The station initiating the contact must be under local or remote control
     B. The interrogating transmission must be made by another automatically controlled station
     C. No third party traffic maybe be transmitted
     D. The control operator of the interrogating station must hold an Extra

    E1E06     [97.509]

  14.   Who is responsible for the proper conduct and necessary supervision during an amateur operator license examination session?
     A. The VEC coordinating the session
     B. The FCC
     C. Each administering VE
     D. The VE session manager

    T1E08     [97.3(a)(6), 97.205(d)]

  15.   Which of the following is an example of automatic control?
     A. Repeater operation
     B. Controlling the station over the Internet
     C. Using a computer or other device to automatically send CW
     D. Using a computer or other device to automatically identify


  16.   What type of identification is being used when identifying a station on the air as Race Headquarters?
     A. Tactical call sign
     B. An official call sign reserved for RACES drills
     C. SSID
     D. Broadcast station

    E1F08     [97.113]

  17.   Which of the following types of amateur station communications are prohibited?
     A. Communications transmitted for hire or material compensation, except as otherwise provided in the rules
     B. Communications that have a political content, except as allowed by the Fairness Doctrine
     C. Communications that have a religious content
     D. Communications in a language other than English


  18.   What is the direction of a descending pass for an amateur satellite?
     A. From north to south
     B. From west to east
     C. From east to west
     D. From south to north


  19.   Which of the following is an advantage when using single sideband as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands?
     A. Very high fidelity voice modulation
     B. Less bandwidth used and greater power efficiency
     C. Ease of tuning on receive and immunity to impulse noise
     D. Less subject to interference from atmospheric static crashes


  20.   Which of the following is a guideline to use when choosing an operating frequency for calling CQ?
     A. Listen first to be sure that no one else is using the frequency
     B. Ask if the frequency is in use
     C. Make sure you are in your assigned band
     D. All of these choices are correct


  21.   How many horizontal lines make up a fast-scan (NTSC) television frame?
     A. 30
     B. 60
     C. 525
     D. 1080


  22.   What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in?
     A. Continue your communication because you were on the frequency first
     B. Acknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be needed
     C. Change to a different frequency
     D. Immediately cease all transmissions


  23.   What happens when the deviation of an FM transmitter is increased?
     A. Its signal occupies more bandwidth
     B. Its output power increases
     C. Its output power and bandwidth increases
     D. Asymmetric modulation occurs


  24.   What does the Q signal "QSL" mean?
     A. Send slower
     B. We have already confirmed by card
     C. I acknowledge receipt
     D. We have worked before


  25.   Are amateur station control operators ever permitted to operate outside the frequency privileges of their license class?
     A. No
     B. Yes, but only when part of a FEMA emergency plan
     C. Yes, but only when part of a RACES emergency plan
     D. Yes, but only if necessary in situations involving the immediate safety of human life or protection of property


  26.   Why might a DX station state that they are listening on another frequency?
     A. Because the DX station may be transmitting on a frequency that is prohibited to some responding stations
     B. To separate the calling stations from the DX station
     C. To improve operating efficiency by reducing interference
     D. All of these choices are correct


  27.   Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?
     A. A map that shows accurate land masses
     B. A map that shows true bearings and distances from a particular location
     C. A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator
     D. A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit


  28.   Which of the following describes a method of establishing EME contacts?
     A. Time synchronous transmissions alternately from each station
     B. Storing and forwarding digital messages
     C. Judging optimum transmission times by monitoring beacons reflected from the Moon
     D. High speed CW identification to avoid fading


  29.   How can a PACTOR modem or controller be used to determine if the channel is in use by other PACTOR stations?
     A. Unplug the data connector temporarily and see if the channel-busy indication is turned off
     B. Put the modem or controller in a mode which allows monitoring communications without a connection
     C. Transmit UI packets several times and wait to see if there is a response from another PACTOR station
     D. Send the message: "Is this frequency in use?"


  30.   What is the typical bandwidth of a properly modulated MFSK16 signal?
     A. 31 Hz
     B. 316 Hz
     C. 550 Hz
     D. 2.16 kHz


  31.   Tropospheric propagation of microwave signals often occurs along what weather related structure?
     A. Gray-line
     B. Lightning discharges
     C. Warm and cold fronts
     D. Sprites and jets


  32.   What is the solar flux index?
     A. A measure of the highest frequency that is useful for ionospheric propagation between two points on the Earth
     B. A count of sunspots which is adjusted for solar emissions
     C. Another name for the American sunspot number
     D. A measure of solar radiation at 10.7 centimeters wavelength


  33.   What type of wave carries radio signals between transmitting and receiving stations?
     A. Electromagnetic
     B. Electrostatic
     C. Surface acoustic
     D. Magnetostrictive


  34.   What is the formula for converting frequency to approximate wavelength in meters?
     A. Wavelength in meters equals frequency in hertz multiplied by 300
     B. Wavelength in meters equals frequency in hertz divided by 300
     C. Wavelength in meters equals frequency in megahertz divided by 300
     D. Wavelength in meters equals 300 divided by frequency in megahertz


  35.   What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the LUF?
     A. They are bent back to the Earth
     B. They pass through the ionosphere
     C. They are completely absorbed by the ionosphere
     D. They are bent and trapped in the ionosphere to circle the Earth


  36.   At what time of day is Sporadic-E propagation most likely to occur?
     A. Around sunset
     B. Around sunrise
     C. Early evening
     D. Any time


  37.   Which of the following might be happening when VHF signals are being received from long distances?
     A. Signals are being reflected from outer space
     B. Signals are arriving by sub-surface ducting
     C. Signals are being reflected by lightning storms in your area
     D. Signals are being refracted from a sporadic E layer


  38.   Which of the following signal paths is most likely to experience high levels of absorption when the A index or K index is elevated?
     A. Transequatorial propagation
     B. Polar paths
     C. Sporadic-E
     D. NVIS


  39.   What makes HF scatter signals often sound distorted?
     A. The ionospheric layer involved is unstable
     B. Ground waves are absorbing much of the signal
     C. The E-region is not present
     D. Energy is scattered into the skip zone through several different radio wave paths


  40.   What is the purpose of the "notch filter" found on many HF transceivers?
     A. To restrict the transmitter voice bandwidth
     B. To reduce interference from carriers in the receiver passband
     C. To eliminate receiver interference from impulse noise sources
     D. To enhance the reception of a specific frequency on a crowded band


  41.   Which type of conductor is best to use for RF grounding?
     A. Round stranded wire
     B. Round copper-clad steel wire
     C. Twisted-pair cable
     D. Flat strap


  42.   What is the purpose of the prescaler function on a frequency counter?
     A. It amplifies low level signals for more accurate counting
     B. It multiplies a higher frequency signal so a low-frequency counter can display the operating frequency
     C. It prevents oscillation in a low-frequency counter circuit
     D. It divides a higher frequency signal so a low-frequency counter can display the input frequency


  43.   What is the purpose of the squelch control on a transceiver?
     A. To set the highest level of volume desired
     B. To set the transmitter power level
     C. To adjust the automatic gain control
     D. To mute receiver output noise when no signal is being received


  44.   If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 0.1 ppm reads 146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the reading?
     A. 14.652 Hz
     B. 0.1 MHz
     C. 1.4652 Hz
     D. 1.4652 kHz


  45.   What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?
     A. The local oscillator of the transmitter
     B. An external RF oscillator
     C. The transmitter balanced mixer output
     D. The attenuated RF output of the transmitter


  46.   What sound is heard from an audio device or telephone if there is interference from a nearby single sideband phone transmitter?
     A. A steady hum whenever the transmitter is on the air
     B. On-and-off humming or clicking
     C. Distorted speech
     D. Clearly audible speech


  47.   A CW receiver with the AGC off has an equivalent input noise power density of -174 dBm/Hz. What would be the level of an unmodulated carrier input to this receiver that would yield an audio output SNR of 0 dB in a 400 Hz noise bandwidth?
     A. -174 dBm
     B. -164 dBm
     C. -155 dBm
     D. -148 dBm


  48.   What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz USB signal with the displayed carrier frequency set to 14.347 MHz?
     A. 14.347 to 14.647 MHz
     B. 14.347 to 14.350 MHz
     C. 14.344 to 14.347 MHz
     D. 14.3455 to 14.3485 MHz


  49.   Why are third-order intermodulation products created within a receiver of particular interest compared to other products?
     A. The third-order product of two signals which are in the band of interest is also likely to be within the band
     B. The third-order intercept is much higher than other orders
     C. Third-order products are an indication of poor image rejection
     D. Third-order intermodulation produces three products for every input signal within the band of interest


  50.   Which of the following is a disadvantage of using wind as the primary source of power for an emergency station?
     A. The conversion efficiency from mechanical energy to electrical energy is less than 2 percent
     B. The voltage and current ratings of such systems are not compatible with amateur equipment
     C. A large energy storage system is needed to supply power when the wind is not blowing
     D. All of these choices are correct


  51.   What might be the cause of a loud roaring or buzzing AC line interference that comes and goes at intervals?
     A. Arcing contacts in a thermostatically controlled device
     B. A defective doorbell or doorbell transformer inside a nearby residence
     C. A malfunctioning illuminated advertising display
     D. All of these choices are correct


  52.   What is the magnitude of the current at the input of a parallel RLC circuit at resonance?
     A. Minimum
     B. Maximum
     C. R/L
     D. L/R


  53.   Which of the following is a good electrical insulator?
     A. Copper
     B. Glass
     C. Aluminum
     D. Mercury


  54.   What unit is used to measure impedance?
     A. Volt
     B. Ohm
     C. Ampere
     D. Watt


  55.   What happens to the phase angle of a reactance when it is converted to a susceptance?
     A. It is unchanged
     B. The sign is reversed
     C. It is shifted by 90 degrees
     D. The susceptance phase angle is the inverse of the reactance phase angle


  56.   How many watts of electrical power are used if 400 VDC is supplied to an 800 ohm load?
     A. 0.5 watts
     B. 200 watts
     C. 400 watts
     D. 3200 watts


  57.   Which of the following is equivalent to 500 milliwatts?
     A. 0.02 watts
     B. 0.5 watts
     C. 5 watts
     D. 50 watts


  58.   What is the basic unit of capacitance?
     A. The farad
     B. The ohm
     C. The volt
     D. The henry


  59.   What is the RMS voltage across a 500-turn secondary winding in a transformer if the 2250-turn primary is connected to 120 VAC?
     A. 2370 volts
     B. 540 volts
     C. 26.7 volts
     D. 5.9 volts


  60.   What do the two numbers that are used to define a point on a graph using rectangular coordinates represent?
     A. The magnitude and phase of the point
     B. The sine and cosine values
     C. The coordinate values along the horizontal and vertical axes
     D. The tangent and cotangent values


  61.   Which parasitic characteristic increases with conductor length?
     A. Inductance
     B. Permeability
     C. Permittivity
     D. Malleability


  62.   What is the current flowing through a 100-ohm resistor connected across 200 volts?
     A. 20,000 amperes
     B. 0.5 amperes
     C. 2 amperes
     D. 100 amperes


  63.   What type of electrical component stores energy in a magnetic field?
     A. Resistor
     B. Capacitor
     C. Inductor
     D. Diode


  64.   Which of the following solid state devices is most like a vacuum tube in its general operating characteristics?
     A. A bipolar transistor
     B. A field effect transistor
     C. A tunnel diode
     D. A varistor


  65.   What are the majority charge carriers in N-type semiconductor material?
     A. Holes
     B. Free electrons
     C. Free protons
     D. Free neutrons


  66.   What class of electronic components is capable of using a voltage or current signal to control current flow?
     A. Capacitors
     B. Inductors
     C. Resistors
     D. Transistors


  67.   What is a common use for point contact diodes?
     A. As a constant current source
     B. As a constant voltage source
     C. As an RF detector
     D. As a high voltage rectifier


  68.   What is the general description of a DIN type connector?
     A. A special connector for microwave interfacing
     B. A DC power connector rated for currents between 30 and 50 amperes
     C. A family of multiple circuit connectors suitable for audio and control signals
     D. A special watertight connector for use in marine applications


  69.   What is component 3 in figure T1?
     A. Resistor
     B. Transistor
     C. Lamp
     D. Ground symbol


  70.   Which of the following is an advantage of BiCMOS logic?
     A. Its simplicity results in much less expensive devices than standard CMOS
     B. It is totally immune to electrostatic damage
     C. It has the high input impedance of CMOS and the low output impedance of bipolar transistors
     D. All of these choices are correct


  71.   What devices are commonly used as VHF and UHF parasitic suppressors at the input and output terminals of a transistor HF amplifier?
     A. Electrolytic capacitors
     B. Butterworth filters
     C. Ferrite beads
     D. Steel-core toroids


  72.   Which of the following is a common reason to use shielded wire?
     A. To decrease the resistance of DC power connections
     B. To increase the current carrying capability of the wire
     C. To prevent coupling of unwanted signals to or from the wire
     D. To couple the wire to other signals


  73.   Why are high-power RF amplifier ICs and transistors sometimes mounted in ceramic packages?
     A. High-voltage insulating ability
     B. Better dissipation of heat
     C. Enhanced sensitivity to light
     D. To provide a low-pass frequency response


  74.   What is the most common type of photovoltaic cell used for electrical power generation?
     A. Selenium
     B. Silicon
     C. Cadmium Sulfide
     D. Copper oxide


  75.   Which of the following is used to convert a radio signal from one frequency to another?
     A. Phase splitter
     B. Mixer
     C. Inverter
     D. Amplifier


  76.   What logical operation does a NAND gate perform?
     A. It produces logic "0" at its output only when all inputs are logic "0"
     B. It produces logic "1" at its output only when all inputs are logic "1"
     C. It produces logic "0" at its output if some but not all inputs are logic "1"
     D. It produces logic "0" at its output only when all inputs are logic "1"


  77.   Which of the following is an advantage of a switchmode power supply as compared to a linear power supply?
     A. Faster switching time makes higher output voltage possible
     B. Fewer circuit components are required
     C. High frequency operation allows the use of smaller components
     D. All of these choices are correct


  78.   Which of the following may be useful in correcting a radio frequency interference problem?
     A. Snap-on ferrite chokes
     B. Low-pass and high-pass filters
     C. Band-reject and band-pass filters
     D. All of these choices are correct


  79.   For which of the following modes is a Class C power stage appropriate for amplifying a modulated signal?
     A. SSB
     B. CW
     C. AM
     D. All of these choices are correct


  80.   In Figure E7-2, what is the purpose of R?
     A. Emitter load
     B. Fixed bias
     C. Collector load
     D. Voltage regulation


  81.   What is meant by the term "software defined radio" (SDR)?
     A. A radio in which most major signal processing functions are performed by software
     B. A radio that provides computer interface for automatic logging of band and frequency
     C. A radio that uses crystal filters designed using software
     D. A computer model that can simulate performance of a radio to aid in the design process


  82.   What is one advantage of a Pi-matching network over an L-matching network consisting of a single inductor and a single capacitor?
     A. The Q of Pi-networks can be varied depending on the component values chosen
     B. L-networks cannot perform impedance transformation
     C. Pi-networks have fewer components
     D. Pi-networks are designed for balanced input and output


  83.   What does a dummy load consist of?
     A. A high-gain amplifier and a TR switch
     B. A non-inductive resistor and a heat sink
     C. A low voltage power supply and a DC relay
     D. A 50 ohm reactance used to terminate a transmission line


  84.   Which instrument would you use to measure electric potential or electromotive force?
     A. An ammeter
     B. A voltmeter
     C. A wavemeter
     D. An ohmmeter


  85.   What is the equation for calculating power dissipation by a series connected linear voltage regulator?
     A. Input voltage multiplied by input current
     B. Input voltage divided by output current
     C. Voltage difference from input to output multiplied by output current
     D. Output voltage multiplied by output current


  86.   What circuit is added to an FM transmitter to boost the higher audio frequencies?
     A. A de-emphasis network
     B. A heterodyne suppressor
     C. An audio prescaler
     D. A pre-emphasis network


  87.   What kind of digital signal processing audio filter is used to remove unwanted noise from a received SSB signal?
     A. An adaptive filter
     B. A crystal-lattice filter
     C. A Hilbert-transform filter
     D. A phase-inverting filter


  88.   What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-4 when R1 is 3300 ohms and RF is 47 kilohms?
     A. 28
     B. 14
     C. 7
     D. 0.07


  89.   Which describes a microphonic?
     A. An IC used for amplifying microphone signals
     B. Distortion caused by RF pickup on the microphone cable
     C. Changes in oscillator frequency due to mechanical vibration
     D. Excess loading of the microphone by an oscillator


  90.   Which type of voice mode is most often used for long-distance (weak signal) contacts on the VHF and UHF bands?
     A. FM
     B. DRM
     C. SSB
     D. PM


  91.   What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage?
     A. Multiplex modulation
     B. Phase modulation
     C. Amplitude modulation
     D. Pulse modulation


  92.   How many levels can an analog-to-digital converter with 8 bit resolution encode?
     A. 8
     B. 8 multiplied by the gain of the input amplifier
     C. 256 divided by the gain of the input amplifier
     D. 256


  93.   What is a satellite beacon?
     A. The primary transmit antenna on the satellite
     B. An indicator light that that shows where to point your antenna
     C. A reflective surface on the satellite
     D. A transmission from a space station that contains information about a satellite


  94.   What describes Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing?
     A. A frequency modulation technique which uses non-harmonically related frequencies
     B. A bandwidth compression technique using Fourier transforms
     C. A digital mode for narrow band, slow speed transmissions
     D. A digital modulation technique using subcarriers at frequencies chosen to avoid intersymbol interference


  95.   Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?
     A. It is required by FCC rules
     B. It minimizes power consumption in the receiver
     C. It improves impedance matching of the antenna
     D. It results in the best signal to noise ratio


  96.   What popular operating activity involves contacting as many stations as possible during a specified period of time?
     A. Contesting
     B. Net operations
     C. Public service events
     D. Simulated emergency exercises


  97.   What is an advantage of Gray code in digital communications where symbols are transmitted as multiple bits
     A. It increases security
     B. It has more possible states than simple binary
     C. It has more resolution than simple binary
     D. It facilitates error detection


  98.   How are the two separate frequencies of a Frequency Shift Keyed (FSK) signal identified?
     A. Dot and Dash
     B. On and Off
     C. High and Low
     D. Mark and Space


  99.   What spread spectrum communications technique uses a high speed binary bit stream to shift the phase of an RF carrier?
     A. Frequency hopping
     B. Direct sequence
     C. Binary phase-shift keying
     D. Phase compandored spread spectrum


  100.   What code is used when sending CW in the amateur bands?
     A. Baudot
     B. Hamming
     C. International Morse
     D. Gray


  101.   What antenna has no gain in any direction?
     A. Quarter-wave vertical
     B. Yagi
     C. Half-wave dipole
     D. Isotropic antenna


  102.   What type of antennas are the quad, Yagi, and dish?
     A. Non-resonant antennas
     B. Loop antennas
     C. Directional antennas
     D. Isotropic antennas


  103.   What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having 25 ohm impedance?
     A. 2:1
     B. 2.5:1
     C. 1.25:1
     D. You cannot determine SWR from impedance values


  104.   What type of antenna pattern over real ground is shown in Figure E9-2?
     A. Elevation
     B. Azimuth
     C. Radiation resistance
     D. Polarization


  105.   How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole antenna change as the antenna is lowered below 1/4 wave above ground?
     A. It steadily increases
     B. It steadily decreases
     C. It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength above ground
     D. It is unaffected by the height above ground


  106.   What electrical difference exists between the smaller RG-58 and larger RG-8 coaxial cables?
     A. There is no significant difference between the two types
     B. RG-58 cable has less loss at a given frequency
     C. RG-8 cable has less loss at a given frequency
     D. RG-58 cable can handle higher power levels


  107.   What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4 wavelength vertical antennas spaced a 1/2 wavelength apart and fed in phase?
     A. Omni-directional
     B. Cardioid
     C. A Figure-8 broadside to the axis of the array
     D. A Figure-8 end-fire along the axis of the array


  108.   What happens when the feed point of a quad antenna of any shape is moved from the midpoint of the top or bottom to the midpoint of either side?
     A. The polarization of the radiated signal changes from horizontal to vertical
     B. The polarization of the radiated signal changes from vertical to horizontal
     C. There is no change in polarization
     D. The radiated signal becomes circularly polarized


  109.   Which of the following is an advantage of an NVIS antenna?
     A. Low vertical angle radiation for working stations out to ranges of several thousand kilometers
     B. High vertical angle radiation for working stations within a radius of a few hundred kilometers
     C. High forward gain
     D. All of these choices are correct


  110.   How can linearly polarized Yagi antennas be used to produce circular polarization?
     A. Stack two Yagis fed 90 degrees out of phase to form an array with the respective elements in parallel planes
     B. Stack two Yagis fed in phase to form an array with the respective elements in parallel planes
     C. Arrange two Yagis perpendicular to each other with the driven elements at the same point on the boom fed 90 degrees out of phase
     D. Arrange two Yagis collinear to each other with the driven elements fed 180 degrees out of phase


  111.   What is an effective way of matching a feed line to a VHF or UHF antenna when the impedances of both the antenna and feed line are unknown?
     A. Use a 50 ohm 1:1 balun between the antenna and feed line
     B. Use the universal stub matching technique
     C. Connect a series-resonant LC network across the antenna feed terminals
     D. Connect a parallel-resonant LC network across the antenna feed terminals


  112.   What is the approximate physical length of a solid polyethylene dielectric coaxial transmission line that is electrically one-quarter wavelength long at 7.2 MHz?
     A. 10 meters
     B. 6.9 meters
     C. 24 meters
     D. 50 meters


  113.   Which of the following is often determined using a Smith chart?
     A. Beam headings and radiation patterns
     B. Satellite azimuth and elevation bearings
     C. Impedance and SWR values in transmission lines
     D. Trigonometric functions


  114.   What is the function of a sense antenna?
     A. It modifies the pattern of a DF antenna array to provide a null in one direction
     B. It increases the sensitivity of a DF antenna array
     C. It allows DF antennas to receive signals at different vertical angles
     D. It provides diversity reception that cancels multipath signals


  115.   When evaluating a site with multiple transmitters operating at the same time, the operators and licensees of which transmitters are responsible for mitigating over-exposure situations?
     A. Only the most powerful transmitter
     B. Only commercial transmitters
     C. Each transmitter that produces 5 percent or more of its MPE limit at accessible locations
     D. Each transmitter operating with a duty-cycle greater than 50 percent


  116.   What effect does transmitter duty cycle have when evaluating RF exposure?
     A. A lower transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels
     B. A higher transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels
     C. Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements
     D. High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements


  117.   What safety equipment should always be included in home-built equipment that is powered from 120V AC power circuits?
     A. A fuse or circuit breaker in series with the AC hot conductor
     B. An AC voltmeter across the incoming power source
     C. An inductor in series with the AC power source
     D. A capacitor across the AC power source


  118.   Which of the following is an important safety rule to remember when using a crank-up tower?
     A. This type of tower must never be painted
     B. This type of tower must never be grounded
     C. This type of tower must never be climbed unless it is in the fully retracted position
     D. All of these choices are correct


  119.   Which of the following is true of an emergency generator installation?
     A. The generator should be located in a well-ventilated area
     B. The generator must be insulated from ground
     C. Fuel should be stored near the generator for rapid refueling in case of an emergency
     D. All of these choices are correct


  120.   How does RF radiation differ from ionizing radiation (radioactivity)?
     A. RF radiation does not have sufficient energy to cause genetic damage
     B. RF radiation can only be detected with an RF dosimeter
     C. RF radiation is limited in range to a few feet
     D. RF radiation is perfectly safe