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About Practice Exam -


  1.   Why are there separate electric (E) and magnetic (H) field MPE limits?
     A. The body reacts to electromagnetic radiation from both the E and H fields
     B. Ground reflections and scattering make the field impedance vary with location
     C. E field and H field radiation intensity peaks can occur at different locations
     D. All of these choices are correct

    E1A06     [97.303]

  2.   Which of the following describes the rules for operation on the 60 meter band?
     A. Working DX is not permitted
     B. Operation is restricted to specific emission types and specific channels
     C. Operation is restricted to LSB
     D. All of these choices are correct

    E1B01     [97.3]

  3.   Which of the following constitutes a spurious emission?
     A. An amateur station transmission made at random without the proper call sign identification
     B. A signal transmitted to prevent its detection by any station other than the intended recipient
     C. Any transmitted bogus signal that interferes with another licensed radio station
     D. An emission outside its necessary bandwidth that can be reduced or eliminated without affecting the information transmitted

    E1C04     [97.109]

  4.   When may an automatically controlled station retransmit third party communications?
     A. Never
     B. Only when transmitting RTTY or data emissions
     C. When specifically agreed upon by the sending and receiving stations
     D. When approved by the National Telecommunication and Information Administration

    E1D02     [97.3]

  5.   What is the amateur satellite service?
     A. A radio navigation service using satellites for the purpose of self training, intercommunication and technical studies carried out by amateurs
     B. A spacecraft launching service for amateur-built satellites
     C. A radio communications service using amateur radio stations on satellites
     D. A radio communications service using stations on Earth satellites for public service broadcast

    E1E05     [97.503]

  6.   What is the minimum passing score on amateur operator license examinations?
     A. Minimum passing score of 70%
     B. Minimum passing score of 74%
     C. Minimum passing score of 80%
     D. Minimum passing score of 77%

    E1F06     [97.3]

  7.   What is the National Radio Quiet Zone?
     A. An area in Puerto Rico surrounding the Aricebo Radio Telescope
     B. An area in New Mexico surrounding the White Sands Test Area
     C. An area surrounding the National Radio Astronomy Observatory
     D. An area in Florida surrounding Cape Canaveral


  8.   What type of satellite appears to stay in one position in the sky?
     A. HEO
     B. Geostationary
     C. Geomagnetic
     D. LEO


  9.   What special operating frequency restrictions are imposed on slow scan TV transmissions?
     A. None; they are allowed on all amateur frequencies
     B. They are restricted to 7.245 MHz, 14.245 MHz, 21.345, MHz, and 28.945 MHz
     C. They are restricted to phone band segments and their bandwidth can be no greater than that of a voice signal of the same modulation type
     D. They are not permitted above 54 MHz


  10.   Which of the following best describes the term "self-spotting" in regards to contest operating?
     A. The generally prohibited practice of posting one's own call sign and frequency on a call sign spotting network
     B. The acceptable practice of manually posting the call signs of stations on a call sign spotting network
     C. A manual technique for rapidly zero beating or tuning to a station's frequency before calling that station
     D. An automatic method for rapidly zero beating or tuning to a station's frequency before calling that station


  11.   Which of the following digital protocols is used by APRS?
     A. PACTOR
     B. 802.11
     C. AX.25
     D. AMTOR


  12.   Which of these digital communications modes has the narrowest bandwidth?
     A. MFSK16
     B. 170-Hz shift, 45 baud RTTY
     C. PSK31
     D. 300-baud packet


  13.   What frequency range would you normally tune to find EME signals in the 70 cm band?
     A. 430.000 - 430.150 MHz
     B. 430.100 - 431.100 MHz
     C. 431.100 - 431.200 MHz
     D. 432.000 - 432.100 MHz


  14.   What is the cause of gray-line propagation?
     A. At midday, the Sun being directly overhead superheats the ionosphere causing increased refraction of radio waves
     B. At twilight, D-layer absorption drops while E-layer and F-layer propagation remain strong
     C. In darkness, solar absorption drops greatly while atmospheric ionization remains steady
     D. At mid afternoon, the Sun heats the ionosphere decreasing radio wave refraction and the MUF


  15.   Which of the following is usually responsible for causing VHF signals to propagate for hundreds of miles?
     A. D-region absorption
     B. Faraday rotation
     C. Tropospheric ducting
     D. Ground wave


  16.   Which of the following test instruments is used to display spurious signals from a radio transmitter?
     A. A spectrum analyzer
     B. A wattmeter
     C. A logic analyzer
     D. A time-domain reflectometer


  17.   Which of the following is a characteristic of a good DC voltmeter?
     A. High reluctance input
     B. Low reluctance input
     C. High impedance input
     D. Low impedance input


  18.   What is the primary source of noise that can be heard from an HF receiver with an antenna connected?
     A. Detector noise
     B. Induction motor noise
     C. Receiver front-end noise
     D. Atmospheric noise


  19.   What is the term for unwanted signals generated by the mixing of two or more signals?
     A. Amplifier desensitization
     B. Neutralization
     C. Adjacent channel interference
     D. Intermodulation interference


  20.   How can noise from an electric motor be suppressed?
     A. By installing a high pass filter in series with the motor's power leads
     B. By installing a brute-force AC-line filter in series with the motor leads
     C. By installing a bypass capacitor in series with the motor leads
     D. By using a ground-fault current interrupter in the circuit used to power the motor


  21.   What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 14.25 MHz and a Q of 187?
     A. 38.1 kHz
     B. 76.2 kHz
     C. 1.332 kHz
     D. 2.665 kHz


  22.   What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 100 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 75 ohms?
     A. 14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
     B. 14 degrees with the voltage leading the current
     C. 76 degrees with the voltage leading the current
     D. 76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current


  23.   In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 100-ohm-reactance inductor in series with a 100-ohm resistor?
     A. 121 ohms at an angle of 35 degrees
     B. 141 ohms at an angle of 45 degrees
     C. 161 ohms at an angle of 55 degrees
     D. 181 ohms at an angle of 65 degrees


  24.   Why is the resistance of a conductor different for RF currents than for direct currents?
     A. Because the insulation conducts current at high frequencies
     B. Because of the Heisenburg Effect
     C. Because of skin effect
     D. Because conductors are non-linear devices


  25.   What are the majority charge carriers in P-type semiconductor material?
     A. Free neutrons
     B. Free protons
     C. Holes
     D. Free electrons


  26.   What type of semiconductor device is designed for use as a voltage-controlled capacitor?
     A. Varactor diode
     B. Tunnel diode
     C. Silicon-controlled rectifier
     D. Zener diode


  27.   Which of the following describes tri-state logic?
     A. Logic devices with 0, 1, and high impedance output states
     B. Logic devices that utilize ternary math
     C. Low power logic devices designed to operate at 3 volts
     D. Proprietary logic devices manufactured by Tri-State Devices


  28.   How many turns will be required to produce a 1-mH inductor using a ferrite toroidal core that has an inductance index (A L) value of 523 millihenrys/1000 turns?
     A. 2 turns
     B. 4 turns
     C. 43 turns
     D. 229 turns


  29.   What is the most common input and output impedance of circuits that use MMICs?
     A. 50 ohms
     B. 300 ohms
     C. 450 ohms
     D. 10 ohms


  30.   What absorbs the energy from light falling on a photovoltaic cell?
     A. Protons
     B. Photons
     C. Electrons
     D. Holes


  31.   What is an SR or RS flip-flop?
     A. A speed-reduced logic device with high power capability
     B. A set/reset flip-flop whose output is low when R is high and S is low, high when S is high and R is low, and unchanged when both inputs are low
     C. A speed-reduced logic device with very low voltage operation capability
     D. A set/reset flip-flop that toggles whenever the T input is pulsed, unless both inputs are high


  32.   What can be done to prevent unwanted oscillations in an RF power amplifier?
     A. Tune the stage for maximum SWR
     B. Tune both the input and output for maximum power
     C. Install parasitic suppressors and/or neutralize the stage
     D. Use a phase inverter in the output filter


  33.   Which filter type is described as having ripple in the passband and a sharp cutoff?
     A. A Butterworth filter
     B. An active LC filter
     C. A passive op-amp filter
     D. A Chebyshev filter


  34.   What is the purpose of D1 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?
     A. To provide line voltage stabilization
     B. To provide a voltage reference
     C. Peak clipping
     D. Hum filtering


  35.   What occurs when an excessive amount of signal energy reaches a mixer circuit?
     A. Spurious mixer products are generated
     B. Mixer blanking occurs
     C. Automatic limiting occurs
     D. A beat frequency is generated


  36.   What alternate method of determining frequency, other than by directly counting input pulses, is used by some counters?
     A. GPS averaging
     B. Period measurement plus mathematical computation
     C. Prescaling
     D. D/A conversion


  37.   Which of the following is a type of capacitor best suited for use in high-stability op-amp RC active filter circuits?
     A. Electrolytic
     B. Disc ceramic
     C. Polystyrene
     D. Paper


  38.   What is a magnetron oscillator?
     A. An oscillator in which the output is fed back to the input by the magnetic field of a transformer
     B. A crystal oscillator in which variable frequency is obtained by placing the crystal in a strong magnetic field
     C. A UHF or microwave oscillator consisting of a diode vacuum tube with a specially shaped anode, surrounded by an external magnet
     D. A reference standard oscillator in which the oscillations are synchronized by magnetic coupling to a rubidium gas tube


  39.   What would be the most accurate way of measuring the RMS voltage of a complex waveform?
     A. By using a grid dip meter
     B. By measuring the voltage with a D'Arsonval meter
     C. By using an absorption wavemeter
     D. By measuring the heating effect in a known resistor


  40.   How does the modulation index of a phase-modulated emission vary with RF carrier frequency (the modulated frequency)?
     A. It increases as the RF carrier frequency increases
     B. It decreases as the RF carrier frequency increases
     C. It varies with the square root of the RF carrier frequency
     D. It does not depend on the RF carrier frequency


  41.   What is one advantage of using the ASCII code for data communications?
     A. It includes built-in error-correction features
     B. It contains fewer information bits per character than any other code
     C. It is possible to transmit both upper and lower case text
     D. It uses one character as a shift code to send numeric and special characters


  42.   Which of the following best describes electromagnetic waves traveling in free space?
     A. Electric and magnetic fields become aligned as they travel
     B. The energy propagates through a medium with a high refractive index
     C. The waves are reflected by the ionosphere and return to their source
     D. Changing electric and magnetic fields propagate the energy


  43.   Which of the following factors determines ground losses for a ground-mounted vertical antenna operating in the 3-30 MHz range?
     A. The standing-wave ratio
     B. Distance from the transmitter
     C. Soil conductivity
     D. Take-off angle


  44.   In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the front-to-back ratio?
     A. 36 dB
     B. 18 dB
     C. 24 dB
     D. 14 dB


  45.   What type of antenna pattern over real ground is shown in Figure E9-2?
     A. Elevation
     B. Azimuth
     C. Radiation resistance
     D. Polarization


  46.   What is a disadvantage of using a multiband trapped antenna?
     A. It might radiate harmonics
     B. It radiates the harmonics and fundamental equally well
     C. It is too sharply directional at lower frequencies
     D. It must be neutralized


  47.   What system matches a high-impedance transmission line to a lower impedance antenna by connecting the line to the driven element in two places spaced a fraction of a wavelength each side of element center?
     A. The gamma matching system
     B. The delta matching system
     C. The omega matching system
     D. The stub matching system


  48.   What is the term for the ratio of the actual speed at which a signal travels through a transmission line to the speed of light in a vacuum?
     A. Velocity factor
     B. Characteristic impedance
     C. Surge impedance
     D. Standing wave ratio


  49.   How are the wavelength scales on a Smith chart calibrated?
     A. In fractions of transmission line electrical frequency
     B. In fractions of transmission line electrical wavelength
     C. In fractions of antenna electrical wavelength
     D. In fractions of antenna electrical frequency


  50.   What term describes station output, including the transmitter, antenna and everything in between, when considering transmitter power and system gains and losses?
     A. Power factor
     B. Half-power bandwidth
     C. Effective radiated power
     D. Apparent power

    G0A03     [97.13(c)(1)]

  51.   How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?
     A. By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65
     B. By calculation based on computer modeling
     C. By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment
     D. All of these choices are correct


  52.   Which of the following should be observed for safety when climbing on a tower using a safety belt or harness?
     A. Never lean back and rely on the belt alone to support your weight
     B. Always attach the belt safety hook to the belt D-ring with the hook opening away from the tower
     C. Ensure that all heavy tools are securely fastened to the belt D-ring
     D. Make sure that your belt is grounded at all times

    G1A14     [97.303]

  53.   Which of the following applies when the FCC rules designate the Amateur Service as a secondary user on a band?
     A. Amateur stations must record the call sign of the primary service station before operating on a frequency assigned to that station
     B. Amateur stations are allowed to use the band only during emergencies
     C. Amateur stations are allowed to use the band only if they do not cause harmful interference to primary users
     D. Amateur stations may only operate during specific hours of the day, while primary users are permitted 24 hour use of the band

    G1B03     [97.3(a)(9)]

  54.   Which of the following is a purpose of a beacon station as identified in the FCC Rules?
     A. Observation of propagation and reception
     B. Automatic identification of repeaters
     C. Transmission of bulletins of general interest to Amateur Radio licensees
     D. Identifying net frequencies

    G1C09     [97.305(c) and 97.307(f)(5)]

  55.   What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted on the 1.25 meter and 70 centimeter bands
     A. 56 kilobaud
     B. 19.6 kilobaud
     C. 1200 baud
     D. 300 baud

    G1D06     [97.119(f)(2)]

  56.   When must you add the special identifier "AG" after your call sign if you are a Technician Class licensee and have a CSCE for General Class operator privileges, but the FCC has not yet posted your upgrade on its Web site?
     A. Whenever you operate using General Class frequency privileges
     B. Whenever you operate on any amateur frequency
     C. Whenever you operate using Technician frequency privileges
     D. A special identifier is not required as long as your General Class license application has been filed with the FCC

    G1E04     [97.13(b),97.311(b),97.303]

  57.   Which of the following conditions require an Amateur Radio station licensee to take specific steps to avoid harmful interference to other users or facilities?
     A. When operating within one mile of an FCC Monitoring Station
     B. When using a band where the Amateur Service is secondary
     C. When a station is transmitting spread spectrum emissions
     D. All of these choices are correct


  58.   Which of the following modes is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160, 75, and 40 meter bands?
     A. Upper sideband
     B. Lower sideband
     C. Vestigial sideband
     D. Double sideband


  59.   When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what minimum frequency separation should you allow in order to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?
     A. 5 to 50 Hz
     B. 150 to 500 Hz
     C. 1 to 3 kHz
     D. 3 to 6 kHz


  60.   What does it mean when a CW operator sends "CL" at the end of a transmission?
     A. Keep frequency clear
     B. Operating full break-in
     C. Listening only for a specific station or stations
     D. Closing station


  61.   Which HF antenna would be the best to use for minimizing interference?
     A. A quarter-wave vertical antenna
     B. An isotropic antenna
     C. A unidirectional antenna
     D. An omnidirectional antenna


  62.   What is a major advantage of MFSK16 compared to other digital modes?
     A. It is much higher speed than RTTY
     B. It is much narrower bandwidth than most digital modes
     C. It has built-in error correction
     D. It offers good performance in weak signal environments without error correction


  63.   What does the A-index indicate?
     A. The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun
     B. The amount of polarization of the Sun's electric field
     C. The long term stability of the Earth's geomagnetic field
     D. The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado


  64.   What does MUF stand for?
     A. The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
     B. The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
     C. The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24 hour period
     D. The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24 hour period


  65.   Why is long distance communication on the 40, 60, 80 and 160 meter bands more difficult during the day?
     A. The F layer absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
     B. The F layer is unstable during daylight hours
     C. The D layer absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
     D. The E layer is unstable during daylight hours


  66.   What is a purpose of using Automatic Level Control (ALC) with a RF power amplifier?
     A. To balance the transmitter audio frequency response
     B. To reduce harmonic radiation
     C. To reduce distortion due to excessive drive
     D. To increase overall efficiency


  67.   Which of the following is an advantage of an oscilloscope versus a digital voltmeter?
     A. An oscilloscope uses less power
     B. Complex impedances can be easily measured
     C. Input impedance is much lower
     D. Complex waveforms can be measured


  68.   Which of the following can perform automatic notching of interfering carriers?
     A. Band-pass tuning
     B. A Digital Signal Processor (DSP) filter
     C. Balanced mixing
     D. A noise limiter


  69.   How does an S meter reading of 20 dB over S-9 compare to an S-9 signal, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?
     A. It is 10 times weaker
     B. It is 20 times weaker
     C. It is 20 times stronger
     D. It is 100 times stronger


  70.   Which of the following is the most likely to cause interfering signals to be heard in the receiver of an HF mobile installation in a recent model vehicle?
     A. The battery charging system
     B. The anti-lock braking system
     C. The anti-theft circuitry
     D. The vehicle control computer


  71.   Which of the following causes opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor?
     A. Conductance
     B. Reluctance
     C. Admittance
     D. Reactance


  72.   What percentage of power loss would result from a transmission line loss of 1 dB?
     A. 10.9%
     B. 12.2%
     C. 20.5%
     D. 25.9%


  73.   What is the total resistance of three 100-ohm resistors in parallel?
     A. .30 ohms
     B. .33 ohms
     C. 33.3 ohms
     D. 300 ohms


  74.   What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?
     A. Large values of inductance may be obtained
     B. The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies
     C. Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core
     D. All of these choices are correct


  75.   What is the minimum allowable discharge voltage for maximum life of a standard 12 volt lead acid battery?
     A. 6 volts
     B. 8.5 volts
     C. 10.5 volts
     D. 12 volts


  76.   Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?
     A. Low power consumption
     B. High power handling capability
     C. Better suited for RF amplification
     D. Better suited for power supply regulation


  77.   What is the peak-inverse-voltage across the rectifier in a half-wave power supply?
     A. One-half the normal peak output voltage of the power supply
     B. One-half the normal output voltage of the power supply
     C. Equal to the normal output voltage of the power supply
     D. Two times the normal peak output voltage of the power supply


  78.   How many states does a 3-bit binary counter have?
     A. 3
     B. 6
     C. 8
     D. 16


  79.   Which of the following is an advantage of a transceiver controlled by a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?
     A. Wide tuning range and no need for band switching
     B. Relatively high power output
     C. Relatively low power consumption
     D. Variable frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator


  80.   What signal(s) would be found at the output of a properly adjusted balanced modulator?
     A. Both upper and lower sidebands
     B. Either upper or lower sideband, but not both
     C. Both upper and lower sidebands and the carrier
     D. The modulating signal and the unmodulated carrier


  81.   What is another term for the mixing of two RF signals?
     A. Heterodyning
     B. Synthesizing
     C. Cancellation
     D. Phase inverting


  82.   What would be the SWR if you feed a vertical antenna that has a 25-ohm feed-point impedance with 50-ohm coaxial cable?
     A. 2:1
     B. 2.5:1
     C. 1.25:1
     D. You cannot determine SWR from impedance values


  83.   What is the approximate length for a 1/4-wave vertical antenna cut for 28.5 MHz?
     A. 8 feet
     B. 11 feet
     C. 16 feet
     D. 21 feet


  84.   How does the forward gain of a two-element quad antenna compare to the forward gain of a three-element Yagi antenna?
     A. About 2/3 as much
     B. About the same
     C. About 1.5 times as much
     D. About twice as much


  85.   Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband antennas?
     A. They present low impedance on all design frequencies
     B. They must be used with an antenna tuner
     C. They must be fed with open wire line
     D. They have poor harmonic rejection


  86.   What kind of hazard is presented by a conventional 12-volt storage battery?
     A. It emits ozone which can be harmful to the atmosphere
     B. Shock hazard due to high voltage
     C. Explosive gas can collect if not properly vented
     D. All of these choices are correct


  87.   What is the minimum safe distance from a power line to allow when installing an antenna?
     A. Half the width of your property
     B. The height of the power line above ground
     C. 1/2 wavelength at the operating frequency
     D. So that if the antenna falls unexpectedly, no part of it can come closer than 10 feet to the power wires


  88.   What is the maximum power level that an amateur radio station may use at VHF frequencies before an RF exposure evaluation is required?
     A. 1500 watts PEP transmitter output
     B. 1 watt forward power
     C. 50 watts PEP at the antenna
     D. 50 watts PEP reflected power

    T1A08     [97.3(a)(22)]

  89.   Which of the following entities recommends transmit/receive channels and other parameters for auxiliary and repeater stations?
     A. Frequency Spectrum Manager
     B. Frequency Coordinator
     C. FCC Regional Field Office
     D. International Telecommunications Union

    T1B13     [97.305(c)]

  90.   Which emission may be used between 219 and 220 MHz?
     A. Spread spectrum
     B. Data
     C. SSB voice
     D. Fast-scan television


  91.   Which of the following is a valid US amateur radio station call sign?
     A. KMA3505
     B. W3ABC
     C. KDKA
     D. 11Q1176

    T1D10     [97.3(a)(10)]

  92.   What is the meaning of the term "broadcasting" in the FCC rules for the amateur services?
     A. Two-way transmissions by amateur stations
     B. Transmission of music
     C. Transmission of messages directed only to amateur operators
     D. Transmissions intended for reception by the general public

    T1E01     [97.7(a)]

  93.   When is an amateur station permitted to transmit without a control operator?
     A. When using automatic control, such as in the case of a repeater
     B. When the station licensee is away and another licensed amateur is using the station
     C. When the transmitting station is an auxiliary station
     D. Never

    T1F02     [97.119 (a)]

  94.   When using tactical identifiers such as "Race Headquarters" during a community service net operation, how often must your station transmit the station's FCC-assigned call sign?
     A. Never, the tactical call is sufficient
     B. Once during every hour
     C. At the end of each communication and every ten minutes during a communication
     D. At the end of every transmission


  95.   How should you respond to a station calling CQ?
     A. Transmit CQ followed by the other station's call sign
     B. Transmit your call sign followed by the other station's call sign
     C. Transmit the other station's call sign followed by your call sign
     D. Transmit a signal report followed by your call sign


  96.   Which of the following is true of the use of SSB phone in amateur bands above 50 MHz?
     A. It is permitted only by holders of a General Class or higher license
     B. It is permitted only on repeaters
     C. It is permitted in at least some portion of all the amateur bands above 50 MHz
     D. It is permitted only on when power is limited to no more than 100 watts


  97.   Are amateur station control operators ever permitted to operate outside the frequency privileges of their license class?
     A. No
     B. Yes, but only when part of a FEMA emergency plan
     C. Yes, but only when part of a RACES emergency plan
     D. Yes, but only if necessary in situations involving the immediate safety of human life or protection of property


  98.   What term is commonly used to describe the rapid fluttering sound sometimes heard from mobile stations that are moving while transmitting?
     A. Flip-flopping
     B. Picket fencing
     C. Frequency shifting
     D. Pulsing


  99.   What frequency range is referred to as HF?
     A. 300 to 3000 MHz
     B. 30 to 300 MHz
     C. 3 to 30 MHz
     D. 300 to 3000 kHz


  100.   What causes tropospheric ducting?
     A. Discharges of lightning during electrical storms
     B. Sunspots and solar flares
     C. Updrafts from hurricanes and tornadoes
     D. Temperature inversions in the atmosphere


  101.   Which of the following would be connected between a transceiver and computer in a packet radio station?
     A. Transmatch
     B. Mixer
     C. Terminal node controller
     D. Antenna


  102.   Which of the following would reduce ignition interference to a receiver?
     A. Change frequency slightly
     B. Decrease the squelch setting
     C. Turn on the noise blanker
     D. Use the RIT control


  103.   Electrical power is measured in which of the following units?
     A. Volts
     B. Watts
     C. Ohms
     D. Amperes


  104.   If an ammeter calibrated in amperes is used to measure a 3000-milliampere current, what reading would it show?
     A. 0.003 amperes
     B. 0.3 amperes
     C. 3 amperes
     D. 3,000,000 amperes


  105.   What is meant by the term impedance?
     A. It is a measure of the opposition to AC current flow in a circuit
     B. It is the inverse of resistance
     C. It is a measure of the Q or Quality Factor of a component
     D. It is a measure of the power handling capability of a component


  106.   What is the current flowing through a 100-ohm resistor connected across 200 volts?
     A. 20,000 amperes
     B. 0.5 amperes
     C. 2 amperes
     D. 100 amperes


  107.   What type of electrical component stores energy in a magnetic field?
     A. Resistor
     B. Capacitor
     C. Inductor
     D. Diode


  108.   What are the three electrodes of a PNP or NPN transistor?
     A. Emitter, base, and collector
     B. Source, gate, and drain
     C. Cathode, grid, and plate
     D. Cathode, drift cavity, and collector


  109.   What is component 4 in figure T2?
     A. Variable inductor
     B. Double-pole switch
     C. Potentiometer
     D. Transformer


  110.   Which of the following devices or circuits changes an alternating current into a varying direct current signal?
     A. Transformer
     B. Rectifier
     C. Amplifier
     D. Reflector


  111.   Which of the following describes combining speech with an RF carrier signal?-
     A. Impedance matching
     B. Oscillation
     C. Modulation
     D. Low-pass filtering


  112.   What is a Part 15 device?
     A. An unlicensed device that may emit low powered radio signals on frequencies used by a licensed service
     B. A type of amateur radio that can legally be used in the citizen's band
     C. A device for long distance communications using special codes sanctioned by the International Amateur Radio Union
     D. A type of test set used to determine whether a transmitter is in compliance with FCC regulation 91.15


  113.   What is the approximate SWR value above which the protection circuits in most solid-state transmitters begin to reduce transmitter power?
     A. 2 to 1
     B. 1 to 2
     C. 6 to 1
     D. 10 to 1


  114.   Which instrument would you use to measure electric potential or electromotive force?
     A. An ammeter
     B. A voltmeter
     C. A wavemeter
     D. An ohmmeter


  115.   What type of modulation is most commonly used for VHF packet radio transmissions?
     A. FM
     B. SSB
     C. AM
     D. Spread Spectrum


  116.   What do the initials LEO tell you about an amateur satellite?
     A. The satellite battery is in Low Energy Operation mode
     B. The satellite is performing a Lunar Ejection Orbit maneuver
     C. The satellite is in a Low Earth Orbit
     D. The satellite uses Light Emitting Optics


  117.   What is the Internet Radio Linking Project (IRLP)?
     A. A technique to connect amateur radio systems, such as repeaters, via the Internet using Voice Over Internet Protocol
     B. A system for providing access to websites via amateur radio
     C. A system for informing amateurs in real time of the frequency of active DX stations
     D. A technique for measuring signal strength of an amateur transmitter via the Internet


  118.   Which of the following is an application of APRS (Automatic Packet Reporting System)?
     A. Providing real time tactical digital communications in conjunction with a map showing the locations of stations
     B. Showing automatically the number of packets transmitted via PACTOR during a specific time interval
     C. Providing voice over Internet connection between repeaters
     D. Providing information on the number of stations signed into a repeater


  119.   Which of the following describes a simple dipole mounted so the conductor is parallel to the Earth's surface?
     A. A ground wave antenna
     B. A horizontally polarized antenna
     C. A rhombic antenna
     D. A vertically polarized antenna


  120.   Why is it important to have a low SWR in an antenna system that uses coaxial cable feed line?
     A. To reduce television interference
     B. To allow the efficient transfer of power and reduce losses
     C. To prolong antenna life
     D. All of these choices are correct