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About Practice Exam -

    G1A04     [97.303 (h)]

  1.   Which of the following amateur bands is restricted to communication on only specific channels, rather than frequency ranges?
     A. 11 meters
     B. 12 meters
     C. 30 meters
     D. 60 meters

    E1A09     [97.219]

  2.   What is the first action you should take if your digital message forwarding station inadvertently forwards a communication that violates FCC rules?
     A. Discontinue forwarding the communication as soon as you become aware of it
     B. Notify the originating station that the communication does not comply with FCC rules
     C. Notify the nearest FCC Field Engineer's office
     D. Discontinue forwarding all messages

    T1A13     [97.3(a)(45)]

  3.   What is the FCC Part 97 definition of telecommand?
     A. An instruction bulletin issued by the FCC
     B. A one-way radio transmission of measurements at a distance from the measuring instrument
     C. A one-way transmission to initiate, modify or terminate functions of a device at a distance
     D. An instruction from a VEC

    G1B06     [97.113(a)(4) and 97.207(f)]

  4.   When is an amateur station permitted to transmit secret codes?
     A. During a declared communications emergency
     B. To control a space station
     C. Only when the information is of a routine, personal nature
     D. Only with Special Temporary Authorization from the FCC

    E1B07     [97.307]

  5.   What is the highest modulation index permitted at the highest modulation frequency for angle modulation below 29.0 MHz?
     A. 0.5
     B. 1.0
     C. 2.0
     D. 3.0

    T1B13     [97.305(c)]

  6.   Which emission may be used between 219 and 220 MHz?
     A. Spread spectrum
     B. Data
     C. SSB voice
     D. Fast-scan television

    G1C02     [97.313(a),(b)]

  7.   What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?
     A. 50 watts PEP output
     B. 200 watts PEP output
     C. 1500 watts PEP output
     D. An effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole


  8.   Which of the following is required in order to operate in accordance with CEPT rules in foreign countries where permitted?
     A. You must identify in the official language of the country in which you are operating
     B. The U.S. embassy must approve of your operation
     C. You must bring a copy of FCC Public Notice DA 11-221
     D. You must append "/CEPT" to your call sign

    T1C13     [97.9(a), 97.17(a)]

  9.   For which licenses classes are new licenses currently available from the FCC?
     A. Novice, Technician, General, Advanced
     B. Technician, Technician Plus, General, Advanced
     C. Novice, Technician Plus, General, Advanced
     D. Technician, General, Amateur Extra

    E1D03     [97.3]

  10.   What is a telecommand station in the amateur satellite service?
     A. An amateur station located on the Earth's surface for communication with other Earth stations by means of Earth satellites
     B. An amateur station that transmits communications to initiate, modify or terminate functions of a space station
     C. An amateur station located more than 50 km above the Earth's surface
     D. An amateur station that transmits telemetry consisting of measurements of upper atmosphere

    G1D06     [97.119(f)(2)]

  11.   When must you add the special identifier "AG" after your call sign if you are a Technician Class licensee and have a CSCE for General Class operator privileges, but the FCC has not yet posted your upgrade on its website ?
     A. Whenever you operate using General Class frequency privileges
     B. Whenever you operate on any amateur frequency
     C. Whenever you operate using Technician frequency privileges
     D. A special identifier is not required as long as your General Class license application has been filed with the FCC

    T1D11     [97.119(a)]

  12.   When may an amateur station transmit without identifying?
     A. When the transmissions are of a brief nature to make station adjustments
     B. When the transmissions are unmodulated
     C. When the transmitted power level is below 1 watt
     D. When transmitting signals to control a model craft

    G1E01     [97.115(b)(2)]

  13.   Which of the following would disqualify a third party from participating in stating a message over an amateur station?
     A. The third party‚Äôs amateur license has been revoked and not reinstated
     B. The third party is not a U.S. citizen
     C. The third party is a licensed amateur
     D. The third party is speaking in a language other than English

    E1E03     [97.521]

  14.   What is a Volunteer Examiner Coordinator?
     A. A person who has volunteered to administer amateur operator license examinations
     B. A person who has volunteered to prepare amateur operator license examinations
     C. An organization that has entered into an agreement with the FCC to coordinate amateur operator license examinations
     D. The person who has entered into an agreement with the FCC to be the VE session manager

    T1E07     [97.103(a)]

  15.   When the control operator is not the station licensee, who is responsible for the proper operation of the station?
     A. All licensed amateurs who are present at the operation
     B. Only the station licensee
     C. Only the control operator
     D. The control operator and the station licensee are equally responsible

    E1F09     [97.311]

  16.   Which of the following conditions apply when transmitting spread spectrum emission?
     A. A station transmitting SS emission must not cause harmful interference to other stations employing other authorized emissions
     B. The transmitting station must be in an area regulated by the FCC or in a country that permits SS emissions
     C. The transmission must not be used to obscure the meaning of any communication
     D. All of these choices are correct

    T1F11     [97.115(a)]

  17.   To which foreign stations do the FCC rules authorize the transmission of non-emergency third party communications?
     A. Any station whose government permits such communications
     B. Those in ITU Region 2 only
     C. Those in ITU Regions 2 and 3 only
     D. Those in ITU Region 3 only


  18.   Which sideband is most commonly used for voice communications on frequencies of 14 MHz or higher?
     A. Upper sideband
     B. Lower sideband
     C. Vestigial sideband
     D. Double sideband

    T2A11     [97.313(a)]

  19.   Which of the following is an FCC rule regarding power levels used in the amateur bands, under normal, non-distress circumstances?
     A. There is no limit to power as long as there is no interference with other services
     B. No more than 200 watts PEP may be used
     C. Up to 1500 watts PEP may be used on any amateur frequency without restriction
     D. While not exceeding the maximum power permitted on a given band, use the minimum power necessary to carry out the desired communication


  20.   What type of satellite appears to stay in one position in the sky?
     A. HEO
     B. Geostationary
     C. Geomagnetic
     D. LEO

    G2B09     [97.407(a)]

  21.   Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?
     A. Only a person holding an FCC issued amateur operator license
     B. Only a RACES net control operator
     C. A person holding an FCC issued amateur operator license or an appropriate government official
     D. Any control operator when normal communication systems are operational


  22.   Which Q signal indicates that you are changing frequency?
     A. QRU
     B. QSY
     C. QSL
     D. QRZ


  23.   How many lines are commonly used in each frame of an amateur slow-scan color television picture?
     A. 30 or 60
     B. 60 or 100
     C. 128 or 256
     D. 180 or 360


  24.   What does the Q signal "QRL?" mean?
     A. "Will you keep the frequency clear?"
     B. "Are you operating full break-in" or "Can you operate full break-in?"
     C. "Are you listening only for a specific station?"
     D. "Are you busy?", or "Is this frequency in use?"


  25.   Which of the following is a characteristic of good emergency traffic handling?
     A. Passing messages exactly as received
     B. Making decisions as to whether or not messages should be relayed or delivered
     C. Communicating messages to the news media for broadcast outside the disaster area
     D. All of these choices are correct


  26.   What indicator is required to be used by U.S.-licensed operators when operating a station via remote control where the transmitter is located in the U.S.?
     A. / followed by the USPS two letter abbreviation for the state in which the remote station is located
     B. /R# where # is the district of the remote station
     C. The ARRL section of the remote station
     D. No additional indicator is required


  27.   What information is traditionally contained in a station log?
     A. Date and time of contact
     B. Band and/or frequency of the contact
     C. Call sign of station contacted and the signal report given
     D. All of these choices are correct


  28.   How can an APRS station be used to help support a public service communications activity?
     A. An APRS station with an emergency medical technician can automatically transmit medical data to the nearest hospital
     B. APRS stations with General Personnel Scanners can automatically relay the participant numbers and time as they pass the check points
     C. An APRS station with a GPS unit can automatically transmit information to show a mobile station's position during the event
     D. All of these choices are correct


  29.   What is the standard sideband used to generate a JT65 or JT9 digital signal when using AFSK in any amateur band?
     A. LSB
     B. USB
     C. DSB
     D. SSB


  30.   Which type of control is used by stations using the Automatic Link Enable (ALE) protocol?
     A. Local
     B. Remote
     C. Automatic
     D. ALE can use any type of control


  31.   What characterizes libration fading of an EME signal?
     A. A slow change in the pitch of the CW signal
     B. A fluttery irregular fading
     C. A gradual loss of signal as the Sun rises
     D. The returning echo is several Hertz lower in frequency than the transmitted signal


  32.   What antenna polarization is normally used for long-distance weak-signal CW and SSB contacts using the VHF and UHF bands?
     A. Right-hand circular
     B. Left-hand circular
     C. Horizontal
     D. Vertical


  33.   At what point in the solar cycle does the 20-meter band usually support worldwide propagation during daylight hours?
     A. At the summer solstice
     B. Only at the maximum point of the solar cycle
     C. Only at the minimum point of the solar cycle
     D. At any point in the solar cycle


  34.   What property of a radio wave is used to describe its polarization?
     A. The orientation of the electric field
     B. The orientation of the magnetic field
     C. The ratio of the energy in the magnetic field to the energy in the electric field
     D. The ratio of the velocity to the wavelength


  35.   What is a reliable way to determine if the MUF is high enough to support skip propagation between your station and a distant location on frequencies between 14 and 30 MHz?
     A. Listen for signals from an international beacon in the frequency range you plan to use
     B. Send a series of dots on the band and listen for echoes from your signal
     C. Check the strength of TV signals from Western Europe
     D. Check the strength of signals in the MF AM broadcast band


  36.   What is the cause of gray-line propagation?
     A. At midday, the Sun super heats the ionosphere causing increased refraction of radio waves
     B. At twilight and sunrise, D-layer absorption is low while E-layer and F-layer propagation remains high
     C. In darkness, solar absorption drops greatly while atmospheric ionization remains steady
     D. At mid-afternoon, the Sun heats the ionosphere decreasing radio wave refraction and the MUF


  37.   What does the value of Bz (B sub Z) represent?
     A. Geomagnetic field stability
     B. Critical frequency for vertical transmissions
     C. Direction and strength of the interplanetary magnetic field
     D. Duration of long-delayed echoes


  38.   What makes HF scatter signals often sound distorted?
     A. The ionospheric layer involved is unstable
     B. Ground waves are absorbing much of the signal
     C. The E-region is not present
     D. Energy is scattered into the skip zone through several different radio wave paths


  39.   Which of the following bands may provide long distance communications during the peak of the sunspot cycle?
     A. Six or ten meters
     B. 23 centimeters
     C. 70 centimeters or 1.25 meters
     D. All of these choices are correct


  40.   How might a computer be used as part of an amateur radio station?
     A. For logging contacts and contact information
     B. For sending and/or receiving CW
     C. For generating and decoding digital signals
     D. All of these choices are correct


  41.   Which of the following test instrument is used to display spurious signals and/or intermodulation distortion products in an SSB transmitter?
     A. A wattmeter
     B. A spectrum analyzer
     C. A logic analyzer
     D. A time-domain reflectometer


  42.   Why is a time delay sometimes included in a transmitter keying circuit?
     A. To prevent stations from interfering with one another
     B. To allow the transmitter power regulators to charge properly
     C. To allow time for transmit-receive changeover operations to complete properly before RF output is allowed
     D. To allow time for a warning signal to be sent to other stations


  43.   If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 1.0 ppm reads 146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the reading?
     A. 165.2 Hz
     B. 14.652 kHz
     C. 146.52 Hz
     D. 1.4652 MHz


  44.   Which of the following is an appropriate receive filter bandwidth to select in order to minimize noise and interference for CW reception?
     A. 500 Hz
     B. 1000 Hz
     C. 2400 Hz
     D. 5000 Hz


  45.   What is an instance in which the use of an instrument with analog readout may be preferred over an instrument with a digital readout?
     A. When testing logic circuits
     B. When high precision is desired
     C. When measuring the frequency of an oscillator
     D. When adjusting tuned circuits


  46.   Which of the following might be useful in reducing RF interference to audio frequency devices?
     A. Bypass inductor
     B. Bypass capacitor
     C. Forward-biased diode
     D. Reverse-biased diode


  47.   What transmit frequency might generate an image response signal in a receiver tuned to 14.300 MHz and which uses a 455 kHz IF frequency?
     A. 13.845 MHz
     B. 14.755 MHz
     C. 14.445 MHz
     D. 15.210 MHz


  48.   What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz LSB signal when the displayed carrier frequency is set to 7.178 MHz?
     A. 7.178 to 7.181 MHz
     B. 7.178 to 7.184 MHz
     C. 7.175 to 7.178 MHz
     D. 7.1765 to 7.1795 MHz


  49.   Which of the following is a way to reduce the likelihood of receiver desensitization?
     A. Decrease the RF bandwidth of the receiver
     B. Raise the receiver IF frequency
     C. Increase the receiver front end gain
     D. Switch from fast AGC to slow AGC


  50.   How can noise from an electric motor be suppressed?
     A. By installing a high pass filter in series with the motor's power leads
     B. By installing a brute-force AC-line filter in series with the motor leads
     C. By installing a bypass capacitor in series with the motor leads
     D. By using a ground-fault current interrupter in the circuit used to power the motor


  51.   Which of the following may cause interference to be heard in the receiver of an HF radio installed in a recent model vehicle?
     A. The battery charging system
     B. The fuel delivery system
     C. The vehicle control computer
     D. All of these choices are correct


  52.   How does a capacitor react to AC?
     A. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
     B. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
     C. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
     D. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases


  53.   What is the name for a current that reverses direction on a regular basis?
     A. Alternating current
     B. Direct current
     C. Circular current
     D. Vertical current


  54.   How is the Q of an RLC series resonant circuit calculated?
     A. Reactance of either the inductance or capacitance divided by the resistance
     B. Reactance of either the inductance or capacitance times the resistance
     C. Resistance divided by the reactance of either the inductance or capacitance
     D. Reactance of the inductance times the reactance of the capacitance


  55.   How many watts of electrical power are used if 400 VDC is supplied to an 800 ohm load?
     A. 0.5 watts
     B. 200 watts
     C. 400 watts
     D. 3200 watts


  56.   Which of the following is equivalent to 500 milliwatts?
     A. 0.02 watts
     B. 0.5 watts
     C. 5 watts
     D. 50 watts


  57.   What is the relationship between the current through an inductor and the voltage across an inductor?
     A. Voltage leads current by 90 degrees
     B. Current leads voltage by 90 degrees
     C. Voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
     D. Voltage and current are in phase


  58.   What is the basic unit of inductance?
     A. The coulomb
     B. The farad
     C. The henry
     D. The ohm


  59.   What is a vector?
     A. The value of a quantity that changes over time
     B. A quantity with both magnitude and an angular component
     C. The inverse of the tangent function
     D. The inverse of the sine function


  60.   Which of the following components should be added to an inductor to increase the inductance?
     A. A capacitor in series
     B. A resistor in parallel
     C. An inductor in parallel
     D. An inductor in series


  61.   Why are short connections necessary at microwave frequencies?
     A. To increase neutralizing resistance
     B. To reduce phase shift along the connection
     C. Because of ground reflections
     D. To reduce noise figure


  62.   What is the resistance in a circuit for which the applied voltage is 12 volts and the current flow is 1.5 amperes?
     A. 18 ohms
     B. 0.125 ohms
     C. 8 ohms
     D. 13.5 ohms


  63.   What type of component is often used as an adjustable volume control?
     A. Fixed resistor
     B. Power resistor
     C. Potentiometer
     D. Transformer


  64.   Which of the following solid state devices is most like a vacuum tube in its general operating characteristics?
     A. A bipolar transistor
     B. A field effect transistor
     C. A tunnel diode
     D. A varistor


  65.   What do the initials CMOS stand for?
     A. Common Mode Oscillating System
     B. Complementary Mica-Oxide Silicon
     C. Complementary Metal-Oxide Semiconductor
     D. Common Mode Organic Silicon


  66.   What type of semiconductor device is designed for use as a voltage-controlled capacitor?
     A. Varactor diode
     B. Tunnel diode
     C. Silicon-controlled rectifier
     D. Zener diode


  67.   What at are the three electrodes of a field effect transistor?
     A. Emitter, base, and collector
     B. Source, gate, and drain
     C. Cathode, grid, and plate
     D. Cathode, gate, and anode


  68.   Which of the following describes a type N connector?
     A. A moisture-resistant RF connector useful to 10 GHz
     B. A small bayonet connector used for data circuits
     C. A threaded connector used for hydraulic systems
     D. An audio connector used in surround-sound installations


  69.   What is component 4 in figure T2?
     A. Variable inductor
     B. Double-pole switch
     C. Potentiometer
     D. Transformer


  70.   In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for the NOT operation (inverter)?
     A. 2
     B. 4
     C. 5
     D. 6


  71.   What is the function of component 2 in Figure T1?
     A. Give off light when current flows through it
     B. Supply electrical energy
     C. Control the flow of current
     D. Convert electrical energy into radio waves


  72.   What is a primary advantage of using a toroidal core instead of a solenoidal core in an inductor?
     A. Toroidal cores confine most of the magnetic field within the core material
     B. Toroidal cores make it easier to couple the magnetic energy into other components
     C. Toroidal cores exhibit greater hysteresis
     D. Toroidal cores have lower Q characteristics


  73.   Which of the following noise figure values is typical of a low-noise UHF preamplifier?
     A. 2 dB
     B. -10 dB
     C. 44 dBm
     D. -20 dBm


  74.   What is a liquid crystal display (LCD)?
     A. A modern replacement for a quartz crystal oscillator which displays its fundamental frequency
     B. A display utilizing a crystalline liquid and polarizing filters which becomes opaque when voltage is applied
     C. A frequency-determining unit for a transmitter or receiver
     D. A display that uses a glowing liquid to remain brightly lit in dim light


  75.   Which term describes the ability of a receiver to detect the presence of a signal?
     C. Selectivity
     D. Total Harmonic Distortion


  76.   What is the peak-inverse-voltage across the rectifier in a half-wave power supply?
     A. One-half the normal peak output voltage of the power supply
     B. One-half the normal output voltage of the power supply
     C. Equal to the normal output voltage of the power supply
     D. Two times the normal peak output voltage of the power supply


  77.   What logical operation does a NAND gate perform?
     A. It produces logic "0" at its output only when all inputs are logic "0"
     B. It produces logic "1" at its output only when all inputs are logic "1"
     C. It produces logic "0" at its output if some but not all inputs are logic "1"
     D. It produces logic "0" at its output only when all inputs are logic "1"


  78.   What can you do if you are told your FM handheld or mobile transceiver is over-deviating?
     A. Talk louder into the microphone
     B. Let the transceiver cool off
     C. Change to a higher power level
     D. Talk farther away from the microphone


  79.   Which of the following describes how the loading and tuning capacitors are to be adjusted when tuning a vacuum tube RF power amplifier that employs a Pi-network output circuit?
     A. The loading capacitor is set to maximum capacitance and the tuning capacitor is adjusted for minimum allowable plate current
     B. The tuning capacitor is set to maximum capacitance and the loading capacitor is adjusted for minimum plate permissible current
     C. The loading capacitor is adjusted to minimum plate current while alternately adjusting the tuning capacitor for maximum allowable plate current
     D. The tuning capacitor is adjusted for minimum plate current, and the loading capacitor is adjusted for maximum permissible plate current


  80.   Which of the following describes a linear amplifier?
     A. Any RF power amplifier used in conjunction with an amateur transceiver
     B. An amplifier in which the output preserves the input waveform
     C. A Class C high efficiency amplifier
     D. An amplifier used as a frequency multiplier


  81.   Which circuit is used to combine signals from the carrier oscillator and speech amplifier then send the result to the filter in some single sideband phone transmitters?
     A. Discriminator
     B. Detector
     C. IF amplifier
     D. Balanced modulator


  82.   Which of the following is a property of a T-network with series capacitors and a parallel shunt inductor?
     A. It is a low-pass filter
     B. It is a band-pass filter
     C. It is a high-pass filter
     D. It is a notch filter


  83.   What does a dummy load consist of?
     A. A high-gain amplifier and a TR switch
     B. A non-inductive resistor and a heat sink
     C. A low voltage power supply and a DC relay
     D. A 50 ohm reactance used to terminate a transmission line


  84.   Which of the following types of linear voltage regulator places a constant load on the unregulated voltage source?
     A. A constant current source
     B. A series regulator
     C. A shunt current source
     D. A shunt regulator


  85.   What instrument is used to measure resistance?
     A. An oscilloscope
     B. A spectrum analyzer
     C. A noise bridge
     D. An ohmmeter


  86.   How does a diode detector function?
     A. By rectification and filtering of RF signals
     B. By breakdown of the Zener voltage
     C. By mixing signals with noise in the transition region of the diode
     D. By sensing the change of reactance in the diode with respect to frequency


  87.   What type of digital signal processing filter is used to generate an SSB signal?
     A. An adaptive filter
     B. A notch filter
     C. A Hilbert-transform filter
     D. An elliptical filter


  88.   What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-4 when R1 is 3300 ohms and RF is 47 kilohms?
     A. 28
     B. 14
     C. 7
     D. 0.07


  89.   How can an oscillator's microphonic responses be reduced?
     A. Use of NP0 capacitors
     B. Eliminating noise on the oscillator's power supply
     C. Using the oscillator only for CW and digital signals
     D. Mechanically isolating the oscillator circuitry from its enclosure


  90.   What would be the most accurate way of measuring the RMS voltage of a complex waveform?
     A. By using a grid dip meter
     B. By measuring the voltage with a D'Arsonval meter
     C. By using an absorption wave meter
     D. By measuring the heating effect in a known resistor


  91.   What type of modulation varies the instantaneous power level of the RF signal?
     A. Frequency shift keying
     B. Phase modulation
     C. Frequency modulation
     D. Amplitude modulation


  92.   What is the primary advantage of single sideband over FM for voice transmissions?
     A. SSB signals are easier to tune
     B. SSB signals are less susceptible to interference
     C. SSB signals have narrower bandwidth
     D. All of these choices are correct


  93.   What receiver stage combines a 14.250 MHz input signal with a 13.795 MHz oscillator signal to produce a 455 kHz intermediate frequency (IF) signal?
     A. Mixer
     B. BFO
     C. VFO
     D. Discriminator


  94.   What is meant by the statement that a satellite is operating in mode U/V?
     A. The satellite uplink is in the 15 meter band and the downlink is in the 10 meter band
     B. The satellite uplink is in the 70 cm band and the downlink is in the 2 meter band
     C. The satellite operates using ultraviolet frequencies
     D. The satellite frequencies are usually variable


  95.   What is digital time division multiplexing?
     A. Two or more data streams are assigned to discrete sub-carriers on an FM transmitter
     B. Two or more signals are arranged to share discrete time slots of a data transmission
     C. Two or more data streams share the same channel by transmitting time of transmission as the sub-carrier
     D. Two or more signals are quadrature modulated to increase bandwidth efficiency


  96.   How many data bits are sent in a single PSK31 character?
     A. The number varies
     B. 5
     C. 7
     D. 8


  97.   What technique is used to minimize the bandwidth requirements of a PSK31 signal?
     A. Zero-sum character encoding
     B. Reed-Solomon character encoding
     C. Use of sinusoidal data pulses
     D. Use of trapezoidal data pulses

    T8C08     [97.215(a)]

  98.   What is required in place of on-air station identification when sending signals to a radio control model using amateur frequencies?
     A. Voice identification must be transmitted every 10 minutes
     B. Morse code ID must be sent once per hour
     C. A label indicating the licensee's name, call sign and address must be affixed to the transmitter
     D. A flag must be affixed to the transmitter antenna with the station call sign in 1 inch high letters or larger


  99.   Why are received spread spectrum signals resistant to interference?
     A. Signals not using the spread spectrum algorithm are suppressed in the receiver
     B. The high power used by a spread spectrum transmitter keeps its signal from being easily overpowered
     C. The receiver is always equipped with a digital blanker
     D. If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to change frequencies


  100.   What does the abbreviation PSK mean?
     A. Pulse Shift Keying
     B. Phase Shift Keying
     C. Packet Short Keying
     D. Phased Slide Keying


  101.   Which of the following choices is a way to improve the efficiency of a ground-mounted quarter-wave vertical antenna?
     A. Install a good radial system
     B. Isolate the coax shield from ground
     C. Shorten the radiating element
     D. Reduce the diameter of the radiating element


  102.   In which direction is the radiation strongest from a half-wave dipole antenna in free space?
     A. Equally in all directions
     B. Off the ends of the antenna
     C. Broadside to the antenna
     D. In the direction of the feed line


  103.   What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having 25 ohm impedance?
     A. 2:1
     B. 2.5:1
     C. 1.25:1
     D. You cannot determine SWR from impedance values


  104.   Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed point impedance of a quarter wave ground plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?
     A. Slope the radials upward
     B. Slope the radials downward
     C. Lengthen the radials
     D. Shorten the radials


  105.   Why is coaxial cable used more often than any other feed line for amateur radio antenna systems?
     A. It is easy to use and requires few special installation considerations
     B. It has less loss than any other type of feed line
     C. It can handle more power than any other type of feed line
     D. It is less expensive than any other types of feed line


  106.   What is the principle of a Method of Moments analysis?
     A. A wire is modeled as a series of segments, each having a uniform value of current
     B. A wire is modeled as a single sine-wave current generator
     C. A wire is modeled as a series of points, each having a distinct location in space
     D. A wire is modeled as a series of segments, each having a distinct value of voltage across it


  107.   How does the gain of two 3-element horizontally polarized Yagi antennas spaced vertically 1/2 wavelength apart typically compare to the gain of a single 3-element Yagi?
     A. Approximately 1.5 dB higher
     B. Approximately 3 dB higher
     C. Approximately 6 dB higher
     D. Approximately 9 dB higher


  108.   What is a G5RV antenna?
     A. A multi-band dipole antenna fed with coax and a balun through a selected length of open wire transmission line
     B. A multi-band trap antenna
     C. A phased array antenna consisting of multiple loops
     D. A wide band dipole using shorted coaxial cable for the radiating elements and fed with a†4:1 balun


  109.   What is the primary purpose of antenna traps?
     A. To permit multiband operation
     B. To notch spurious frequencies
     C. To provide balanced feed point impedance
     D. To prevent out of band operation


  110.   What happens as the Q of an antenna increases?
     A. SWR bandwidth increases
     B. SWR bandwidth decreases
     C. Gain is reduced
     D. More common-mode current is present on the feed line


  111.   Which of the following measurements is characteristic of a mismatched transmission line?
     A. An SWR less than 1:1
     B. A reflection coefficient greater than 1
     C. A dielectric constant greater than 1
     D. An SWR greater than 1:1


  112.   How does ladder line compare to small-diameter coaxial cable such as RG-58 at 50 MHz?
     A. Lower loss
     B. Higher SWR
     C. Smaller reflection coefficient
     D. Lower velocity factor


  113.   Which of the following can be calculated using a Smith chart?
     A. Impedance along transmission lines
     B. Radiation resistance
     C. Antenna radiation pattern
     D. Radio propagation


  114.   What is an advantage of using a shielded loop antenna for direction finding?
     A. It automatically cancels ignition noise in mobile installations
     B. It is electro statically balanced against ground, giving better nulls
     C. It eliminates tracking errors caused by strong out-of-band signals
     D. It allows stations to communicate without giving away their position


  115.   What is a good way to guard against electrical shock at your station?
     A. Use three-wire cords and plugs for all AC powered equipment
     B. Connect all AC powered station equipment to a common safety ground
     C. Use a circuit protected by a ground-fault interrupter
     D. All of these choices are correct


  116.   What type of instrument can be used to accurately measure an RF field?
     A. A receiver with an S meter
     B. A calibrated field strength meter with a calibrated antenna
     C. An SWR meter with a peak-reading function
     D. An oscilloscope with a high-stability crystal marker generator


  117.   Which of the following injuries can result from using high-power UHF or microwave transmitters?
     A. Hearing loss caused by high voltage corona discharge
     B. Blood clotting from the intense magnetic field
     C. Localized heating of the body from RF exposure in excess of the MPE limits
     D. Ingestion of ozone gas from the cooling system


  118.   Why should soldered joints not be used with the wires that connect the base of a tower to a system of ground rods?
     A. The resistance of solder is too high
     B. Solder flux will prevent a low conductivity connection
     C. Solder has too high a dielectric constant to provide adequate lightning protection
     D. A soldered joint will likely be destroyed by the heat of a lightning strike


  119.   Why should you avoid attaching an antenna to a utility pole?
     A. The antenna will not work properly because of induced voltages
     B. The utility company will charge you an extra monthly fee
     C. The antenna could contact high-voltage power wires
     D. All of these choices are correct


  120.   What could happen if a person accidentally touched your antenna while you were transmitting?
     A. Touching the antenna could cause television interference
     B. They might receive a painful RF burn
     C. They might develop radiation poisoning
     D. All of these choices are correct