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About Practice Exam -


  1.   Which of the following injuries can result from using high-power UHF or microwave transmitters?
     A. Hearing loss caused by high voltage corona discharge
     B. Blood clotting from the intense magnetic field
     C. Localized heating of the body from RF exposure in excess of the MPE limits
     D. Ingestion of ozone gas from the cooling system

    E1A05     [97.313]

  2.   What is the maximum power output permitted on the 60 meter band?
     A. 50 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to an isotropic radiator
     B. 50 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to a dipole
     C. 100 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to the gain of a half-wave dipole
     D. 100 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to an isotropic radiator

    E1B02     [97.13]

  3.   Which of the following factors might cause the physical location of an amateur station apparatus or antenna structure to be restricted?
     A. The location is near an area of political conflict
     B. The location is of geographical or horticultural importance
     C. The location is in an ITU zone designated for coordination with one or more foreign governments
     D. The location is of environmental importance or significant in American history, architecture, or culture

    E1C08     [97.213]

  4.   What is the maximum permissible duration of a remotely controlled station's transmissions if its control link malfunctions?
     A. 30 seconds
     B. 3 minutes
     C. 5 minutes
     D. 10 minutes

    E1D03     [97.3]

  5.   What is a telecommand station in the amateur satellite service?
     A. An amateur station located on the Earth's surface for communications with other Earth stations by means of Earth satellites
     B. An amateur station that transmits communications to initiate, modify or terminate functions of a space station
     C. An amateur station located more than 50 km above the Earth's surface
     D. An amateur station that transmits telemetry consisting of measurements of upper atmosphere data from space

    E1E08     [97.509]

  6.   To which of the following examinees may a VE not administer an examination?
     A. Employees of the VE
     B. Friends of the VE
     C. Relatives of the VE as listed in the FCC rules
     D. All of these choices are correct

    E1F10     [97.313]

  7.   What is the maximum transmitter power for an amateur station transmitting spread spectrum communications?
     A. 1 W
     B. 1.5 W
     C. 10 W
     D. 1.5 kW


  8.   What is the direction of an ascending pass for an amateur satellite?
     A. From west to east
     B. From east to west
     C. From south to north
     D. From north to south


  9.   How are analog SSTV images typically transmitted on the HF bands?
     A. Video is converted to equivalent Baudot representation
     B. Video is converted to equivalent ASCII representation
     C. Varying tone frequencies representing the video are transmitted using PSK
     D. Varying tone frequencies representing the video are transmitted using single sideband


  10.   From which of the following bands is amateur radio contesting generally excluded?
     A. 30 meters
     B. 6 meters
     C. 2 meters
     D. 33 cm


  11.   Which of the following data are used by the APRS network to communicate your location?
     A. Polar coordinates
     B. Time and frequency
     C. Radio direction finding LOPs
     D. Latitude and longitude


  12.   What is the typical bandwidth of a properly modulated MFSK16 signal?
     A. 31 Hz
     B. 316 Hz
     C. 550 Hz
     D. 2.16 kHz


  13.   What characterizes libration fading of an Earth-Moon-Earth signal?
     A. A slow change in the pitch of the CW signal
     B. A fluttery irregular fading
     C. A gradual loss of signal as the Sun rises
     D. The returning echo is several Hertz lower in frequency than the transmitted signal


  14.   What is the cause of gray-line propagation?
     A. At midday, the Sun being directly overhead superheats the ionosphere causing increased refraction of radio waves
     B. At twilight, D-layer absorption drops while E-layer and F-layer propagation remain strong
     C. In darkness, solar absorption drops greatly while atmospheric ionization remains steady
     D. At mid afternoon, the Sun heats the ionosphere decreasing radio wave refraction and the MUF


  15.   Which of the following effects does Aurora activity have on radio communications?
     A. SSB signals are raspy
     B. Signals propagating through the Aurora are fluttery
     C. CW signals appear to be modulated by white noise
     D. All of these choices are correct


  16.   Which of the following could be determined with a spectrum analyzer?
     A. The degree of isolation between the input and output ports of a 2 meter duplexer
     B. Whether a crystal is operating on its fundamental or overtone frequency
     C. The spectral output of a transmitter
     D. All of these choices are correct


  17.   If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 0.1 ppm reads 146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the reading?
     A. 14.652 Hz
     B. 0.1 MHz
     C. 1.4652 Hz
     D. 1.4652 kHz


  18.   How might lowering the noise figure affect receiver performance?
     A. It would reduce the signal to noise ratio
     B. It would improve weak signal sensitivity
     C. It would reduce bandwidth
     D. It would increase bandwidth


  19.   What does a third-order intercept level of 40 dBm mean with respect to receiver performance?
     A. Signals less than 40 dBm will not generate audible third-order intermodulation products
     B. The receiver can tolerate signals up to 40 dB above the noise floor without producing third-order intermodulation products
     C. A pair of 40 dBm signals will theoretically generate a third-order intermodulation product with the same level as the input signals
     D. A pair of 1 mW input signals will produce a third-order intermodulation product which is 40 dB stronger than the input signal


  20.   What is one disadvantage of using some types of automatic DSP notch-filters when attempting to copy CW signals?
     A. The DSP filter can remove the desired signal at the same time as it removes interfering signals
     B. Any nearby signal passing through the DSP system will overwhelm the desired signal
     C. Received CW signals will appear to be modulated at the DSP clock frequency
     D. Ringing in the DSP filter will completely remove the spaces between the CW characters


  21.   What is the resonant frequency of a parallel RLC circuit if R is 33 ohms, L is 50 microhenrys and C is 10 picofarads?
     A. 23.5 MHz
     B. 23.5 kHz
     C. 7.12 kHz
     D. 7.12 MHz


  22.   What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 250 ohms, R is 1 kilohm, and XL is 500 ohms?
     A. 81.47 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
     B. 81.47 degrees with the voltage leading the current
     C. 14.04 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
     D. 14.04 degrees with the voltage leading the current


  23.   In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 100-ohm-reactance capacitor in series with a 100-ohm resistor?
     A. 121 ohms at an angle of -25 degrees
     B. 191 ohms at an angle of -85 degrees
     C. 161 ohms at an angle of -65 degrees
     D. 141 ohms at an angle of -45 degrees


  24.   What device is used to store electrical energy in an electrostatic field?
     A. A battery
     B. A transformer
     C. A capacitor
     D. An inductor


  25.   What do the initials CMOS stand for?
     A. Common Mode Oscillating System
     B. Complementary Mica-Oxide Silicon
     C. Complementary Metal-Oxide Semiconductor
     D. Common Mode Organic Silicon


  26.   What type of bias is required for an LED to emit light?
     A. Reverse bias
     B. Forward bias
     C. Zero bias
     D. Inductive bias


  27.   In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for a NAND gate?
     A. 1
     B. 2
     C. 3
     D. 4


  28.   What is the principle advantage of liquid-crystal display (LCD) devices over other types of display devices?
     A. They consume less power
     B. They can display changes instantly
     C. They are visible in all light conditions
     D. They can be easily interchanged with other display devices


  29.   Which of the following techniques is typically used to construct a MMIC-based microwave amplifier?
     A. Ground-plane construction
     B. Microstrip construction
     C. Point-to-point construction
     D. Wave-soldering construction


  30.   Which of these materials is affected the most by photoconductivity?
     A. A crystalline semiconductor
     B. An ordinary metal
     C. A heavy metal
     D. A liquid semiconductor


  31.   What is a D flip-flop?
     A. A flip-flop whose output takes on the state of the D input when the clock signal transitions from low to high
     B. A differential class D amplifier used as a flip-flop circuit
     C. A dynamic memory storage element
     D. A flip-flop whose output is capable of both positive and negative voltage excursions


  32.   In Figure E7-1, what is the purpose of R1 and R2?
     A. Load resistors
     B. Fixed bias
     C. Self bias
     D. Feedback


  33.   What advantage does a Pi-L-network have over a Pi-network for impedance matching between the final amplifier of a vacuum-tube transmitter and an antenna?
     A. Greater harmonic suppression
     B. Higher efficiency
     C. Lower losses
     D. Greater transformation range


  34.   What is the purpose of a "step-start" circuit in a high-voltage power supply?
     A. To provide a dual-voltage output for reduced power applications
     B. To compensate for variations of the incoming line voltage
     C. To allow for remote control of the power supply
     D. To allow the filter capacitors to charge gradually


  35.   Why is de-emphasis commonly used in FM communications receivers?
     A. For compatibility with transmitters using phase modulation
     B. To reduce impulse noise reception
     C. For higher efficiency
     D. To remove third-order distortion products


  36.   What alternate method of determining frequency, other than by directly counting input pulses, is used by some counters?
     A. GPS averaging
     B. Period measurement plus mathematical computation
     C. Prescaling
     D. D/A conversion


  37.   How does the gain of an ideal operational amplifier vary with frequency?
     A. It increases linearly with increasing frequency
     B. It decreases linearly with increasing frequency
     C. It decreases logarithmically with increasing frequency
     D. It does not vary with frequency


  38.   Why is the short-term stability of the reference oscillator important in the design of a phase locked loop (PLL) frequency synthesizer?
     A. Any amplitude variations in the reference oscillator signal will prevent the loop from locking to the desired signal
     B. Any phase variations in the reference oscillator signal will produce phase noise in the synthesizer output
     C. Any phase variations in the reference oscillator signal will produce harmonic distortion in the modulating signal
     D. Any amplitude variations in the reference oscillator signal will prevent the loop from changing frequency


  39.   What type of information can be conveyed using digital waveforms?
     A. Human speech
     B. Video signals
     C. Data
     D. All of these choices are correct


  40.   What is the modulation index of an FM-phone signal having a maximum carrier deviation of plus or minus 6 kHz when modulated with a 2-kHz modulating frequency?
     A. 6000
     B. 3
     C. 2000
     D. 1/3


  41.   What term describes a wide-bandwidth communications system in which the transmitted carrier frequency varies according to some predetermined sequence?
     A. Amplitude compandored single sideband
     B. AMTOR
     C. Time-domain frequency modulation
     D. Spread-spectrum communication


  42.   What is the relationship between the peak-to-peak voltage and the peak voltage amplitude of a symmetrical waveform?
     A. 0.707:1
     B. 2:1
     C. 1.414:1
     D. 4:1


  43.   What is a folded dipole antenna?
     A. A dipole one-quarter wavelength long
     B. A type of ground-plane antenna
     C. A dipole constructed from one wavelength of wire forming a very thin loop
     D. A dipole configured to provide forward gain


  44.   What is the principle of a Method of Moments analysis?
     A. A wire is modeled as a series of segments, each having a uniform value of current
     B. A wire is modeled as a single sine-wave current generator
     C. A wire is modeled as a series of points, each having a distinct location in space
     D. A wire is modeled as a series of segments, each having a distinct value of voltage across it


  45.   What is the main effect of placing a vertical antenna over an imperfect ground?
     A. It causes increased SWR
     B. It changes the impedance angle of the matching network
     C. It reduces low-angle radiation
     D. It reduces losses in the radiating portion of the antenna


  46.   What is the approximate feed point impedance at the center of a two-wire folded dipole antenna?
     A. 300 ohms
     B. 72 ohms
     C. 50 ohms
     D. 450 ohms


  47.   What is the purpose of a Wilkinson divider?
     A. It divides the operating frequency of a transmitter signal so it can be used on a lower frequency band
     B. It is used to feed high-impedance antennas from a low-impedance source
     C. It divides power equally among multiple loads while preventing changes in one load from disturbing power flow to the others
     D. It is used to feed low-impedance loads from a high-impedance source


  48.   What impedance does a 1/4-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is shorted at the far end?
     A. Very high impedance
     B. Very low impedance
     C. The same as the characteristic impedance of the transmission line
     D. The same as the generator output impedance


  49.   What type of coordinate system is used in a Smith chart?
     A. Voltage circles and current arcs
     B. Resistance circles and reactance arcs
     C. Voltage lines and current chords
     D. Resistance lines and reactance chords


  50.   Why is it advisable to use an RF attenuator on a receiver being used for direction finding?
     A. It narrows the bandwidth of the received signal to improve signal to noise ratio
     B. It compensates for the effects of an isotropic antenna, thereby improving directivity
     C. It reduces loss of received signals caused by antenna pattern nulls, thereby increasing sensitivity
     D. It prevents receiver overload which could make it difficult to determine peaks or nulls


  51.   What is one way that RF energy can affect human body tissue?
     A. It heats body tissue
     B. It causes radiation poisoning
     C. It causes the blood count to reach a dangerously low level
     D. It cools body tissue


  52.   What must you do when powering your house from an emergency generator?
     A. Disconnect the incoming utility power feed
     B. Insure that the generator is not grounded
     C. Insure that all lightning grounds are disconnected
     D. All of these choices are correct

    G1A02     [97.305]

  53.   On which of the following bands is phone operation prohibited?
     A. 160 meters
     B. 30 meters
     C. 17 meters
     D. 12 meters

    G1B03     [97.3(a)(9)]

  54.   Which of the following is a purpose of a beacon station as identified in the FCC Rules?
     A. Observation of propagation and reception
     B. Automatic identification of repeaters
     C. Transmission of bulletins of general interest to Amateur Radio licensees
     D. Identifying net frequencies

    G1C07     [97.305(c), 97.307(f)(3)]

  55.   What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmission on the 20 meter band?
     A. 56 kilobaud
     B. 19.6 kilobaud
     C. 1200 baud
     D. 300 baud

    G1D06     [97.119(f)(2)]

  56.   When must you add the special identifier "AG" after your call sign if you are a Technician Class licensee and have a CSCE for General Class operator privileges, but the FCC has not yet posted your upgrade on its Web site?
     A. Whenever you operate using General Class frequency privileges
     B. Whenever you operate on any amateur frequency
     C. Whenever you operate using Technician frequency privileges
     D. A special identifier is not required as long as your General Class license application has been filed with the FCC

    G1E02     [97.205(a)]

  57.   When may a 10 meter repeater retransmit the 2 meter signal from a station having a Technician Class control operator?
     A. Under no circumstances
     B. Only if the station on 10 meters is operating under a Special Temporary Authorization allowing such retransmission
     C. Only during an FCC declared general state of communications emergency
     D. Only if the 10 meter repeater control operator holds at least a General Class license


  58.   Which of the following is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands?
     A. Upper sideband
     B. Lower sideband
     C. Vestigial sideband
     D. Double sideband


  59.   Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies?
     A. Nets always have priority
     B. QSO's in process always have priority
     C. No one has priority access to frequencies, common courtesy should be a guide
     D. Contest operations must always yield to non-contest use of frequencies


  60.   Which of the following describes full break-in telegraphy (QSK)?
     A. Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign BK
     B. Automatic keyers are used to send Morse code instead of hand keys
     C. An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission
     D. Transmitting stations can receive between code characters and elements


  61.   Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?
     A. A world map that shows accurate land masses
     B. A world map projection centered on a particular location
     C. A world map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator
     D. A world map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit


  62.   Which of the following describes Baudot code?
     A. A 7-bit code with start, stop and parity bits
     B. A code using error detection and correction
     C. A 5-bit code with additional start and stop bits
     D. A code using SELCAL and LISTEN


  63.   Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from solar flares to affect radio-wave propagation on the Earth?
     A. 28 days
     B. 1 to 2 hours
     C. 8 minutes
     D. 20 to 40 hours


  64.   What factors affect the Maximum Usable Frequency (MUF)?
     A. Path distance and location
     B. Time of day and season
     C. Solar radiation and ionospheric disturbances
     D. All of these choices are correct


  65.   What type of radio wave propagation allows a signal to be detected at a distance too far for ground wave propagation but too near for normal sky-wave propagation?
     A. Faraday rotation
     B. Scatter
     C. Sporadic-E skip
     D. Short-path skip


  66.   What type of device is often used to enable matching the transmitter output to an impedance other than 50 ohms?
     A. Balanced modulator
     B. SWR Bridge
     C. Antenna coupler
     D. Q Multiplier


  67.   What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?
     A. The local oscillator of the transmitter
     B. An external RF oscillator
     C. The transmitter balanced mixer output
     D. The attenuated RF output of the transmitter


  68.   Which of the following would reduce RF interference caused by common-mode current on an audio cable?
     A. Placing a ferrite bead around the cable
     B. Adding series capacitors to the conductors
     C. Adding shunt inductors to the conductors
     D. Adding an additional insulating jacket to the cable


  69.   What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz LSB signal when the displayed carrier frequency is set to 7.178 MHz?
     A. 7.178 to 7.181 MHz
     B. 7.178 to 7.184 MHz
     C. 7.175 to 7.178 MHz
     D. 7.1765 to 7.1795 MHz


  70.   What is a "capacitance hat", when referring to a mobile antenna?
     A. A device to increase the power handling capacity of a mobile whip antenna
     B. A device that allows automatic band-changing for a mobile antenna
     C. A device to electrically lengthen a physically short antenna
     D. A device that allows remote tuning of a mobile antenna


  71.   Which of the following causes opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor?
     A. Conductance
     B. Reluctance
     C. Reactance
     D. Admittance


  72.   What is the RMS voltage of a sine wave with a value of 17 volts peak?
     A. 8.5 volts
     B. 12 volts
     C. 24 volts
     D. 34 volts


  73.   Which of the following components should be added to an inductor to increase the inductance?
     A. A capacitor in series
     B. A resistor in parallel
     C. An inductor in parallel
     D. An inductor in series


  74.   How should the winding axes of solenoid inductors be placed to minimize their mutual inductance?
     A. In line
     B. Parallel to each other
     C. At right angles
     D. Interleaved


  75.   When two or more diodes are connected in parallel to increase current handling capacity, what is the purpose of the resistor connected in series with each diode?
     A. To ensure the thermal stability of the power supply
     B. To regulate the power supply output voltage
     C. To ensure that one diode doesn't carry most of the current
     D. To act as an inductor


  76.   What two devices in an Amateur Radio station might be connected using a USB interface?
     A. Computer and transceiver
     B. Microphone and transceiver
     C. Amplifier and antenna
     D. Power supply and amplifier


  77.   Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a Zener diode?
     A. Symbol 4
     B. Symbol 1
     C. Symbol 11
     D. Symbol 5


  78.   For which of the following modes is a Class C power stage appropriate for amplifying a modulated signal?
     A. SSB
     B. CW
     C. AM
     D. All of these choices are correct


  79.   What circuit is used to process signals from the RF amplifier and local oscillator and send the result to the IF filter in a superheterodyne receiver?
     A. Balanced modulator
     B. IF amplifier
     C. Mixer
     D. Detector


  80.   What is one advantage of carrier suppression in a single-sideband phone transmission?
     A. Audio fidelity is improved
     B. Greater modulation percentage is obtainable with lower distortion
     C. The available transmitter power can be used more effectively
     D. Simpler receiving equipment can be used


  81.   What is the relationship between transmitted symbol rate and bandwidth?
     A. Symbol rate and bandwidth are not related
     B. Higher symbol rates require higher bandwidth
     C. Lower symbol rates require higher bandwidth
     D. Bandwidth is constant for data mode signals


  82.   Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor antenna feed line?
     A. The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors
     B. The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line
     C. The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal
     D. The frequency of the signal and the length of the line


  83.   What happens to the feed-point impedance of a ground-plane antenna when its radials are changed from horizontal to downward-sloping?
     A. It decreases
     B. It increases
     C. It stays the same
     D. It reaches a maximum at an angle of 45 degrees


  84.   Which statement about a three-element; single-band Yagi antenna is true?
     A. The reflector is normally the longest parasitic element
     B. The director is normally the longest parasitic element
     C. The reflector is normally the shortest parasitic element
     D. All of the elements must be the same length


  85.   Which of the following is an advantage of an NVIS antenna?
     A. Low vertical angle radiation for working stations out to ranges of several thousand kilometers
     B. High vertical angle radiation for working stations within a radius of a few hundred kilometers
     C. High forward gain
     D. All of these choices are correct


  86.   What can happen if a lead-acid storage battery is charged or discharged too quickly?
     A. The battery could overheat and give off flammable gas or explode
     B. The voltage can become reversed
     C. The memory effect will reduce the capacity of the battery
     D. All of these choices are correct


  87.   Why should you avoid attaching an antenna to a utility pole?
     A. The antenna will not work properly because of induced voltages
     B. The utility company will charge you an extra monthly fee
     C. The antenna could contact high-voltage power wires
     D. All of these choices are correct


  88.   Which of the following is an acceptable method to determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?
     A. By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65
     B. By calculation based on computer modeling
     C. By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment
     D. All of these choices are correct

    T1A14     [97.303(d)]

  89.   What must you do if you are operating on the 23 cm band and learn that you are interfering with a radiolocation station outside the United States?
     A. Stop operating or take steps to eliminate the harmful interference
     B. Nothing, because this band is allocated exclusively to the amateur service
     C. Establish contact with the radiolocation station and ask them to change frequency
     D. Change to CW mode, because this would not likely cause interference

    T1B03     [97.301(a)]

  90.   Which frequency is within the 6 meter band?
     A. 49.00 MHz
     B. 52.525 MHz
     C. 28.50 MHz
     D. 222.15 MHz

    T1C11     [97.21(b)]

  91.   If your license has expired and is still within the allowable grace period, may you continue to operate a transmitter on amateur service frequencies?
     A. No, transmitting is not allowed until the FCC license database shows that the license has been renewed
     B. Yes, but only if you identify using the suffix GP
     C. Yes, but only during authorized nets
     D. Yes, for up to two years

    T1D05     [97.113(a)(3)(ii)]

  92.   When may amateur radio operators use their stations to notify other amateurs of the availability of equipment for sale or trade?
     A. When the equipment is normally used in an amateur station and such activity is not conducted on a regular basis
     B. When the asking price is $100.00 or less
     C. When the asking price is less than its appraised value
     D. When the equipment is not the personal property of either the station licensee or the control operator or their close relatives

    T1E01     [97.7(a)]

  93.   When is an amateur station permitted to transmit without a control operator?
     A. When using automatic control, such as in the case of a repeater
     B. When the station licensee is away and another licensed amateur is using the station
     C. When the transmitting station is an auxiliary station
     D. Never


  94.   What type of identification is being used when identifying a station on the air as Race Headquarters?
     A. Tactical call sign
     B. An official call sign reserved for RACES drills
     C. SSID
     D. Broadcast station


  95.   What is an appropriate way to call another station on a repeater if you know the other station's call sign?
     A. Say break, break then say the station's call sign
     B. Say the station's call sign then identify with your call sign
     C. Say CQ three times then the other station's call sign
     D. Wait for the station to call CQ then answer it


  96.   What is the term used to describe the use of a sub-audible tone transmitted with normal voice audio to open the squelch of a receiver?
     A. Carrier squelch
     B. Tone burst
     C. DTMF
     D. CTCSS


  97.   Are amateur station control operators ever permitted to operate outside the frequency privileges of their license class?
     A. No
     B. Yes, but only when part of a FEMA emergency plan
     C. Yes, but only when part of a RACES emergency plan
     D. Yes, but only if necessary in situations involving the immediate safety of human life or protection of property


  98.   Which part of the atmosphere enables the propagation of radio signals around the world?
     A. The stratosphere
     B. The troposphere
     C. The ionosphere
     D. The magnetosphere


  99.   What are the frequency limits of the VHF spectrum?
     A. 30 to 300 kHz
     B. 30 to 300 MHz
     C. 300 to 3000 kHz
     D. 300 to 3000 MHz


  100.   Which of the following bands may provide long distance communications during the peak of the sunspot cycle?
     A. Six or ten meters
     B. 23 centimeters
     C. 70 centimeters or 1.25 meters
     D. All of these choices are correct


  101.   Which type of conductor is best to use for RF grounding?
     A. Round stranded wire
     B. Round copper-clad steel wire
     C. Twisted-pair cable
     D. Flat strap


  102.   Which of the following is an appropriate receive filter bandwidth to select in order to minimize noise and interference for SSB reception?
     A. 500 Hz
     B. 1000 Hz
     C. 2400 Hz
     D. 5000 Hz


  103.   What is the electrical term for the electromotive force (EMF) that causes electron flow?
     A. Voltage
     B. Ampere-hours
     C. Capacitance
     D. Inductance


  104.   If a frequency readout calibrated in megahertz shows a reading of 3.525 MHz, what would it show if it were calibrated in kilohertz?
     A. 0.003525 kHz
     B. 35.25 kHz
     C. 3525 kHz
     D. 3,525,000 kHz


  105.   How much power is being used in a circuit when the applied voltage is 13.8 volts DC and the current is 10 amperes?
     A. 138 watts
     B. 0.7 watts
     C. 23.8 watts
     D. 3.8 watts


  106.   What is the resistance in a circuit for which the applied voltage is 12 volts and the current flow is 1.5 amperes?
     A. 18 ohms
     B. 0.125 ohms
     C. 8 ohms
     D. 13.5 ohms


  107.   What electrical component is usually composed of a coil of wire?
     A. Switch
     B. Capacitor
     C. Diode
     D. Inductor


  108.   What are the names of the two electrodes of a diode?
     A. Plus and minus
     B. Source and drain
     C. Anode and cathode
     D. Gate and base


  109.   What is component 6 in figure T2?
     A. Resistor
     B. Capacitor
     C. Regulator IC
     D. Transistor


  110.   Which of the following devices or circuits changes an alternating current into a varying direct current signal?
     A. Transformer
     B. Rectifier
     C. Amplifier
     D. Reflector


  111.   What is the name of a circuit that generates a signal of a desired frequency?
     A. Reactance modulator
     B. Product detector
     C. Low-pass filter
     D. Oscillator


  112.   Which of the following may be a cause of radio frequency interference?
     A. Fundamental overload
     B. Harmonics
     C. Spurious emissions
     D. All of these choices are correct


  113.   What does a dummy load consist of?
     A. A high-gain amplifier and a TR switch
     B. A non-inductive resistor and a heat sink
     C. A low voltage power supply and a DC relay
     D. A 50 ohm reactance used to terminate a transmission line


  114.   What is probably happening when an ohmmeter, connected across an unpowered circuit, initially indicates a low resistance and then shows increasing resistance with time?
     A. The ohmmeter is defective
     B. The circuit contains a large capacitor
     C. The circuit contains a large inductor
     D. The circuit is a relaxation oscillator


  115.   What is the typical bandwidth of analog fast-scan TV transmissions on the 70 cm band?
     A. More than 10 MHz
     B. About 6 MHz
     C. About 3 MHz
     D. About 1 MHz


  116.   Which of the following are inputs to a satellite tracking program?
     A. The weight of the satellite
     B. The Keplerian elements
     C. The last observed time of zero Doppler shift
     D. All of these answers are correct


  117.   How do you select a specific IRLP node when using a portable transceiver?
     A. Choose a specific CTCSS tone
     B. Choose the correct DSC tone
     C. Access the repeater autopatch
     D. Use the keypad to transmit the IRLP node ID


  118.   Which of the following is an example of a digital communications method?
     A. Packet
     B. PSK31
     C. MFSK
     D. All of these choices are correct


  119.   Which of the following terms describes a type of loading when referring to an antenna?
     A. Inserting an inductor in the radiating portion of the antenna to make it electrically longer
     B. Inserting a resistor in the radiating portion of the antenna to make it resonant
     C. Installing a spring at the base of the antenna to absorb the effects of collisions with other objects
     D. Making the antenna heavier so it will resist wind effects when in motion


  120.   What generally happens as the frequency of a signal passing through coaxial cable is increased?
     A. The apparent SWR increases
     B. The reflected power increases
     C. The characteristic impedance increases
     D. The loss increases