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eHam.net Practice Exam -


    E0A01    

  1.   What, if any, are the differences between the radiation produced by radioactive materials and the electromagnetic energy radiated by an antenna?
     A. There is no significant difference between the two types of radiation
     B. Only radiation produced by radioactivity can injure human beings
     C. Radioactive materials emit ionizing radiation, while RF signals have less energy and can only cause heating
     D. Radiation from an antenna will damage unexposed photographic film but ordinary radioactive materials do not cause this problem

    E1A09     [97.219]

  2.   What is the first action you should take if your digital message forwarding station inadvertently forwards a communication that violates FCC rules?
     A. Discontinue forwarding the communication as soon as you become aware of it
     B. Notify the originating station that the communication does not comply with FCC rules
     C. Notify the nearest FCC Field Engineer's office
     D. Discontinue forwarding all messages

    E1B08     [97.121]

  3.   What limitations may the FCC place on an amateur station if its signal causes interference to domestic broadcast reception, assuming that the receiver(s) involved are of good engineering design?
     A. The amateur station must cease operation
     B. The amateur station must cease operation on all frequencies below 30 MHz
     C. The amateur station must cease operation on all frequencies above 30 MHz
     D. The amateur station must avoid transmitting during certain hours on frequencies that cause the interference

    E1C04     [97.109]

  4.   When may an automatically controlled station retransmit third party communications?
     A. Never
     B. Only when transmitting RTTY or data emissions
     C. When specifically agreed upon by the sending and receiving stations
     D. When approved by the National Telecommunication and Information Administration

    E1D07     [97.207]

  5.   Which amateur service HF bands have frequencies authorized to space stations?
     A. Only 40m, 20m, 17m, 15m, 12m and 10m
     B. Only 40m, 20m, 17m, 15m and 10m bands
     C. 40m, 30m, 20m, 15m, 12m and 10m bands
     D. All HF bands

    E1E02     [97.523]

  6.   Where are the questions for all written US amateur license examinations listed?
     A. In FCC Part 97
     B. In a question pool maintained by the FCC
     C. In a question pool maintained by all the VECs
     D. In the appropriate FCC Report and Order

    E1F09     [97.311]

  7.   Which of the following conditions apply when transmitting spread spectrum emission?
     A. A station transmitting SS emission must not cause harmful interference to other stations employing other authorized emissions
     B. The transmitting station must be in an area regulated by the FCC or in a country that permits SS emissions
     C. The transmission must not be used to obscure the meaning of any communication
     D. All of these choices are correct

    E2A06    

  8.   On what band would a satellite receive signals if it were operating in mode U/V?
     A. 435-438 MHz
     B. 144-146 MHz
     C. 50.0-50.2 MHz
     D. 29.5 to 29.7 MHz

    E2B16    

  9.   Which of the following is the video standard used by North American Fast Scan ATV stations?
     A. PAL
     B. DRM
     C. Scottie
     D. NTSC

    E2C02    

  10.   Which of the following best describes the term "self-spotting" in regards to contest operating?
     A. The generally prohibited practice of posting one's own call sign and frequency on a call sign spotting network
     B. The acceptable practice of manually posting the call signs of stations on a call sign spotting network
     C. A manual technique for rapidly zero beating or tuning to a station's frequency before calling that station
     D. An automatic method for rapidly zero beating or tuning to a station's frequency before calling that station

    E2D09    

  11.   Under clear communications conditions, which of these digital communications modes has the fastest data throughput?
     A. AMTOR
     B. 170-Hz shift, 45 baud RTTY
     C. PSK31
     D. 300-baud packet

    E2E01    

  12.   Which type of modulation is common for data emissions below 30 MHz?
     A. DTMF tones modulating an FM signal
     B. FSK
     C. Pulse modulation
     D. Spread spectrum

    E3A08    

  13.   When a meteor strikes the Earth's atmosphere, a cylindrical region of free electrons is formed at what layer of the ionosphere?
     A. The E layer
     B. The F1 layer
     C. The F2 layer
     D. The D layer

    E3B09    

  14.   At what time of day is gray-line propagation most likely to occur?
     A. At sunrise and sunset
     B. When the Sun is directly above the location of the transmitting station
     C. When the Sun is directly overhead at the middle of the communications path between the two stations
     D. When the Sun is directly above the location of the receiving station

    E3C12    

  15.   How does the maximum distance of ground-wave propagation change when the signal frequency is increased?
     A. It stays the same
     B. It increases
     C. It decreases
     D. It peaks at roughly 14 MHz

    E4A08    

  16.   Which of the following instruments would be best for measuring the SWR of a beam antenna?
     A. A spectrum analyzer
     B. A Q meter
     C. An ohmmeter
     D. An antenna analyzer

    E4B02    

  17.   What is an advantage of using a bridge circuit to measure impedance?
     A. It provides an excellent match under all conditions
     B. It is relatively immune to drift in the signal generator source
     C. The measurement is based on obtaining a signal null, which can be done very precisely
     D. It can display results directly in Smith chart format

    E4C15    

  18.   What is the primary source of noise that can be heard from an HF receiver with an antenna connected?
     A. Detector noise
     B. Induction motor noise
     C. Receiver front-end noise
     D. Atmospheric noise

    E4D09    

  19.   What is the purpose of the preselector in a communications receiver?
     A. To store often-used frequencies
     B. To provide a range of AGC time constants
     C. To increase rejection of unwanted signals
     D. To allow selection of the optimum RF amplifier device

    E4E07    

  20.   How can you determine if line noise interference is being generated within your home?
     A. By checking the power line voltage with a time domain reflectometer
     B. By observing the AC power line waveform with an oscilloscope
     C. By turning off the AC power line main circuit breaker and listening on a battery operated radio
     D. By observing the AC power line voltage with a spectrum analyzer

    E5A01    

  21.   What can cause the voltage across reactances in series to be larger than the voltage applied to them?
     A. Resonance
     B. Capacitance
     C. Conductance
     D. Resistance

    E5B02    

  22.   What is the term for the time it takes for a charged capacitor in an RC circuit to discharge to 36.8% of its initial voltage?
     A. One discharge period
     B. An exponential discharge rate of one
     C. A discharge factor of one
     D. One time constant

    E5C12    

  23.   If you plot the impedance of a circuit using the rectangular coordinate system and find the impedance point falls on the right side of the graph on the horizontal axis, what do you know about the circuit?
     A. It has to be a direct current circuit
     B. It contains resistance and capacitive reactance
     C. It contains resistance and inductive reactance
     D. It is equivalent to a pure resistance

    E5D10    

  24.   How can the true power be determined in an AC circuit where the voltage and current are out of phase?
     A. By multiplying the apparent power times the power factor
     B. By dividing the reactive power by the power factor
     C. By dividing the apparent power by the power factor
     D. By multiplying the reactive power times the power factor

    E6A11    

  25.   In Figure E6-2, what is the schematic symbol for a P-channel junction FET?
     A. 1
     B. 2
     C. 3
     D. 6

    E6B08    

  26.   Which of the following describes a type of semiconductor diode?
     A. Metal-semiconductor junction
     B. Electrolytic rectifier
     C. CMOS-field effect
     D. Thermionic emission diode

    E6C12    

  27.   What is BiCMOS logic?
     A. A logic device with two CMOS circuits per package
     B. An FET logic family based on bimetallic semiconductors
     C. A logic family based on bismuth CMOS devices
     D. An integrated circuit logic family using both bipolar and CMOS transistors

    E6D16    

  28.   What is one reason for using ferrite toroids rather than powdered-iron toroids in an inductor?
     A. Ferrite toroids generally have lower initial permeabilities
     B. Ferrite toroids generally have better temperature stability
     C. Ferrite toroids generally require fewer turns to produce a given inductance value
     D. Ferrite toroids are easier to use with surface mount technology

    E6E12    

  29.   What is a "Jones filter" as used as part of a HF receiver IF stage?
     A. An automatic notch filter
     B. A variable bandwidth crystal lattice filter
     C. A special filter that emphasizes image responses
     D. A filter that removes impulse noise

    E6F02    

  30.   What happens to the conductivity of a photoconductive material when light shines on it?
     A. It increases
     B. It decreases
     C. It stays the same
     D. It becomes unstable

    E7A10    

  31.   What is a truth table?
     A. A table of logic symbols that indicate the high logic states of an op-amp
     B. A diagram showing logic states when the digital device's output is true
     C. A list of inputs and corresponding outputs for a digital device
     D. A table of logic symbols that indicates the low logic states of an op-amp

    E7B05    

  32.   What can be done to prevent unwanted oscillations in an RF power amplifier?
     A. Tune the stage for maximum SWR
     B. Tune both the input and output for maximum power
     C. Install parasitic suppressors and/or neutralize the stage
     D. Use a phase inverter in the output filter

    E7C13    

  33.   What is one advantage of a Pi matching network over an L matching network consisting of a single inductor and a single capacitor?
     A. The Q of Pi networks can be varied depending on the component values chosen
     B. L networks cannot perform impedance transformation
     C. Pi networks have fewer components
     D. Pi networks are designed for balanced input and output

    E7D08    

  34.   What type of circuit is shown in Figure E7-3?
     A. Switching voltage regulator
     B. Grounded emitter amplifier
     C. Linear voltage regulator
     D. Emitter follower

    E7E11    

  35.   Which of the following types of detector is well suited for demodulating SSB signals?
     A. Discriminator
     B. Phase detector
     C. Product detector
     D. Phase comparator

    E7F07    

  36.   What determines the accuracy of a frequency counter?
     A. The accuracy of the time base
     B. The speed of the logic devices used
     C. Accuracy of the AC input frequency to the power supply
     D. Proper balancing of the mixer diodes

    E7G06    

  37.   Which of the following is the most appropriate use of an op-amp active filter?
     A. As a high-pass filter used to block RFI at the input to receivers
     B. As a low-pass filter used between a transmitter and a transmission line
     C. For smoothing power-supply output
     D. As an audio filter in a receiver

    E7H15    

  38.   Which of these functions can be performed by a phase-locked loop?
     A. Wide-band AF and RF power amplification
     B. Comparison of two digital input signals, digital pulse counter
     C. Photovoltaic conversion, optical coupling
     D. Frequency synthesis, FM demodulation

    E8A03    

  39.   What type of wave is made up of sine waves of a given fundamental frequency plus all its harmonics?
     A. A sawtooth wave
     B. A square wave
     C. A sine wave
     D. A cosine wave

    E8B06    

  40.   What is the deviation ratio of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus or minus 7.5 kHz when the maximum modulation frequency is 3.5 kHz?
     A. 2.14
     B. 0.214
     C. 0.47
     D. 47

    E8C09    

  41.   Which of these techniques causes a digital signal to appear as wide-band noise to a conventional receiver?
     A. Spread-spectrum
     B. Independent sideband
     C. Regenerative detection
     D. Exponential addition

    E8D16    

  42.   What is the RMS value of a 340-volt peak-to-peak pure sine wave?
     A. 120V AC
     B. 170V AC
     C. 240V AC
     D. 300V AC

    E9A02    

  43.   How much gain does a 1/2-wavelength dipole in free space have compared to an isotropic antenna?
     A. 1.55 dB
     B. 2.15 dB
     C. 3.05 dB
     D. 4.30 dB

    E9B13    

  44.   What does the abbreviation NEC stand for when applied to antenna modeling programs?
     A. Next Element Comparison
     B. Numerical Electromagnetics Code
     C. National Electrical Code
     D. Numeric Electrical Computation

    E9C11    

  45.   How is the far-field elevation pattern of a vertically polarized antenna affected by being mounted over seawater versus rocky ground?
     A. The low-angle radiation decreases
     B. The high-angle radiation increases
     C. Both the high- and low-angle radiation decrease
     D. The low-angle radiation increases

    E9D08    

  46.   What happens to the bandwidth of an antenna as it is shortened through the use of loading coils?
     A. It is increased
     B. It is decreased
     C. No change occurs
     D. It becomes flat

    E9E11    

  47.   What is an effective way of matching a feed line to a VHF or UHF antenna when the impedances of both the antenna and feed line are unknown?
     A. Use a 50-ohm 1:1 balun between the antenna and feed line
     B. Use the "universal stub" matching technique
     C. Connect a series-resonant LC network across the antenna feed terminals
     D. Connect a parallel-resonant LC network across the antenna feed terminals

    E9F09    

  48.   What is the approximate physical length of a solid polyethylene dielectric coaxial transmission line that is electrically one-quarter wavelength long at 7.2 MHz?
     A. 10 meters
     B. 6.9 meters
     C. 24 meters
     D. 50 meters

    E9G08    

  49.   What is the process of normalization with regard to a Smith chart?
     A. Reassigning resistance values with regard to the reactance axis
     B. Reassigning reactance values with regard to the resistance axis
     C. Reassigning impedance values with regard to the prime center
     D. Reassigning prime center with regard to the reactance axis

    E9H03    

  50.   What is the effective isotropic radiated power of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 2-dB feed line loss, 2.8-dB duplexer loss, 1.2-dB circulator loss and 7-dBi antenna gain?
     A. 159 watts
     B. 252 watts
     C. 632 watts
     D. 63.2 watts

    G0A04    

  51.   What does "time averaging" mean in reference to RF radiation exposure?
     A. The average time of day when the exposure occurs
     B. The average time it takes RF radiation to have any long-term effect on the body
     C. The total time of the exposure
     D. The total RF exposure averaged over a certain time

    G0B08    

  52.   What should be done by any person preparing to climb a tower that supports electrically powered devices?
     A. Notify the electric company that a person will be working on the tower
     B. Make sure all circuits that supply power to the tower are locked out and tagged
     C. Unground the base of the tower
     D. All of these choices are correct

    G1A08     [97.301(d)]

  53.   Which of the following frequencies is within the General Class portion of the 20 meter phone band?
     A. 14005 kHz
     B. 14105 kHz
     C. 14305 kHz
     D. 14405 kHz

    G1B10     [97.203(c)]

  54.   What is the power limit for beacon stations?
     A. 10 watts PEP output
     B. 20 watts PEP output
     C. 100 watts PEP output
     D. 200 watts PEP output

    G1C03     [97.303s]

  55.   What is the maximum bandwidth permitted by FCC rules for Amateur Radio stations when transmitting on USB frequencies in the 60 meter band?
     A. 2.8 kHz
     B. 5.6 kHz
     C. 1.8 kHz
     D. 3 kHz

    G1D05     [97.509(b)(3)(i)]

  56.   Which of the following is sufficient for you to be an administering VE for a Technician Class operator license examination?
     A. Notification to the FCC that you want to give an examination
     B. Receipt of a CSCE for General Class
     C. Possession of a properly obtained telegraphy license
     D. An FCC General Class or higher license and VEC accreditation

    G1E08     [97.115(a)(b)]

  57.   Which of the following is a requirement for a non-licensed person to communicate with a foreign Amateur Radio station from a station with an FCC granted license at which a licensed control operator is present?
     A. Information must be exchanged in English
     B. The foreign amateur station must be in a country with which the United States has a third party agreement
     C. The control operator must have at least a General Class license
     D. All of these choices are correct

    G2A04    

  58.   Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17 and 12 meter bands?
     A. Upper sideband
     B. Lower sideband
     C. Vestigial sideband
     D. Double sideband

    G2B03    

  59.   If propagation changes during your contact and you notice increasing interference from other activity on the same frequency, what should you do?
     A. Tell the interfering stations to change frequency
     B. Report the interference to your local Amateur Auxiliary Coordinator
     C. As a common courtesy, move your contact to another frequency
     D. Increase power to overcome interference

    G2C04    

  60.   What does it mean when a CW operator sends "CL" at the end of a transmission?
     A. Keep frequency clear
     B. Operating full break-in
     C. Listening only for a specific station or stations
     D. Closing station

    G2D11    

  61.   Which HF antenna would be the best to use for minimizing interference?
     A. A quarter-wave vertical antenna
     B. An isotropic antenna
     C. A unidirectional antenna
     D. An omnidirectional antenna

    G2E02    

  62.   How many data bits are sent in a single PSK31 character?
     A. The number varies
     B. 5
     C. 7
     D. 8

    G3A15    

  63.   How long does it take charged particles from coronal mass ejections to affect radio-wave propagation on the Earth?
     A. 28 days
     B. 14 days
     C. 4 to 8 minutes
     D. 20 to 40 hours

    G3B06    

  64.   What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the Lowest Usable Frequency (LUF)?
     A. They are bent back to the Earth
     B. They pass through the ionosphere
     C. They are completely absorbed by the ionosphere
     D. They are bent and trapped in the ionosphere to circle the Earth

    G3C03    

  65.   Why is the F2 region mainly responsible for the longest distance radio wave propagation?
     A. Because it is the densest ionospheric layer
     B. Because it does not absorb radio waves as much as other ionospheric regions
     C. Because it is the highest ionospheric region
     D. All of these choices are correct

    G4A10    

  66.   What is the purpose of an electronic keyer?
     A. Automatic transmit/receive switching
     B. Automatic generation of strings of dots and dashes for CW operation
     C. VOX operation
     D. Computer interface for PSK and RTTY operation

    G4B02    

  67.   Which of the following is an advantage of an oscilloscope versus a digital voltmeter?
     A. An oscilloscope uses less power
     B. Complex impedances can be easily measured
     C. Input impedance is much lower
     D. Complex waveforms can be measured

    G4C12    

  68.   Which of the following is an advantage of a receiver Digital Signal Processor IF filter as compared to an analog filter?
     A. A wide range of filter bandwidths and shapes can be created
     B. Fewer digital components are required
     C. Mixing products are greatly reduced
     D. The DSP filter is much more effective at VHF frequencies

    G4D03    

  69.   Which of the following can be the result of an incorrectly adjusted speech processor?
     A. Distorted speech
     B. Splatter
     C. Excessive background pickup
     D. All of these choices are correct

    G4E09    

  70.   What is the approximate open-circuit voltage from a modern, well-illuminated photovoltaic cell?
     A. 0.02 VDC
     B. 0.5 VDC
     C. 0.2 VDC
     D. 1.38 VDC

    G5A10    

  71.   What unit is used to measure impedance?
     A. Volt
     B. Ohm
     C. Ampere
     D. Watt

    G5B01    

  72.   A two-times increase or decrease in power results in a change of how many dB?
     A. Approximately 2 dB
     B. Approximately 3 dB
     C. Approximately 6 dB
     D. Approximately 12 dB

    G5C14    

  73.   Which of the following components should be added to an inductor to increase the inductance?
     A. A capacitor in series
     B. A resistor in parallel
     C. An inductor in parallel
     D. An inductor in series

    G6A11    

  74.   Why would it be important to minimize the mutual inductance between two inductors?
     A. To increase the energy transfer between circuits
     B. To reduce unwanted coupling between circuits
     C. To reduce conducted emissions
     D. To increase the self-resonant frequency of the inductors

    G6B02    

  75.   What are two major ratings that must not be exceeded for silicon diode rectifiers?
     A. Peak inverse voltage; average forward current
     B. Average power; average voltage
     C. Capacitive reactance; avalanche voltage
     D. Peak load impedance; peak voltage

    G6C18    

  76.   What is a type SMA connector?
     A. A large bayonet-type connector usable at power levels in excess of 1 KW
     B. A small threaded connector suitable for signals up to several GHz
     C. A connector designed for serial multiple access signals
     D. A type of push-on connector intended for high-voltage applications

    G7A06    

  77.   What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a full-wave rectifier?
     A. 90 degrees
     B. 180 degrees
     C. 270 degrees
     D. 360 degrees

    G7B08    

  78.   How is the efficiency of an RF power amplifier determined?
     A. Divide the DC input power by the DC output power
     B. Divide the RF output power by the DC input power
     C. Multiply the RF input power by the reciprocal of the RF output power
     D. Add the RF input power to the DC output power

    G7C04    

  79.   What circuit is used to combine signals from the IF amplifier and BFO and send the result to the AF amplifier in a single-sideband receiver?
     A. RF oscillator
     B. IF filter
     C. Balanced modulator
     D. Product detector

    G8A03    

  80.   What is the name of the process which changes the frequency of an RF wave to convey information?
     A. Frequency convolution
     B. Frequency transformation
     C. Frequency conversion
     D. Frequency modulation

    G8B02    

  81.   If a receiver mixes a 13.800 MHz VFO with a 14.255 MHz received signal to produce a 455 kHz intermediate frequency (IF) signal, what type of interference will a 13.345 MHz signal produce in the receiver?
     A. Quadrature noise
     B. Image response
     C. Mixer interference
     D. Intermediate interference

    G9A01    

  82.   Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor antenna feed line?
     A. The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors
     B. The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line
     C. The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal
     D. The frequency of the signal and the length of the line

    G9B02    

  83.   What is an advantage of downward sloping radials on a quarter wave ground-plane antenna?
     A. They lower the radiation angle
     B. They bring the feed-point impedance closer to 300 ohms
     C. They increase the radiation angle
     D. They bring the feed-point impedance closer to 50 ohms

    G9C01    

  84.   Which of the following would increase the bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?
     A. Larger diameter elements
     B. Closer element spacing
     C. Loading coils in series with the element
     D. Tapered-diameter elements

    G9D06    

  85.   Which of the following is an advantage of a log periodic antenna?
     A. Wide bandwidth
     B. Higher gain per element than a Yagi antenna
     C. Harmonic suppression
     D. Polarization diversity

    T0A07    

  86.   Which of these precautions should be taken when installing devices for lightning protection in a coaxial cable feed line?
     A. Include a parallel bypass switch for each protector so that it can be switched out of the circuit when running high power
     B. Include a series switch in the ground line of each protector to prevent RF overload from inadvertently damaging the protector
     C. Keep the ground wires from each protector separate and connected to station ground
     D. Ground all of the protectors to a common plate which is in turn connected to an external ground

    T0B08    

  87.   What is considered to be a proper grounding method for a tower?
     A. A single four-foot ground rod, driven into the ground no more than 12 inches from the base
     B. A ferrite-core RF choke connected between the tower and ground
     C. Separate eight-foot long ground rods for each tower leg, bonded to the tower and each other
     D. A connection between the tower base and a cold water pipe

    T0C08    

  88.   Which of the following actions might amateur operators take to prevent exposure to RF radiation in excess of FCC-supplied limits?
     A. Relocate antennas
     B. Relocate the transmitter
     C. Increase the duty cycle
     D. All of these choices are correct

    T1A10     [97.3(a)(5)]

  89.   What is the FCC Part 97 definition of an amateur station?
     A. A station in the Amateur Radio Service consisting of the apparatus necessary for carrying on radio communications
     B. A building where Amateur Radio receivers, transmitters, and RF power amplifiers are installed
     C. Any radio station operated by a non-professional
     D. Any radio station for hobby use

    T1B02     [97.301]

  90.   Why are the frequency assignments for some U.S. Territories different from those in the 50 U.S. States?
     A. Some U. S. Territories are located in ITU regions other than region 2
     B. Territorial governments are allowed to select their own frequency allocations
     C. Territorial frequency allocations must also include those of adjacent countries
     D. Any territory that was in existence before the ratification of the Communications Act of 1934 is exempt from FCC frequency regulations

    T1C10     [97.5a]

  91.   How soon after passing the examination for your first amateur radio license may you operate a transmitter on an amateur service frequency?
     A. Immediately
     B. 30 days after the test date
     C. As soon as your operator/station license grant appears in the FCC's license database
     D. You must wait until you receive your license in the mail from the FCC

    T1D12    

  92.   Under which of the following circumstances may an amateur radio station engage in broadcasting?
     A. Under no circumstances
     B. When transmitting code practice, information bulletins, or transmissions necessary to provide emergency communications
     C. At any time as long as no music is transmitted
     D. At any time as long as the material being transmitted did not originate from a commercial broadcast station

    T1E08     [97.3(a)(6), 97.205(d)]

  93.   Which of the following is an example of automatic control?
     A. Repeater operation
     B. Controlling the station over the Internet
     C. Using a computer or other device to automatically send CW
     D. Using a computer or other device to automatically identify

    T1F03     [97.119(a)]

  94.   When is an amateur station required to transmit its assigned call sign?
     A. At the beginning of each contact, and every 10 minutes thereafter
     B. At least once during each transmission
     C. At least every 15 minutes during and at the end of a communication
     D. At least every 10 minutes during and at the end of a communication

    T2A12    

  95.   Which of the following is a guideline to use when choosing an operating frequency for calling CQ?
     A. Listen first to be sure that no one else is using the frequency
     B. Ask if the frequency is in use
     C. Make sure you are in your assigned band
     D. All of these choices are correct

    T2B07    

  96.   What could cause your FM signal to interfere with stations on nearby frequencies?
     A. Microphone gain too high, causing over-deviation
     B. SWR too high
     C. Incorrect CTCSS Tone
     D. All of these choices are correct

    T2C01     [97.103(a)]

  97.   When do the FCC rules NOT apply to the operation of an amateur station?
     A. When operating a RACES station
     B. When operating under special FEMA rules
     C. When operating under special ARES rules
     D. Never, FCC rules always apply

    T3A06    

  98.   What term is commonly used to describe the rapid fluttering sound sometimes heard from mobile stations that are moving while transmitting?
     A. Flip-flopping
     B. Picket fencing
     C. Frequency shifting
     D. Pulsing

    T3B11    

  99.   What is the approximate velocity of a radio wave as it travels through free space?
     A. 3000 kilometers per second
     B. 300,000,000 meters per second
     C. 300,000 miles per hour
     D. 186,000 miles per hour

    T3C04    

  100.   Which of the following propagation types is most commonly associated with occasional strong over-the-horizon signals on the 10, 6, and 2 meter bands?
     A. Backscatter
     B. Sporadic E
     C. D layer absorption
     D. Gray-line propagation

    T4A04    

  101.   Where must a filter be installed to reduce harmonic emissions from your station?
     A. Between the transmitter and the antenna
     B. Between the receiver and the transmitter
     C. At the station power supply
     D. At the microphone

    T4B01    

  102.   What may happen if a transmitter is operated with the microphone gain set too high?
     A. The output power might be too high
     B. The output signal might become distorted
     C. The frequency might vary
     D. The SWR might increase

    T5A09    

  103.   What is the name for a current that reverses direction on a regular basis?
     A. Alternating current
     B. Direct current
     C. Circular current
     D. Vertical current

    T5B10    

  104.   What is the approximate amount of change, measured in decibels (dB), of a power decrease from 12 watts to 3 watts?
     A. -1 dB
     B. -3 dB
     C. -6 dB
     D. -9 dB

    T5C10    

  105.   How much power is being used in a circuit when the applied voltage is 12 volts DC and the current is 2.5 amperes?
     A. 4.8 watts
     B. 30 watts
     C. 14.5 watts
     D. 0.208 watts

    T5D10    

  106.   What is the voltage across a 2-ohm resistor if a current of 0.5 amperes flows through it?
     A. 1 volt
     B. 0.25 volts
     C. 2.5 volts
     D. 1.5 volts

    T6A08    

  107.   What electrical component is used to connect or disconnect electrical circuits?
     A. Magnetron
     B. Switch
     C. Thermistor
     D. All of these choices are correct

    T6B02    

  108.   What electronic component allows current to flow in only one direction?
     A. Resistor
     B. Fuse
     C. Diode
     D. Driven Element

    T6C09    

  109.   What is component 4 in figure T2?
     A. Variable inductor
     B. Double-pole switch
     C. Potentiometer
     D. Transformer

    T6D09    

  110.   What is the name of a device that combines several semiconductors and other components into one package?
     A. Transducer
     B. Multi-pole relay
     C. Integrated circuit
     D. Transformer

    T7A05    

  111.   What is the name of a circuit that generates a signal of a desired frequency?
     A. Reactance modulator
     B. Product detector
     C. Low-pass filter
     D. Oscillator

    T7B06    

  112.   Which of the following actions should you take if a neighbor tells you that your station's transmissions are interfering with their radio or TV reception?
     A. Make sure that your station is functioning properly and that it does not cause interference to your own radio or television when it is tuned to the same channel
     B. Immediately turn off your transmitter and contact the nearest FCC office for assistance
     C. Tell them that your license gives you the right to transmit and nothing can be done to reduce the interference
     D. Install a harmonic doubler on the output of your transmitter and tune it until the interference is eliminated

    T7C06    

  113.   What does an SWR reading of 4:1 indicate?
     A. Loss of -4dB
     B. Good impedance match
     C. Gain of +4dB
     D. Impedance mismatch

    T7D01    

  114.   Which instrument would you use to measure electric potential or electromotive force?
     A. An ammeter
     B. A voltmeter
     C. A wavemeter
     D. An ohmmeter

    T8A03    

  115.   Which type of voice mode is most often used for long-distance (weak signal) contacts on the VHF and UHF bands?
     A. FM
     B. DRM
     C. SSB
     D. PM

    T8B08    

  116.   What is meant by the statement that a satellite is operating in mode U/V?
     A. The satellite uplink is in the 15 meter band and the downlink is in the 10 meter band
     B. The satellite uplink is in the 70 cm band and the downlink is in the 2 meter band
     C. The satellite operates using ultraviolet frequencies
     D. The satellite frequencies are usually variable

    T8C12    

  117.   What is meant by Voice Over Internet Protocol (VoIP) as used in amateur radio?
     A. A set of rules specifying how to identify your station when linked over the Internet to another station
     B. A set of guidelines for working DX during contests using Internet access
     C. A technique for measuring the modulation quality of a transmitter using remote sites monitored via the Internet
     D. A method of delivering voice communications over the Internet using digital techniques

    T8D01    

  118.   Which of the following is an example of a digital communications method?
     A. Packet
     B. PSK31
     C. MFSK
     D. All of these choices are correct

    T9A08    

  119.   What is the approximate length, in inches, of a quarter-wavelength vertical antenna for 146 MHz?
     A. 112
     B. 50
     C. 19
     D. 12

    T9B01    

  120.   Why is it important to have a low SWR in an antenna system that uses coaxial cable feed line?
     A. To reduce television interference
     B. To allow the efficient transfer of power and reduce losses
     C. To prolong antenna life
     D. All of these choices are correct