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About Practice Exam -

    G1A02     [97.305]

  1.   On which of the following bands is phone operation prohibited?
     A. 160 meters
     B. 30 meters
     C. 17 meters
     D. 12 meters

    E1A03     [97.301, 97.305]

  2.   With your transceiver displaying the carrier frequency of phone signals, you hear a station calling CQ on 14.349 MHz USB. Is it legal to return the call using upper sideband on the same frequency?
     A. Yes, because you were not the station calling CQ
     B. Yes, because the displayed frequency is within the 20 meter band
     C. No, the sideband will extend beyond the band edge
     D. No, U.S. stations are not permitted to use phone emissions above 14.340 MHz

    T1A04     [97.3(a)(23)]

  3.   Which of the following meets the FCC definition of harmful interference?
     A. Radio transmissions that annoy users of a repeater
     B. Unwanted radio transmissions that cause costly harm to radio station apparatus
     C. That which seriously degrades, obstructs, or repeatedly interrupts a radio communication service operating in accordance with the Radio Regulations
     D. Static from lightning storms

    G1B09     [97.113(a)(3)]

  4.   When may an amateur station transmit communications in which the licensee or control operator has a pecuniary (monetary) interest?
     A. When other amateurs are being notified of the sale of apparatus normally used in an amateur station and such activity is not done on a regular basis
     B. Only when there is no other means of communications readily available
     C. When other amateurs are being notified of the sale of any item with a monetary value less than $200 and such activity is not done on a regular basis
     D. Never

    T1B09     [97.101(a), 97.301(a-e)]

  5.   Why should you not set your transmit frequency to be exactly at the edge of an amateur band or sub-band?
     A. To allow for calibration error in the transmitter frequency display
     B. So that modulation sidebands do not extend beyond the band edge
     C. To allow for transmitter frequency drift
     D. All of these choices are correct

    E1B10     [97.407]

  6.   What frequencies are authorized to an amateur station operating under RACES rules?
     A. All amateur service frequencies authorized to the control operator
     B. Specific segments in the amateur service MF, HF, VHF and UHF bands
     C. Specific local government channels
     D. Military Auxiliary Radio System (MARS) channels

    G1C01     [97.313(c)(1)]

  7.   What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?
     A. 200 watts PEP output
     B. 1000 watts PEP output
     C. 1500 watts PEP output
     D. 2000 watts PEP output

    E1C10     [97.113]

  8.   What types of amateur stations may automatically retransmit the radio signals of other amateur stations?
     A. Only beacon, repeater or space stations
     B. Only auxiliary, repeater or space stations
     C. Only earth stations, repeater stations or model craft
     D. Only auxiliary, beacon or space stations

    T1C14     [97.21(a) (1)]

  9.   Who may select a vanity call sign for a club station?
     A. Any Extra Class member of the club
     B. Any member of the club
     C. Any officer of the club
     D. Only the person named as trustee on the club station license grant

    T1D02     [97.111(a)(5)]

  10.   On which of the following occasions may an FCC-licensed amateur station exchange messages with a U.S. military station?
     A. During an Armed Forces Day Communications Test
     B. During a Memorial Day Celebration
     C. During an Independence Day celebration
     D. During a propagation test

    G1D09     [97.9(b)]

  11.   How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?
     A. 30 days
     B. 180 days
     C. 365 days
     D. For as long as your current license is valid

    E1D09     [97.207]

  12.   Which UHF amateur service bands have frequencies available for a space station?
     A. 70 cm only
     B. 70 cm and 13 cm
     C. 70 cm and 33 cm
     D. 33 cm and 13 cm

    G1E02     [97.205(b)]

  13.   When may a 10-meter repeater retransmit the 2-meter signal from a station having a Technician Class control operator?
     A. Under no circumstances
     B. Only if the station on 10-meters is operating under a Special Temporary Authorization allowing such retransmission
     C. Only during an FCC declared general state of communications emergency
     D. Only if the 10-meter repeater control operator holds at least a General Class license

    T1E07     [97.103(a)]

  14.   When the control operator is not the station licensee, who is responsible for the proper operation of the station?
     A. All licensed amateurs who are present at the operation
     B. Only the station licensee
     C. Only the control operator
     D. The control operator and the station licensee are equally responsible

    E1E08     [97.509]

  15.   To which of the following examinees may a VE not administer an examination?
     A. Employees of the VE
     B. Friends of the VE
     C. Relatives of the VE as listed in the FCC rules
     D. All of these choices are correct

    E1F07     [97.113]

  16.   When may an amateur station send a message to a business?
     A. When the total money involved does not exceed $25
     B. When the control operator is employed by the FCC or another government agency
     C. When transmitting international third-party communications
     D. When neither the amateur nor his or her employer has a pecuniary interest in the communications

    T1F08     [97.119(f)]

  17.   Which indicator is required by the FCC to be transmitted after a station call sign?
     A. /M when operating mobile
     B. /R when operating a repeater
     C. / followed the FCC Region number when operating out of the region in which the license was issued
     D. /KT, /AE or /AG when using new license privileges earned by CSCE while waiting for an upgrade to a previously issued license to appear in the FCC license database


  18.   What is the direction of a descending pass for an amateur satellite?
     A. From north to south
     B. From west to east
     C. From east to west
     D. From south to north


  19.   Which mode of voice communication is most commonly used on the HF amateur bands?
     A. Frequency modulation
     B. Double sideband
     C. Single sideband
     D. Phase modulation


  20.   Which of the following is true when making a test transmission?
     A. Station identification is not required if the transmission is less than 15 seconds
     B. Station identification is not required if the transmission is less than 1 watt
     C. Station identification is only required once an hour when the transmissions are for test purposes only
     D. Station identification is required at least every ten minutes during the test and at the end of the test


  21.   What is the term used to describe the use of a sub-audible tone transmitted with normal voice audio to open the squelch of a receiver?
     A. Carrier squelch
     B. Tone burst
     C. DTMF
     D. CTCSS


  22.   What is vestigial sideband modulation?
     A. Amplitude modulation in which one complete sideband and a portion of the other are transmitted
     B. A type of modulation in which one sideband is inverted
     C. Narrow-band FM modulation achieved by filtering one sideband from the audio before frequency modulating the carrier
     D. Spread spectrum modulation achieved by applying FM modulation following single sideband amplitude modulation

    G2B10     [97.407(b)]

  23.   When may the FCC restrict normal frequency operations of amateur stations participating in RACES?
     A. When they declare a temporary state of communication emergency
     B. When they seize your equipment for use in disaster communications
     C. Only when all amateur stations are instructed to stop transmitting
     D. When the President’s War Emergency Powers have been invoked


  24.   What do RACES and ARES have in common?
     A. They represent the two largest ham clubs in the United States
     B. Both organizations broadcast road and weather information
     C. Neither may handle emergency traffic supporting public service agencies
     D. Both organizations may provide communications during emergencies


  25.   What does the term "zero beat" mean in CW operation?
     A. Matching the speed of the transmitting station
     B. Operating split to avoid interference on frequency
     C. Sending without error
     D. Matching your transmit frequency to the frequency of a received signal


  26.   How should you generally identify your station when attempting to contact a DX station during a contest or in a pileup?
     A. Send your full call sign once or twice
     B. Send only the last two letters of your call sign until you make contact
     C. Send your full call sign and grid square
     D. Send the call sign of the DX station three times, the words "this is", then your call sign three times


  27.   Which of the following are objectives of the Amateur Auxiliary?
     A. To conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing examinations
     B. To encourage self-regulation and compliance with the rules by radio amateur operators
     C. To coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly spectrum usage
     D. To provide emergency and public safety communications


  28.   What type of packet frame is used to transmit APRS beacon data?
     A. Unnumbered Information
     B. Disconnect
     C. Acknowledgement
     D. Connect


  29.   What is the most common data rate used for HF packet?
     A. 48 baud
     B. 110 baud
     C. 300 baud
     D. 1200 baud


  30.   What is indicated on a waterfall display by one or more vertical lines adjacent to a PSK31 signal?
     A. Long Path propagation
     B. Backscatter propagation
     C. Insufficient modulation
     D. Overmodulation


  31.   What type of wave carries radio signals between transmitting and receiving stations?
     A. Electromagnetic
     B. Electrostatic
     C. Surface acoustic
     D. Magnetostrictive


  32.   Which of the following frequency range is most suited for meteor scatter communications?
     A. 1.8 MHz - 1.9 MHz
     B. 10 MHz - 14 MHz
     C. 28 MHz - 148 MHz
     D. 220 MHz - 450 MHz


  33.   What is a possible benefit to radio communications resulting from periods of high geomagnetic activity?
     A. Auroras that can reflect VHF signals
     B. Higher signal strength for HF signals passing through the polar regions
     C. Improved HF long path propagation
     D. Reduced long delayed echoes


  34.   What is meant by the terms extraordinary and ordinary waves?
     A. Extraordinary waves describe rare long skip propagation compared to ordinary waves which travel shorter distances
     B. Independent waves created in the ionosphere that are elliptically polarized
     C. Long path and short path waves
     D. Refracted rays and reflected waves


  35.   What are the frequency limits of the UHF spectrum?
     A. 30 to 300 kHz
     B. 30 to 300 MHz
     C. 300 to 3000 kHz
     D. 300 to 3000 MHz


  36.   What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?
     A. 180 miles
     B. 1,200 miles
     C. 2,500 miles
     D. 12,000 miles


  37.   What orientation of Bz (B sub z) increases the likelihood that incoming particles from the Sun will cause disturbed conditions?
     A. Southward
     B. Northward
     C. Eastward
     D. Westward


  38.   What makes HF scatter signals often sound distorted?
     A. The ionospheric layer involved is unstable
     B. Ground waves are absorbing much of the signal
     C. The E-region is not present
     D. Energy is scattered into the skip zone through several different radio wave paths


  39.   Why do VHF and UHF radio signals usually travel somewhat farther than the visual line of sight distance between two stations?
     A. Radio signals move somewhat faster than the speed of light
     B. Radio waves are not blocked by dust particles
     C. The Earth seems less curved to radio waves than to light
     D. Radio waves are blocked by dust particles


  40.   Which of the following is true concerning the microphone connectors on amateur transceivers?
     A. All transceivers use the same microphone connector type
     B. Some connectors include push-to-talk and voltages for powering the microphone
     C. All transceivers using the same connector type are wired identically
     D. Un-keyed connectors allow any microphone to be connected


  41.   When using a computer's soundcard input to digitize signals, what is the highest frequency signal that can be digitized without aliasing?
     A. The same as the sample rate
     B. One-half the sample rate
     C. One-tenth the sample rate
     D. It depends on how the data is stored internally


  42.   What is likely to happen if a transceiver’s ALC system is not set properly when transmitting AFSK signals with the radio using single sideband mode?
     A. ALC will invert the modulation of the AFSK mode
     B. Improper action of ALC distorts the signal and can cause spurious emissions
     C. When using digital modes, too much ALC activity can cause the transmitter to overheat
     D. All of these choices are correct


  43.   What may happen if a transmitter is operated with the microphone gain set too high?
     A. The output power might be too high
     B. The output signal might become distorted
     C. The frequency might vary
     D. The SWR might increase


  44.   What is an advantage of using a bridge circuit to measure impedance?
     A. It provides an excellent match under all conditions
     B. It is relatively immune to drift in the signal generator source
     C. It is very precise in obtaining a signal null
     D. It can display results directly in Smith chart format


  45.   What signals are used to conduct a two-tone test?
     A. Two audio signals of the same frequency shifted 90 degrees
     B. Two non-harmonically related audio signals
     C. Two swept frequency tones
     D. Two audio frequency range square wave signals of equal amplitude


  46.   What is an effect of excessive phase noise in the local oscillator section of a receiver?
     A. It limits the receiver's ability to receive strong signals
     B. It reduces receiver sensitivity
     C. It decreases receiver third-order intermodulation distortion dynamic range
     D. It can cause strong signals on nearby frequencies to interfere with reception of weak signals


  47.   Which of the following is an advantage of a receiver DSP IF filter as compared to an analog filter?
     A. A wide range of filter bandwidths and shapes can be created
     B. Fewer digital components are required
     C. Mixing products are greatly reduced
     D. The DSP filter is much more effective at VHF frequencies


  48.   What is the term for unwanted signals generated by the mixing of two or more signals?
     A. Amplifier desensitization
     B. Neutralization
     C. Adjacent channel interference
     D. Intermodulation interference


  49.   How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9?
     A. Approximately 1.5 times
     B. Approximately 2 times
     C. Approximately 4 times
     D. Approximately 8 times


  50.   Which of the following most limits the effectiveness of an HF mobile transceiver operating in the 75-meter band?
     A. "Picket Fencing" signal variation
     B. The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver
     C. The antenna system
     D. FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75-meter band


  51.   What current flows equally on all conductors of an unshielded multi-conductor cable?
     A. Differential-mode current
     B. Common-mode current
     C. Reactive current only
     D. Return current


  52.   Which of the following is a good electrical conductor?
     A. Glass
     B. Wood
     C. Copper
     D. Rubber


  53.   What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer?
     A. To minimize transmitter power output
     B. To maximize the transfer of power
     C. To reduce power supply ripple
     D. To minimize radiation resistance


  54.   Which of the following can increase Q for inductors and capacitors?
     A. Lower losses
     B. Lower reactance
     C. Lower self-resonant frequency
     D. Higher self-resonant frequency


  55.   What is the term for the time it takes for a charged capacitor in an RC circuit to discharge to 36.8% of its initial voltage?
     A. One discharge period
     B. An exponential discharge rate of one
     C. A discharge factor of one
     D. One time constant


  56.   How many watts of electrical power are used by a 12 VDC light bulb that draws 0.2 amperes?
     A. 2.4 watts
     B. 24 watts
     C. 6 watts
     D. 60 watts


  57.   If an ammeter calibrated in amperes is used to measure a 3000-milliampere current, what reading would it show?
     A. 0.003 amperes
     B. 0.3 amperes
     C. 3 amperes
     D. 3,000,000 amperes


  58.   What causes a voltage to appear across the secondary winding of a transformer when an AC voltage source is connected across its primary winding?
     A. Capacitive coupling
     B. Displacement current coupling
     C. Mutual inductance
     D. Mutual capacitance


  59.   What is the formula used to calculate electrical power in a DC circuit?
     A. Power (P) equals voltage (E) multiplied by current (I)
     B. Power (P) equals voltage (E) divided by current (I)
     C. Power (P) equals voltage (E) minus current (I)
     D. Power (P) equals voltage (E) plus current (I)


  60.   Which point on Figure E5-2 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300 ohm resistor, a 0.64-microhenry inductor and an 85-picofarad capacitor at 24.900 MHz?
     A. Point 1
     B. Point 3
     C. Point 5
     D. Point 8


  61.   In what direction is the magnetic field oriented about a conductor in relation to the direction of electron flow?
     A. In the same direction as the current
     B. In a direction opposite to the current
     C. In all directions; omni-directional
     D. In a direction determined by the left-hand rule


  62.   What is the resistance of a circuit that draws 4 amperes from a 12-volt source?
     A. 3 ohms
     B. 16 ohms
     C. 48 ohms
     D. 8 Ohms


  63.   What type of electrical component stores energy in a magnetic field?
     A. Resistor
     B. Capacitor
     C. Inductor
     D. Diode


  64.   What are the stable operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch in a logic circuit?
     A. Its saturation and cutoff regions
     B. Its active region (between the cutoff and saturation regions)
     C. Its peak and valley current points
     D. Its enhancement and depletion modes


  65.   In Figure E6-2, what is the schematic symbol for a P-channel junction FET?
     A. 1
     B. 2
     C. 3
     D. 6


  66.   What is meant when memory is characterized as non-volatile?
     A. It is resistant to radiation damage
     B. It is resistant to high temperatures
     C. The stored information is maintained even if power is removed
     D. The stored information cannot be changed once written


  67.   What is the failure mechanism when a junction diode fails due to excessive current?
     A. Excessive inverse voltage
     B. Excessive junction temperature
     C. Insufficient forward voltage
     D. Charge carrier depletion


  68.   What is the term that describes a transistor's ability to amplify a signal?
     A. Gain
     B. Forward resistance
     C. Forward voltage drop
     D. On resistance


  69.   What is a Programmable Logic Device (PLD)?
     A. A device to control industrial equipment
     B. A programmable collection of logic gates and circuits in a single integrated circuit
     C. Programmable equipment used for testing digital logic integrated circuits
     D. An algorithm for simulating logic functions during circuit design


  70.   Which of the following is accurately represented in electrical circuit schematic diagrams?
     A. Wire lengths
     B. Physical appearance of components
     C. The way components are interconnected
     D. All of these choices are correct


  71.   What is a simple resonant or tuned circuit?
     A. An inductor and a capacitor connected in series or parallel to form a filter
     B. A type of voltage regulator
     C. A resistor circuit used for reducing standing wave ratio
     D. A circuit designed to provide high fidelity audio


  72.   What is the definition of saturation in a ferrite core inductor?
     A. The inductor windings are over coupled
     B. The inductor's voltage rating is exceeded causing a flashover
     C. The ability of the inductor's core to store magnetic energy has been exceeded
     D. Adjacent inductors become over-coupled


  73.   Which of the following component package types would be most suitable for use at frequencies above the HF range?
     A. TO-220
     B. Axial lead
     C. Radial lead
     D. Surface mount


  74.   What is the most common type of photovoltaic cell used for electrical power generation?
     A. Selenium
     B. Silicon
     C. Cadmium Sulfide
     D. Copper oxide


  75.   How many flip-flops are required to divide a signal frequency by 4?
     A. 1
     B. 2
     C. 4
     D. 8


  76.   What device takes the output of a low-powered 28 MHz SSB exciter and produces a 222 MHz output signal?
     A. High-pass filter
     B. Low-pass filter
     C. Transverter
     D. Phase converter


  77.   What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a full-wave rectifier?
     A. 90 degrees
     B. 180 degrees
     C. 270 degrees
     D. 360 degrees


  78.   What can you do if you are told your FM handheld or mobile transceiver is over-deviating?
     A. Talk louder into the microphone
     B. Let the transceiver cool off
     C. Change to a higher power level
     D. Talk farther away from the microphone


  79.   How is the efficiency of an RF power amplifier determined?
     A. Divide the DC input power by the DC output power
     B. Divide the RF output power by the DC input power
     C. Multiply the RF input power by the reciprocal of the RF output power
     D. Add the RF input power to the DC output power


  80.   Why are switching amplifiers more efficient than linear amplifiers?
     A. Switching amplifiers operate at higher voltages
     B. The power transistor is at saturation or cut off most of the time, resulting in low power dissipation
     C. Linear amplifiers have high gain resulting in higher harmonic content
     D. Switching amplifiers use push-pull circuits


  81.   What is the approximate SWR value above which the protection circuits in most solid-state transmitters begin to reduce transmitter power?
     A. 2 to 1
     B. 1 to 2
     C. 6 to 1
     D. 10 to 1


  82.   How is Digital Signal Processor filtering accomplished?
     A. By using direct signal phasing
     B. By converting the signal from analog to digital and using digital processing
     C. By differential spurious phasing
     D. By converting the signal from digital to analog and taking the difference of mixing products


  83.   Which of the following filters would be the best choice for use in a 2 meter repeater duplexer?
     A. A crystal filter
     B. A cavity filter
     C. A DSP filter
     D. An L-C filter


  84.   Which of the following types of solder is best for radio and electronic use?
     A. Acid-core solder
     B. Silver solder
     C. Rosin-core solder
     D. Aluminum solder


  85.   What is the purpose of a "step-start" circuit in a high voltage power supply?
     A. To provide a dual-voltage output for reduced power applications
     B. To compensate for variations of the incoming line voltage
     C. To allow for remote control of the power supply
     D. To allow the filter capacitors to charge gradually


  86.   Which of the following can be used to generate FM phone emissions?
     A. A balanced modulator on the audio amplifier
     B. A reactance modulator on the oscillator
     C. A reactance modulator on the final amplifier
     D. A balanced modulator on the oscillator


  87.   What sets the minimum detectable signal level for an SDR in the absence of atmospheric or thermal noise?
     A. Sample clock phase noise
     B. Reference voltage level and sample width in bits
     C. Data storage transfer rate
     D. Missing codes and jitter


  88.   What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-4 when R1 is 1800 ohms and RF is 68 kilohms?
     A. 1
     B. 0.03
     C. 38
     D. 76


  89.   Which describes a microphonic?
     A. An IC used for amplifying microphone signals
     B. Distortion caused by RF pickup on the microphone cable
     C. Changes in oscillator frequency due to mechanical vibration
     D. Excess loading of the microphone by an oscillator


  90.   What is the approximate ratio of PEP-to-average power in a typical single-sideband phone signal?
     A. 2.5 to 1
     B. 25 to 1
     C. 1 to 1
     D. 100 to 1


  91.   What is one advantage of carrier suppression in a single sideband phone transmission versus full carrier amplitude modulation?
     A. Audio fidelity is improved
     B. Greater modulation percentage is obtainable with lower distortion
     C. Available transmitter power can be used more effectively
     D. Simpler receiving equipment can be used


  92.   What is the primary advantage of single sideband over FM for voice transmissions?
     A. SSB signals are easier to tune
     B. SSB signals are less susceptible to interference
     C. SSB signals have narrower bandwidth
     D. All of these choices are correct


  93.   What is the approximate bandwidth of a PACTOR3 signal at maximum data rate?
     A. 31.5 Hz
     B. 500 Hz
     C. 1800 Hz
     D. 2300 Hz


  94.   With regard to satellite communications, what is Doppler shift?
     A. A change in the satellite orbit
     B. A mode where the satellite receives signals on one band and transmits on another
     C. An observed change in signal frequency caused by relative motion between the satellite and the earth station
     D. A special digital communications mode for some satellites


  95.   What is meant by deviation ratio?
     A. The ratio of the audio modulating frequency to the center carrier frequency
     B. The ratio of the maximum carrier frequency deviation to the highest audio modulating frequency
     C. The ratio of the carrier center frequency to the audio modulating frequency
     D. The ratio of the highest audio modulating frequency to the average audio modulating frequency


  96.   Which of the following digital modes is designed to operate at extremely low signal strength on the HF bands?
     A. FSK441 and Hellschreiber
     B. JT9 and JT65
     C. Clover
     D. RTTY


  97.   What is the necessary bandwidth of a 170-hertz shift, 300-baud ASCII transmission?
     A. 0.1 Hz
     B. 0.3 kHz
     C. 0.5 kHz
     D. 1.0 kHz

    T8C08     [97.215(a)]

  98.   What is required in place of on-air station identification when sending signals to a radio control model using amateur frequencies?
     A. Voice identification must be transmitted every 10 minutes
     B. Morse code ID must be sent once per hour
     C. A label indicating the licensee's name, call sign and address must be affixed to the transmitter
     D. A flag must be affixed to the transmitter antenna with the station call sign in 1 inch high letters or larger


  99.   What is a common cause of overmodulation of AFSK signals?
     A. Excessive numbers of retries
     B. Ground loops
     C. Bit errors in the modem
     D. Excessive transmit audio levels


  100.   What is an ARQ transmission system?
     A. A special transmission format limited to video signals
     B. A system used to encrypt command signals to an amateur radio satellite
     C. A digital scheme whereby the receiving station detects errors and sends a request to the sending station to retransmit the information
     D. A method of compressing the data in a message so more information can be sent in a shorter time


  101.   How is antenna efficiency calculated?
     A. (radiation resistance / transmission resistance) x 100 per cent
     B. (radiation resistance / total resistance) x 100 per cent
     C. (total resistance / radiation resistance) x 100 per cent
     D. (effective radiated power / transmitter output) x 100 percent


  102.   Why are VHF or UHF mobile antennas often mounted in the center of the vehicle roof?
     A. Roof mounts have the lowest possible SWR of any mounting configuration
     B. Only roof mounting can guarantee a vertically polarized signal
     C. A roof mounted antenna normally provides the most uniform radiation pattern
     D. Roof mounted antennas are always the easiest to install


  103.   What is the interaction between high standing wave ratio (SWR) and transmission line loss?
     A. There is no interaction between transmission line loss and SWR
     B. If a transmission line is lossy, high SWR will increase the loss
     C. High SWR makes it difficult to measure transmission line loss
     D. High SWR reduces the relative effect of transmission line loss


  104.   What generally happens as the frequency of a signal passing through coaxial cable is increased?
     A. The apparent SWR increases
     B. The reflected power increases
     C. The characteristic impedance increases
     D. The loss increases


  105.   How can the approximate beam-width in a given plane of a directional antenna be determined?
     A. Note the two points where the signal strength of the antenna is 3 dB less than maximum and compute the angular difference
     B. Measure the ratio of the signal strengths of the radiated power lobes from the front and rear of the antenna
     C. Draw two imaginary lines through the ends of the elements and measure the angle between the lines
     D. Measure the ratio of the signal strengths of the radiated power lobes from the front and side of the antenna


  106.   Which of the following is an advantage of a horizontally polarized as compared to a vertically polarized HF antenna?
     A. Lower ground reflection losses
     B. Lower feed point impedance
     C. Shorter Radials
     D. Lower radiation resistance


  107.   What is the approximate feed point impedance at the center of a two-wire folded dipole antenna?
     A. 300 ohms
     B. 72 ohms
     C. 50 ohms
     D. 450 ohms


  108.   What is meant by the "main lobe" of a directive antenna?
     A. The magnitude of the maximum vertical angle of radiation
     B. The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element
     C. The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating element
     D. The direction of maximum radiated field strength from the antenna


  109.   How can linearly polarized Yagi antennas be used to produce circular polarization?
     A. Stack two Yagis fed 90 degrees out of phase to form an array with the respective elements in parallel planes
     B. Stack two Yagis fed in phase to form an array with the respective elements in parallel planes
     C. Arrange two Yagis perpendicular to each other with the driven elements at the same point on the boom fed 90 degrees out of phase
     D. Arrange two Yagis collinear to each other with the driven elements fed 180 degrees out of phase


  110.   Which of the following describes a Beverage antenna?
     A. A vertical antenna
     B. A broad-band mobile antenna
     C. A helical antenna for space reception
     D. A very long and low directional receiving antenna


  111.   What is an effective way of matching a feed line to a VHF or UHF antenna when the impedances of both the antenna and feed line are unknown?
     A. Use a 50 ohm 1:1 balun between the antenna and feed line
     B. Use the universal stub matching technique
     C. Connect a series-resonant LC network across the antenna feed terminals
     D. Connect a parallel-resonant LC network across the antenna feed terminals


  112.   Which of the following is a significant difference between foam dielectric coaxial cable and solid dielectric cable, assuming all other parameters are the same?
     A. Foam dielectric has lower safe operating voltage limits
     B. Foam dielectric has lower loss per unit of length
     C. Foam dielectric has higher velocity factor
     D. All of these choices are correct


  113.   Which of the following is often determined using a Smith chart?
     A. Beam headings and radiation patterns
     B. Satellite azimuth and elevation bearings
     C. Impedance and SWR values in transmission lines
     D. Trigonometric functions


  114.   What is the main drawback of a wire-loop antenna for direction finding?
     A. It has a bidirectional pattern
     B. It is non-rotatable
     C. It receives equally well in all directions
     D. It is practical for use only on VHF bands


  115.   How may dangerous levels of carbon monoxide from an emergency generator be detected?
     A. By the odor
     B. Only with a carbon monoxide detector
     C. Any ordinary smoke detector can be used
     D. By the yellowish appearance of the gas


  116.   What kind of hazard is presented by a conventional 12-volt storage battery?
     A. It emits ozone which can be harmful to the atmosphere
     B. Shock hazard due to high voltage
     C. Explosive gas can collect if not properly vented
     D. All of these choices are correct


  117.   What is one thing that can be done if evaluation shows that a neighbor might receive more than the allowable limit of RF exposure from the main lobe of a directional antenna?
     A. Change to a non-polarized antenna with higher gain
     B. Post a warning sign that is clearly visible to the neighbor
     C. Use an antenna with a higher front-to-back ratio
     D. Take precautions to ensure that the antenna cannot be pointed in their direction


  118.   Which of the following establishes grounding requirements for an amateur radio tower or antenna?
     A. FCC Part 97 Rules
     B. Local electrical codes
     C. FAA tower lighting regulations
     D. Underwriters Laboratories' recommended practices


  119.   What is the purpose of a power supply interlock?
     A. To prevent unauthorized changes to the circuit that would void the manufacturer’s warranty
     B. To shut down the unit if it becomes too hot
     C. To ensure that dangerous voltages are removed if the cabinet is opened
     D. To shut off the power supply if too much voltage is produced


  120.   Why do exposure limits vary with frequency?
     A. Lower frequency RF fields have more energy than higher frequency fields
     B. Lower frequency RF fields do not penetrate the human body
     C. Higher frequency RF fields are transient in nature
     D. The human body absorbs more RF energy at some frequencies than at others