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eHam.net Practice Exam -


    E0A04    

  1.   When evaluating a site with multiple transmitters operating at the same time, the operators and licensees of which transmitters are responsible for mitigating over-exposure situations?
     A. Only the most powerful transmitter
     B. Only commercial transmitters
     C. Each transmitter that produces 5% or more of its MPE exposure limit at accessible locations
     D. Each transmitter operating with a duty-cycle greater than 50%

    E1A03     [97.301, 97.305]

  2.   With your transceiver displaying the carrier frequency of phone signals, you hear a DX station's CQ on 14.349 MHz USB. Is it legal to return the call using upper sideband on the same frequency?
     A. Yes, because the DX station initiated the contact
     B. Yes, because the displayed frequency is within the 20 meter band
     C. No, my sidebands will extend beyond the band edge
     D. No, USA stations are not permitted to use phone emissions above 14.340 MHz

    E1B02     [97.13]

  3.   Which of the following factors might cause the physical location of an amateur station apparatus or antenna structure to be restricted?
     A. The location is near an area of political conflict
     B. The location is of geographical or horticultural importance
     C. The location is in an ITU zone designated for coordination with one or more foreign governments
     D. The location is of environmental importance or significant in American history, architecture, or culture

    E1C01     [97.3]

  4.   What is a remotely controlled station?
     A. A station operated away from its regular home location
     B. A station controlled by someone other than the licensee
     C. A station operating under automatic control
     D. A station controlled indirectly through a control link

    E1D04     [97.3]

  5.   What is an Earth station in the amateur satellite service?
     A. An amateur station within 50 km of the Earth's surface intended for communications with amateur stations by means of objects in space
     B. An amateur station that is not able to communicate using amateur satellites
     C. An amateur station that transmits telemetry consisting of measurement of upper atmosphere data from space
     D. Any amateur station on the surface of the Earth

    E1E01     [97.509]

  6.   What is the minimum number of qualified VEs required to administer an Element 4 amateur operator license examination?
     A. 5
     B. 2
     C. 4
     D. 3

    E1F03     [97.315]

  7.   Under what circumstances may a dealer sell an external RF power amplifier capable of operation below 144 MHz if it has not been granted FCC certification?
     A. It was purchased in used condition from an amateur operator and is sold to another amateur operator for use at that operator's station
     B. The equipment dealer assembled it from a kit
     C. It was imported from a manufacturer in a country that does not require certification of RF power amplifiers
     D. It was imported from a manufacturer in another country, and it was certificated by that country's government

    E2A01    

  8.   What is the direction of an ascending pass for an amateur satellite?
     A. From west to east
     B. From east to west
     C. From south to north
     D. From north to south

    E2B01    

  9.   How many times per second is a new frame transmitted in a fast-scan (NTSC) television system?
     A. 30
     B. 60
     C. 90
     D. 120

    E2C09    

  10.   How does the spread-spectrum technique of frequency hopping work?
     A. If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to change frequencies
     B. If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to wait until the frequency is clear
     C. A pseudo-random binary bit stream is used to shift the phase of an RF carrier very rapidly in a particular sequence
     D. The frequency of the transmitted signal is changed very rapidly according to a particular sequence also used by the receiving station

    E2D08    

  11.   Which of the following types of packet frames is used to transmit APRS beacon data?
     A. Unnumbered Information
     B. Disconnect
     C. Acknowledgement
     D. Connect

    E2E09    

  12.   Which of the following HF digital modes uses variable-length coding for bandwidth efficiency?
     A. RTTY
     B. PACTOR
     C. MT63
     D. PSK31

    E3A02    

  13.   What characterizes libration fading of an Earth-Moon-Earth signal?
     A. A slow change in the pitch of the CW signal
     B. A fluttery irregular fading
     C. A gradual loss of signal as the Sun rises
     D. The returning echo is several Hertz lower in frequency than the transmitted signal

    E3B04    

  14.   What type of propagation is probably occurring if an HF beam antenna must be pointed in a direction 180 degrees away from a station to receive the strongest signals?
     A. Long-path
     B. Sporadic-E
     C. Transequatorial
     D. Auroral

    E3C13    

  15.   What type of polarization is best for ground-wave propagation?
     A. Vertical
     B. Horizontal
     C. Circular
     D. Elliptical

    E4A07    

  16.   Which of the following is an advantage of using an antenna analyzer compared to an SWR bridge to measure antenna SWR?
     A. Antenna analyzers automatically tune your antenna for resonance
     B. Antenna analyzers do not need an external RF source
     C. Antenna analyzers display a time-varying representation of the modulation envelope
     D. All of these choices are correct

    E4B11    

  17.   How should a portable antenna analyzer be connected when measuring antenna resonance and feed point impedance?
     A. Loosely couple the analyzer near the antenna base
     B. Connect the analyzer via a high-impedance transformer to the antenna
     C. Connect the antenna and a dummy load to the analyzer
     D. Connect the antenna feed line directly to the analyzer's connector

    E4C15    

  18.   What is the primary source of noise that can be heard from an HF receiver with an antenna connected?
     A. Detector noise
     B. Induction motor noise
     C. Receiver front-end noise
     D. Atmospheric noise

    E4D12    

  19.   What is the term for the reduction in receiver sensitivity caused by a strong signal near the received frequency?
     A. Desensitization
     B. Quieting
     C. Cross-modulation interference
     D. Squelch gain rollback

    E4E14    

  20.   What is one type of electrical interference that might be caused by the operation of a nearby personal computer?
     A. A loud AC hum in the audio output of your station receiver
     B. A clicking noise at intervals of a few seconds
     C. The appearance of unstable modulated or unmodulated signals at specific frequencies
     D. A whining type noise that continually pulses off and on

    E5A06    

  21.   What is the magnitude of the circulating current within the components of a parallel LC circuit at resonance?
     A. It is at a minimum
     B. It is at a maximum
     C. It equals 1 divided by the quantity 2 times Pi, multiplied by the square root of inductance L multiplied by capacitance C
     D. It equals 2 multiplied by Pi, multiplied by frequency "F", multiplied by inductance "L"

    E5B13    

  22.   What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 250 ohms, R is 1 kilohm, and XL is 500 ohms?
     A. 81.47 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
     B. 81.47 degrees with the voltage leading the current
     C. 14.04 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
     D. 14.04 degrees with the voltage leading the current

    E5C20    

  23.   Which point in Figure E5-2 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300 ohm resistor and an 18 microhenry inductor at 3.505 MHz?
     A. Point 1
     B. Point 3
     C. Point 7
     D. Point 8

    E5D09    

  24.   What happens to reactive power in an AC circuit that has both ideal inductors and ideal capacitors?
     A. It is dissipated as heat in the circuit
     B. It is repeatedly exchanged between the associated magnetic and electric fields, but is not dissipated
     C. It is dissipated as kinetic energy in the circuit
     D. It is dissipated in the formation of inductive and capacitive fields

    E6A04    

  25.   What is the name given to an impurity atom that adds holes to a semiconductor crystal structure?
     A. Insulator impurity
     B. N-type impurity
     C. Acceptor impurity
     D. Donor impurity

    E6B10    

  26.   In Figure E6-3, what is the schematic symbol for a light-emitting diode?
     A. 1
     B. 5
     C. 6
     D. 7

    E6C02    

  27.   What logic state do the inputs of a TTL device assume if they are left open?
     A. A logic-high state
     B. A logic-low state
     C. The device becomes randomized and will not provide consistent high or low-logic states
     D. Open inputs on a TTL device are ignored

    E6D12    

  28.   How many turns will be required to produce a 5-microhenry inductor using a powdered-iron toroidal core that has an inductance index (A L) value of 40 microhenrys/100 turns?
     A. 35 turns
     B. 13 turns
     C. 79 turns
     D. 141 turns

    E6E06    

  29.   What characteristics of the MMIC make it a popular choice for VHF through microwave circuits?
     A. The ability to retrieve information from a single signal even in the presence of other strong signals.
     B. Plate current that is controlled by a control grid
     C. Nearly infinite gain, very high input impedance, and very low output impedance
     D. Controlled gain, low noise figure, and constant input and output impedance over the specified frequency range

    E6F08    

  30.   Why are optoisolators often used in conjunction with solid state circuits when switching 120 VAC?
     A. Optoisolators provide a low impedance link between a control circuit and a power circuit
     B. Optoisolators provide impedance matching between the control circuit and power circuit
     C. Optoisolators provide a very high degree of electrical isolation between a control circuit and the circuit being switched
     D. Optoisolators eliminate the effects of reflected light in the control circuit

    E7A11    

  31.   What is the name for logic which represents a logic "1" as a high voltage?
     A. Reverse Logic
     B. Assertive Logic
     C. Negative logic
     D. Positive Logic

    E7B01    

  32.   For what portion of a signal cycle does a Class AB amplifier operate?
     A. More than 180 degrees but less than 360 degrees
     B. Exactly 180 degrees
     C. The entire cycle
     D. Less than 180 degrees

    E7C11    

  33.   Which of the following is the common name for a filter network which is equivalent to two L networks connected back-to-back with the inductors in series and the capacitors in shunt at the input and output?
     A. Pi-L
     B. Cascode
     C. Omega
     D. Pi

    E7D07    

  34.   What is the purpose of C2 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?
     A. It bypasses hum around D1
     B. It is a brute force filter for the output
     C. To self-resonate at the hum frequency
     D. To provide fixed DC bias for Q1

    E7E10    

  35.   How does a diode detector function?
     A. By rectification and filtering of RF signals
     B. By breakdown of the Zener voltage
     C. By mixing signals with noise in the transition region of the diode
     D. By sensing the change of reactance in the diode with respect to frequency

    E7F05    

  36.   Which of the following is a technique for providing high stability oscillators needed for microwave transmission and reception?
     A. Use a GPS signal reference
     B. Use a rubidium stabilized reference oscillator
     C. Use a temperature-controlled high Q dielectric resonator
     D. All of these choices are correct

    E7G11    

  37.   What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-4 when R1 is 3300 ohms and RF is 47 kilohms?
     A. 28
     B. 14
     C. 7
     D. 0.07

    E7H10    

  38.   What information is contained in the lookup table of a direct digital frequency synthesizer?
     A. The phase relationship between a reference oscillator and the output waveform
     B. The amplitude values that represent a sine-wave output
     C. The phase relationship between a voltage-controlled oscillator and the output waveform
     D. The synthesizer frequency limits and frequency values stored in the radio memories

    E8A11    

  39.   What is one use for a pulse modulated signal?
     A. Linear amplification
     B. PSK31 data transmission
     C. Multiphase power transmission
     D. Digital data transmission

    E8B05    

  40.   What is the deviation ratio of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus-or-minus 5 kHz when the maximum modulation frequency is 3 kHz?
     A. 60
     B. 0.167
     C. 0.6
     D. 1.67

    E8C07    

  41.   What is the necessary bandwidth of a 4800-Hz frequency shift, 9600-baud ASCII FM transmission?
     A. 15.36 kHz
     B. 9.6 kHz
     C. 4.8 kHz
     D. 5.76 kHz

    E8D13    

  42.   Which of the following is a typical value for the peak voltage at a standard U.S. household electrical outlet?
     A. 240 volts
     B. 170 volts
     C. 120 volts
     D. 340 volts

    E9A03    

  43.   Which of the following antennas has no gain in any direction?
     A. Quarter-wave vertical
     B. Yagi
     C. Half-wave dipole
     D. Isotropic antenna

    E9B07    

  44.   How does the total amount of radiation emitted by a directional gain antenna compare with the total amount of radiation emitted from an isotropic antenna, assuming each is driven by the same amount of power?
     A. The total amount of radiation from the directional antenna is increased by the gain of the antenna
     B. The total amount of radiation from the directional antenna is stronger by its front to back ratio
     C. They are the same
     D. The radiation from the isotropic antenna is 2.15 dB stronger than that from the directional antenna

    E9C07    

  45.   What type of antenna pattern over real ground is shown in Figure E9-2?
     A. Elevation
     B. Azimuth
     C. Radiation resistance
     D. Polarization

    E9D11    

  46.   What is the function of a loading coil as used with an HF mobile antenna?
     A. To increase the SWR bandwidth
     B. To lower the losses
     C. To lower the Q
     D. To cancel capacitive reactance

    E9E06    

  47.   What is the equivalent lumped-constant network for a hairpin matching system on a 3-element Yagi?
     A. Pi network
     B. Pi-L network
     C. L network
     D. Parallel-resonant tank

    E9F03    

  48.   Why is the physical length of a coaxial cable transmission line shorter than its electrical length?
     A. Skin effect is less pronounced in the coaxial cable
     B. The characteristic impedance is higher in a parallel feed line
     C. The surge impedance is higher in a parallel feed line
     D. Electrical signals move more slowly in a coaxial cable than in air

    E9G11    

  49.   How are the wavelength scales on a Smith chart calibrated?
     A. In fractions of transmission line electrical frequency
     B. In fractions of transmission line electrical wavelength
     C. In fractions of antenna electrical wavelength
     D. In fractions of antenna electrical frequency

    E9H10    

  50.   How can the output voltage of a multi-turn receiving loop antenna be increased?
     A. By reducing the permeability of the loop shield
     B. By increasing the number of wire turns in the loop and reducing the area of the loop structure
     C. By winding adjacent turns in opposing directions
     D. By increasing either the number of wire turns in the loop or the area of the loop structure or both

    G0A08    

  51.   Which of the following steps must an amateur operator take to ensure compliance with RF safety regulations when transmitter power exceeds levels specified in part 97.13?
     A. Post a copy of FCC Part 97 in the station
     B. Post a copy of OET Bulletin 65 in the station
     C. Perform a routine RF exposure evaluation
     D. All of these choices are correct

    G0B04    

  52.   Which of the following is a primary reason for not placing a gasoline-fueled generator inside an occupied area?
     A. Danger of carbon monoxide poisoning
     B. Danger of engine over torque
     C. Lack of oxygen for adequate combustion
     D. Lack of nitrogen for adequate combustion

    G1A02     [97.305]

  53.   On which of the following bands is phone operation prohibited?
     A. 160 meters
     B. 30 meters
     C. 17 meters
     D. 12 meters

    G1B08    

  54.   When choosing a transmitting frequency, what should you do to comply with good amateur practice?
     A. Review FCC Part 97 Rules regarding permitted frequencies and emissions?
     B. Follow generally accepted band plans agreed to by the Amateur Radio community.
     C. Before transmitting, listen to avoid interfering with ongoing communication
     D. All of these choices are correct

    G1C07     [97.305(c), 97.307(f)(3)]

  55.   What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmission on the 20 meter band?
     A. 56 kilobaud
     B. 19.6 kilobaud
     C. 1200 baud
     D. 300 baud

    G1D03     [97.9(b)]

  56.   On which of the following band segments may you operate if you are a Technician Class operator and have a CSCE for General Class privileges?
     A. Only the Technician band segments until your upgrade is posted on the FCC database
     B. Only on the Technician band segments until your license arrives in the mail
     C. On any General or Technician Class band segment
     D. On any General or Technician Class band segment except 30 and 60 meters

    G1E05     [97.115(a)(2),97.117]

  57.   What types of messages for a third party in another country may be transmitted by an amateur station?
     A. Any message, as long as the amateur operator is not paid
     B. Only messages for other licensed amateurs
     C. Only messages relating to Amateur Radio or remarks of a personal character, or messages relating to emergencies or disaster relief
     D. Any messages, as long as the text of the message is recorded in the station log

    G2A06    

  58.   Which of the following is an advantage when using single sideband as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands?
     A. Very high fidelity voice modulation
     B. Less bandwidth used and higher power efficiency
     C. Ease of tuning on receive and immunity to impulse noise
     D. Less subject to static crashes (atmospherics)

    G2B11     [97.405]

  59.   What frequency should be used to send a distress call?
     A. Whatever frequency has the best chance of communicating the distress message
     B. Only frequencies authorized for RACES or ARES stations
     C. Only frequencies that are within your operating privileges
     D. Only frequencies used by police, fire or emergency medical services

    G2C08    

  60.   What prosign is sent to indicate the end of a formal message when using CW?
     A. SK
     B. BK
     C. AR
     D. KN

    G2D11    

  61.   Which HF antenna would be the best to use for minimizing interference?
     A. A quarter-wave vertical antenna
     B. An isotropic antenna
     C. A unidirectional antenna
     D. An omnidirectional antenna

    G2E12    

  62.   How does the receiving station respond to an ARQ data mode packet containing errors?
     A. Terminates the contact
     B. Requests the packet be retransmitted
     C. Sends the packet back to the transmitting station
     D. Requests a change in transmitting protocol

    G3A11    

  63.   Approximately how long is the typical sunspot cycle?
     A. 8 minutes
     B. 40 hours
     C. 28 days
     D. 11 years

    G3B07    

  64.   What does LUF stand for?
     A. The Lowest Usable Frequency for communications between two points
     B. The Longest Universal Function for communications between two points
     C. The Lowest Usable Frequency during a 24 hour period
     D. The Longest Universal Function during a 24 hour period

    G3C12    

  65.   Which ionospheric layer is the most absorbent of long skip signals during daylight hours on frequencies below 10 MHz?
     A. The F2 layer
     B. The F1 layer
     C. The E layer
     D. The D layer

    G4A04    

  66.   What reading on the plate current meter of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier indicates correct adjustment of the plate tuning control?
     A. A pronounced peak
     B. A pronounced dip
     C. No change will be observed
     D. A slow, rhythmic oscillation

    G4B13    

  67.   What is a use for an antenna analyzer other than measuring the SWR of an antenna system?
     A. Measuring the front to back ratio of an antenna
     B. Measuring the turns ratio of a power transformer
     C. Determining the impedance of an unknown or unmarked coaxial cable
     D. Determining the gain of a directional antenna

    G4C03    

  68.   What sound is heard from an audio device or telephone if there is interference from a nearby single-sideband phone transmitter?
     A. A steady hum whenever the transmitter is on the air
     B. On-and-off humming or clicking
     C. Distorted speech
     D. Clearly audible speech

    G4D10    

  69.   How close to the lower edge of the 40 meter General Class phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?
     A. 3 kHz above the edge of the segment
     B. 3 kHz below the edge of the segment
     C. Your displayed carrier frequency may be set at the edge of the segment
     D. Center your signal on the edge of the segment

    G4E02    

  70.   What is the purpose of a "corona ball" on a HF mobile antenna?
     A. To narrow the operating bandwidth of the antenna
     B. To increase the "Q" of the antenna
     C. To reduce the chance of damage if the antenna should strike an object
     D. To reduce high voltage discharge from the tip of the antenna

    G5A10    

  71.   What unit is used to measure impedance?
     A. Volt
     B. Ohm
     C. Ampere
     D. Watt

    G5B01    

  72.   A two-times increase or decrease in power results in a change of how many dB?
     A. Approximately 2 dB
     B. Approximately 3 dB
     C. Approximately 6 dB
     D. Approximately 12 dB

    G5C04    

  73.   What is the total resistance of three 100-ohm resistors in parallel?
     A. .30 ohms
     B. .33 ohms
     C. 33.3 ohms
     D. 300 ohms

    G6A11    

  74.   Why would it be important to minimize the mutual inductance between two inductors?
     A. To increase the energy transfer between circuits
     B. To reduce unwanted coupling between circuits
     C. To reduce conducted emissions
     D. To increase the self-resonant frequency of the inductors

    G6B09    

  75.   Which of the following describes the construction of a MOSFET?
     A. The gate is formed by a back-biased junction
     B. The gate is separated from the channel with a thin insulating layer
     C. The source is separated from the drain by a thin insulating layer
     D. The source is formed by depositing metal on silicon

    G6C03    

  76.   Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?
     A. Low power consumption
     B. High power handling capability
     C. Better suited for RF amplification
     D. Better suited for power supply regulation

    G7A06    

  77.   What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a full-wave rectifier?
     A. 90 degrees
     B. 180 degrees
     C. 270 degrees
     D. 360 degrees

    G7B04    

  78.   Which of the following describes the function of a two input NOR gate?
     A. Output is high when either or both inputs are low
     B. Output is high only when both inputs are high
     C. Output is low when either or both inputs are high
     D. Output is low only when both inputs are high

    G7C01    

  79.   Which of the following is used to process signals from the balanced modulator and send them to the mixer in a single-sideband phone transmitter?
     A. Carrier oscillator
     B. Filter
     C. IF amplifier
     D. RF amplifier

    G8A10    

  80.   What is meant by flat-topping of a single-sideband phone transmission?
     A. Signal distortion caused by insufficient collector current
     B. The transmitter's automatic level control is properly adjusted
     C. Signal distortion caused by excessive drive
     D. The transmitter's carrier is properly suppressed

    G8B02    

  81.   If a receiver mixes a 13.800 MHz VFO with a 14.255 MHz received signal to produce a 455 kHz intermediate frequency (IF) signal, what type of interference will a 13.345 MHz signal produce in the receiver?
     A. Quadrature noise
     B. Image response
     C. Mixer interference
     D. Intermediate interference

    G9A02    

  82.   What are the typical characteristic impedances of coaxial cables used for antenna feed lines at amateur stations?
     A. 25 and 30 ohms
     B. 50 and 75 ohms
     C. 80 and 100 ohms
     D. 500 and 750 ohms

    G9B11    

  83.   What is the approximate length for a 1/2-wave dipole antenna cut for 3.550 MHz?
     A. 42 feet
     B. 84 feet
     C. 131 feet
     D. 263 feet

    G9C05    

  84.   How does increasing boom length and adding directors affect a Yagi antenna?
     A. Gain increases
     B. Beamwidth increases
     C. Weight decreases
     D. Wind load decreases

    G9D04    

  85.   What is the primary purpose of antenna traps?
     A. To permit multiband operation
     B. To notch spurious frequencies
     C. To provide balanced feed-point impedance
     D. To prevent out of band operation

    T0A10    

  86.   What can happen if a lead-acid storage battery is charged or discharged too quickly?
     A. The battery could overheat and give off flammable gas or explode
     B. The voltage can become reversed
     C. The memory effect will reduce the capacity of the battery
     D. All of these choices are correct

    T0B02    

  87.   What is a good precaution to observe before climbing an antenna tower?
     A. Make sure that you wear a grounded wrist strap
     B. Remove all tower grounding connections
     C. Put on a climbing harness and safety glasses
     D. All of the these choices are correct

    T0C06    

  88.   Which of the following is an acceptable method to determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?
     A. By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65
     B. By calculation based on computer modeling
     C. By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment
     D. All of these choices are correct

    T1A04     [97.3(a)(23)]

  89.   Which of the following meets the FCC definition of harmful interference?
     A. Radio transmissions that annoy users of a repeater
     B. Unwanted radio transmissions that cause costly harm to radio station apparatus
     C. That which seriously degrades, obstructs, or repeatedly interrupts a radio communication service operating in accordance with the Radio Regulations
     D. Static from lightning storms

    T1B08     [97.303]

  90.   Which of the following is a result of the fact that the amateur service is secondary in some portions of the 70 cm band?
     A. U.S. amateurs may find non-amateur stations in the bands, and must avoid interfering with them
     B. U.S. amateurs must give foreign amateur stations priority in those portions
     C. International communications are not permitted on 70 cm
     D. Digital transmissions are not permitted on 70 cm

    T1C02    

  91.   Which of the following is a valid US amateur radio station call sign?
     A. KMA3505
     B. W3ABC
     C. KDKA
     D. 11Q1176

    T1D11     [97.119(a)]

  92.   When may an amateur station transmit without identifying?
     A. When the transmissions are of a brief nature to make station adjustments
     B. When the transmissions are unmodulated
     C. When the transmitted power level is below 1 watt
     D. When transmitting signals to control a model craft

    T1E01     [97.7(a)]

  93.   When is an amateur station permitted to transmit without a control operator?
     A. When using automatic control, such as in the case of a repeater
     B. When the station licensee is away and another licensed amateur is using the station
     C. When the transmitting station is an auxiliary station
     D. Never

    T1F08     [97.119(f)]

  94.   Which indicator is required by the FCC to be transmitted after a station call sign?
     A. /M when operating mobile
     B. /R when operating a repeater
     C. / followed the FCC Region number when operating out of the region in which the license was issued
     D. /KT, /AE or /AG when using new license privileges earned by CSCE while waiting for an upgrade to a previously issued license to appear in the FCC license database

    T2A05    

  95.   How should you respond to a station calling CQ?
     A. Transmit CQ followed by the other station's call sign
     B. Transmit your call sign followed by the other station's call sign
     C. Transmit the other station's call sign followed by your call sign
     D. Transmit a signal report followed by your call sign

    T2B03    

  96.   Which of the following describes the muting of receiver audio controlled solely by the presence or absence of an RF signal?
     A. Tone squelch
     B. Carrier squelch
     C. CTCSS
     D. Modulated carrier

    T2C06    

  97.   Which of the following is an accepted practice to get the immediate attention of a net control station when reporting an emergency?
     A. Repeat the words SOS three times followed by the call sign of the reporting station
     B. Press the push-to-talk button three times
     C. Begin your transmission by saying "Priority" or "Emergency" followed by your call sign
     D. Play a pre-recorded emergency alert tone followed by your call sign

    T3A06    

  98.   What term is commonly used to describe the rapid fluttering sound sometimes heard from mobile stations that are moving while transmitting?
     A. Flip-flopping
     B. Picket fencing
     C. Frequency shifting
     D. Pulsing

    T3B02    

  99.   What property of a radio wave is used to describe its polarization?
     A. The orientation of the electric field
     B. The orientation of the magnetic field
     C. The ratio of the energy in the magnetic field to the energy in the electric field
     D. The ratio of the velocity to the wavelength

    T3C03    

  100.   What is a characteristic of VHF signals received via auroral reflection?
     A. Signals from distances of 10,000 or more miles are common
     B. The signals exhibit rapid fluctuations of strength and often sound distorted
     C. These types of signals occur only during winter nighttime hours
     D. These types of signals are generally strongest when your antenna is aimed west

    T4A12    

  101.   What could be happening if another operator reports a variable high-pitched whine on the audio from your mobile transmitter?
     A. Your microphone is picking up noise from an open window
     B. You have the volume on your receiver set too high
     C. You need to adjust your squelch control
     D. Noise on the vehicle's electrical system is being transmitted along with your speech audio

    T4B08    

  102.   What is the advantage of having multiple receive bandwidth choices on a multimode transceiver?
     A. Permits monitoring several modes at once
     B. Permits noise or interference reduction by selecting a bandwidth matching the mode
     C. Increases the number of frequencies that can be stored in memory
     D. Increases the amount of offset between receive and transmit frequencies

    T5A05    

  103.   What is the electrical term for the electromotive force (EMF) that causes electron flow?
     A. Voltage
     B. Ampere-hours
     C. Capacitance
     D. Inductance

    T5B02    

  104.   What is another way to specify a radio signal frequency of 1,500,000 hertz?
     A. 1500 kHz
     B. 1500 MHz
     C. 15 GHz
     D. 150 kHz

    T5C05    

  105.   What is the unit of frequency?
     A. Hertz
     B. Henry
     C. Farad
     D. Tesla

    T5D10    

  106.   What is the voltage across a 2-ohm resistor if a current of 0.5 amperes flows through it?
     A. 1 volt
     B. 0.25 volts
     C. 2.5 volts
     D. 1.5 volts

    T6A11    

  107.   Which of the following battery types is not rechargeable?
     A. Nickel-cadmium
     B. Carbon-zinc
     C. Lead-acid
     D. Lithium-ion

    T6B09    

  108.   What are the names of the two electrodes of a diode?
     A. Plus and minus
     B. Source and drain
     C. Anode and cathode
     D. Gate and base

    T6C01    

  109.   What is the name for standardized representations of components in an electrical wiring diagram?
     A. Electrical depictions
     B. Grey sketch
     C. Schematic symbols
     D. Component callouts

    T6D01    

  110.   Which of the following devices or circuits changes an alternating current into a varying direct current signal?
     A. Transformer
     B. Rectifier
     C. Amplifier
     D. Reflector

    T7A11    

  111.   Where is an RF preamplifier installed?
     A. Between the antenna and receiver
     B. At the output of the transmitter's power amplifier
     C. Between a transmitter and antenna tuner
     D. At the receiver's audio output

    T7B01    

  112.   What can you do if you are told your FM handheld or mobile transceiver is over-deviating?
     A. Talk louder into the microphone
     B. Let the transceiver cool off
     C. Change to a higher power level
     D. Talk farther away from the microphone

    T7C10    

  113.   Why should the outer jacket of coaxial cable be resistant to ultraviolet light?
     A. Ultraviolet resistant jackets prevent harmonic radiation
     B. Ultraviolet light can increase losses in the cable's jacket
     C. Ultraviolet and RF signals can mix together, causing interference
     D. Ultraviolet light can damage the jacket and allow water to enter the cable

    T7D10    

  114.   What is probably happening when an ohmmeter, connected across an unpowered circuit, initially indicates a low resistance and then shows increasing resistance with time?
     A. The ohmmeter is defective
     B. The circuit contains a large capacitor
     C. The circuit contains a large inductor
     D. The circuit is a relaxation oscillator

    T8A04    

  115.   Which type of modulation is most commonly used for VHF and UHF voice repeaters?
     A. AM
     B. SSB
     C. PSK
     D. FM

    T8B10    

  116.   What do the initials LEO tell you about an amateur satellite?
     A. The satellite battery is in Low Energy Operation mode
     B. The satellite is performing a Lunar Ejection Orbit maneuver
     C. The satellite is in a Low Earth Orbit
     D. The satellite uses Light Emitting Optics

    T8C11    

  117.   What name is given to an amateur radio station that is used to connect other amateur stations to the Internet?
     A. A gateway
     B. A repeater
     C. A digipeater
     D. A beacon

    T8D04    

  118.   What type of transmission is indicated by the term NTSC?
     A. A Normal Transmission mode in Static Circuit
     B. A special mode for earth satellite uplink
     C. An analog fast scan color TV signal
     D. A frame compression scheme for TV signals

    T9A07    

  119.   What is a good reason not to use a "rubber duck" antenna inside your car?
     A. Signals can be significantly weaker than when it is outside of the vehicle
     B. It might cause your radio to overheat
     C. The SWR might decrease, decreasing the signal strength
     D. All of these choices are correct

    T9B04    

  120.   What does an antenna tuner do?
     A. It matches the antenna system impedance to the transceiver's output impedance
     B. It helps a receiver automatically tune in weak stations
     C. It allows an antenna to be used on both transmit and receive
     D. It automatically selects the proper antenna for the frequency band being used