- Amateur Radio (Ham Radio) Community

Call Search

New to Ham Radio?
My Profile

Friends Remembered
Survey Question

DX Cluster Spots

Ham Exams
Ham Links
List Archives
News Articles
Product Reviews
QSL Managers

Site Info
eHam Help (FAQ)
Support the site
The eHam Team
Advertising Info
Vision Statement
About Practice Exam -


  1.   Why are there separate electric (E) and magnetic (H) field MPE limits?
     A. The body reacts to electromagnetic radiation from both the E and H fields
     B. Ground reflections and scattering make the field impedance vary with location
     C. E field and H field radiation intensity peaks can occur at different locations
     D. All of these choices are correct

    E1A12     [97.301, 97.305]

  2.   With your transceiver displaying the carrier frequency of CW signals, you hear a DX station's CQ on 3.500 MHz. Is it legal to return the call using CW on the same frequency?
     A. Yes, the DX station initiated the contact
     B. Yes, the displayed frequency is within the 80 meter CW band segment
     C. No, sidebands from the CW signal will be out of the band.
     D. No, USA stations are not permitted to use CW emissions below 3.525 MHz

    E1B01     [97.3]

  3.   Which of the following constitutes a spurious emission?
     A. An amateur station transmission made at random without the proper call sign identification
     B. A signal transmitted to prevent its detection by any station other than the intended recipient
     C. Any transmitted bogus signal that interferes with another licensed radio station
     D. An emission outside its necessary bandwidth that can be reduced or eliminated without affecting the information transmitted

    E1C09     [97.205]

  4.   Which of these frequencies are available for an automatically controlled repeater operating below 30 MHz?
     A. 18.110 - 18.168 MHz
     B. 24.940 - 24.990 MHz
     C. 10.100 - 10.150 MHz
     D. 29.500 - 29.700 MHz

    E1D11     [97.209]

  5.   Which amateur stations are eligible to operate as Earth stations?
     A. Any amateur station whose licensee has filed a pre-space notification with the FCC's International Bureau
     B. Only those of General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators
     C. Only those of Amateur Extra Class operators
     D. Any amateur station, subject to the privileges of the class of operator license held by the control operator

    E1E06     [97.509]

  6.   Who is responsible for the proper conduct and necessary supervision during an amateur operator license examination session?
     A. The VEC coordinating the session
     B. The FCC
     C. Each administering VE
     D. The VE session manager

    E1F12     [97.201]

  7.   Who may be the control operator of an auxiliary station?
     A. Any licensed amateur operator
     B. Only Technician, General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators
     C. Only General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators
     D. Only Amateur Extra Class operators


  8.   Why should effective radiated power to a satellite which uses a linear transponder be limited?
     A. To prevent creating errors in the satellite telemetry
     B. To avoid reducing the downlink power to all other users
     C. To prevent the satellite from emitting out of band signals
     D. To avoid interfering with terrestrial QSOs


  9.   Which of the following is an advantage of using vestigial sideband for standard fast- scan TV transmissions?
     A. The vestigial sideband carries the audio information
     B. The vestigial sideband contains chroma information
     C. Vestigial sideband reduces bandwidth while allowing for simple video detector circuitry
     D. Vestigial sideband provides high frequency emphasis to sharpen the picture


  10.   Which of the following best describes the term "self-spotting" in regards to contest operating?
     A. The generally prohibited practice of posting one's own call sign and frequency on a call sign spotting network
     B. The acceptable practice of manually posting the call signs of stations on a call sign spotting network
     C. A manual technique for rapidly zero beating or tuning to a station's frequency before calling that station
     D. An automatic method for rapidly zero beating or tuning to a station's frequency before calling that station


  11.   What is the purpose of digital store-and-forward functions on an Amateur Radio satellite?
     A. To upload operational software for the transponder
     B. To delay download of telemetry between satellites
     C. To store digital messages in the satellite for later download by other stations
     D. To relay messages between satellites


  12.   Which of these digital communications modes has the narrowest bandwidth?
     A. MFSK16
     B. 170-Hz shift, 45 baud RTTY
     C. PSK31
     D. 300-baud packet


  13.   What frequency range would you normally tune to find EME signals in the 70 cm band?
     A. 430.000 - 430.150 MHz
     B. 430.100 - 431.100 MHz
     C. 431.100 - 431.200 MHz
     D. 432.000 - 432.100 MHz


  14.   Which of the following could account for hearing an echo on the received signal of a distant station?
     A. High D layer absorption
     B. Meteor scatter
     C. Transmit frequency is higher than the MUF
     D. Receipt of a signal by more than one path


  15.   Which of the following is usually responsible for causing VHF signals to propagate for hundreds of miles?
     A. D-region absorption
     B. Faraday rotation
     C. Tropospheric ducting
     D. Ground wave


  16.   Which of the following parameters would a spectrum analyzer display on the horizontal axis?
     A. SWR
     B. Q
     C. Time
     D. Frequency


  17.   Which of the following is good practice when using an oscilloscope probe?
     A. Keep the signal ground connection of the probe as short as possible
     B. Never use a high impedance probe to measure a low impedance circuit
     C. Never use a DC-coupled probe to measure an AC circuit
     D. All of these choices are correct


  18.   Which of the following is a desirable amount of selectivity for an amateur RTTY HF receiver?
     A. 100 Hz
     B. 300 Hz
     C. 6000 Hz
     D. 2400 Hz


  19.   Which of the following is a way to reduce the likelihood of receiver desensitization?
     A. Decrease the RF bandwidth of the receiver
     B. Raise the receiver IF frequency
     C. Increase the receiver front end gain
     D. Switch from fast AGC to slow AGC


  20.   How can you determine if line noise interference is being generated within your home?
     A. By checking the power line voltage with a time domain reflectometer
     B. By observing the AC power line waveform with an oscilloscope
     C. By turning off the AC power line main circuit breaker and listening on a battery operated radio
     D. By observing the AC power line voltage with a spectrum analyzer


  21.   What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 3.7 MHz and a Q of 118?
     A. 436.6 kHz
     B. 218.3 kHz
     C. 31.4 kHz
     D. 15.7 kHz


  22.   What is the term for the time it takes for a charged capacitor in an RC circuit to discharge to 36.8% of its initial voltage?
     A. One discharge period
     B. An exponential discharge rate of one
     C. A discharge factor of one
     D. One time constant


  23.   In rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 10-microhenry inductor in series with a 40-ohm resistor at 500 MHz?
     A. 40 + j31,400
     B. 40 - j31,400
     C. 31,400 + j40
     D. 31,400 - j40


  24.   How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.71 if the apparent power is 500 VA?
     A. 704 W
     B. 355 W
     C. 252 W
     D. 1.42 mW


  25.   What do the initials CMOS stand for?
     A. Common Mode Oscillating System
     B. Complementary Mica-Oxide Silicon
     C. Complementary Metal-Oxide Semiconductor
     D. Common Mode Organic Silicon


  26.   What is the failure mechanism when a junction diode fails due to excessive current?
     A. Excessive inverse voltage
     B. Excessive junction temperature
     C. Insufficient forward voltage
     D. Charge carrier depletion


  27.   Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS logic devices over TTL devices?
     A. Differential output capability
     B. Lower distortion
     C. Immune to damage from static discharge
     D. Lower power consumption


  28.   Exceeding what design rating can cause a cathode ray tube (CRT) to generate X-rays?
     A. The heater voltage
     B. The anode voltage
     C. The operating temperature
     D. The operating frequency


  29.   What characteristics of the MMIC make it a popular choice for VHF through microwave circuits?
     A. The ability to retrieve information from a single signal even in the presence of other strong signals.
     B. Plate current that is controlled by a control grid
     C. Nearly infinite gain, very high input impedance, and very low output impedance
     D. Controlled gain, low noise figure, and constant input and output impedance over the specified frequency range


  30.   Which of these materials is affected the most by photoconductivity?
     A. A crystalline semiconductor
     B. An ordinary metal
     C. A heavy metal
     D. A liquid semiconductor


  31.   Which of the following can divide the frequency of a pulse train by 2?
     A. An XOR gate
     B. A flip-flop
     C. An OR gate
     D. A multiplexer


  32.   In Figure E7-2, what is the purpose of R?
     A. Emitter load
     B. Fixed bias
     C. Collector load
     D. Voltage regulation


  33.   A T-network with series capacitors and a parallel shunt inductor has which of the following properties?
     A. It is a low-pass filter
     B. It is a band-pass filter
     C. It is a high-pass filter
     D. It is a notch filter


  34.   What is the purpose of Q1 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?
     A. It provides negative feedback to improve regulation
     B. It provides a constant load for the voltage source
     C. It increases the current-handling capability of the regulator
     D. It provides D1 with current


  35.   Why is de-emphasis commonly used in FM communications receivers?
     A. For compatibility with transmitters using phase modulation
     B. To reduce impulse noise reception
     C. For higher efficiency
     D. To remove third-order distortion products


  36.   What alternate method of determining frequency, other than by directly counting input pulses, is used by some counters?
     A. GPS averaging
     B. Period measurement plus mathematical computation
     C. Prescaling
     D. D/A conversion


  37.   What is the typical input impedance of an integrated circuit op-amp?
     A. 100 ohms
     B. 1000 ohms
     C. Very low
     D. Very high


  38.   Which of the following is a principal component of a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?
     A. Phase splitter
     B. Hex inverter
     C. Chroma demodulator
     D. Phase accumulator


  39.   What type of wave is made up of sine waves of a given fundamental frequency plus all its harmonics?
     A. A sawtooth wave
     B. A square wave
     C. A sine wave
     D. A cosine wave


  40.   When using a pulse-width modulation system, why is the transmitter's peak power greater than its average power?
     A. The signal duty cycle is less than 100%
     B. The signal reaches peak amplitude only when voice modulated
     C. The signal reaches peak amplitude only when voltage spikes are generated within the modulator
     D. The signal reaches peak amplitude only when the pulses are also amplitude modulated


  41.   What is the necessary bandwidth of a 13-WPM international Morse code transmission?
     A. Approximately 13 Hz
     B. Approximately 26 Hz
     C. Approximately 52 Hz
     D. Approximately 104 Hz


  42.   What is the average power dissipated by a 50-ohm resistive load during one complete RF cycle having a peak voltage of 35 volts?
     A. 12.2 watts
     B. 9.9 watts
     C. 24.5 watts
     D. 16 watts


  43.   Which of the following factors determines ground losses for a ground-mounted vertical antenna operating in the 3-30 MHz range?
     A. The standing-wave ratio
     B. Distance from the transmitter
     C. Soil conductivity
     D. Take-off angle


  44.   What is the far-field of an antenna?
     A. The region of the ionosphere where radiated power is not refracted
     B. The region where radiated power dissipates over a specified time period
     C. The region where radiated field strengths are obstructed by objects of reflection
     D. The region where the shape of the antenna pattern is independent of distance


  45.   What is the effect of a terminating resistor on a rhombic antenna?
     A. It reflects the standing waves on the antenna elements back to the transmitter
     B. It changes the radiation pattern from bidirectional to unidirectional
     C. It changes the radiation pattern from horizontal to vertical polarization
     D. It decreases the ground loss


  46.   What is a disadvantage of using a multiband trapped antenna?
     A. It might radiate harmonics
     B. It radiates the harmonics and fundamental equally well
     C. It is too sharply directional at lower frequencies
     D. It must be neutralized


  47.   What is the primary purpose of a phasing line when used with an antenna having multiple driven elements?
     A. It ensures that each driven element operates in concert with the others to create the desired antenna pattern
     B. It prevents reflected power from traveling back down the feed line and causing harmonic radiation from the transmitter
     C. It allows single-band antennas to operate on other bands
     D. It makes sure the antenna has a low-angle radiation pattern


  48.   What impedance does a 1/8-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is shorted at the far end?
     A. A capacitive reactance
     B. The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
     C. An inductive reactance
     D. The same as the input impedance to the final generator stage


  49.   What third family of circles is often added to a Smith chart during the process of solving problems?
     A. Standing-wave ratio circles
     B. Antenna-length circles
     C. Coaxial-length circles
     D. Radiation-pattern circles


  50.   What term describes station output, including the transmitter, antenna and everything in between, when considering transmitter power and system gains and losses?
     A. Power factor
     B. Half-power bandwidth
     C. Effective radiated power
     D. Apparent power


  51.   What precaution should be taken when installing a ground-mounted antenna?
     A. It should not be installed higher than you can reach
     B. It should not be installed in a wet area
     C. It should limited to 10 feet in height
     D. It should be installed so no one can be exposed to RF radiation in excess of maximum permissible limits


  52.   What is the minimum wire size that may be safely used for a circuit that draws up to 20 amperes of continuous current?
     A. AWG number 20
     B. AWG number 16
     C. AWG number 12
     D. AWG number 8

    G1A15     [97.303]

  53.   What is the appropriate action if, when operating on either the 30 or 60 meter bands, a station in the primary service interferes with your contact?
     A. Notify the FCC's regional Engineer in Charge of the interference
     B. Increase your transmitter's power to overcome the interference
     C. Attempt to contact the station and request that it stop the interference
     D. Move to a clear frequency

    G1B11     [97.101(a)]

  54.   How does the FCC require an amateur station to be operated in all respects not specifically covered by the Part 97 rules?
     A. In conformance with the rules of the IARU
     B. In conformance with Amateur Radio custom
     C. In conformance with good engineering and good amateur practice
     D. All of these choices are correct

    G1C08     [97.307(f)(3)]

  55.   What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted at frequencies below 28 MHz?
     A. 56 kilobaud
     B. 19.6 kilobaud
     C. 1200 baud
     D. 300 baud

    G1D04     [97.509(a)(b)]

  56.   Which of the following is a requirement for administering a Technician Class operator examination?
     A. At least three VEC accredited General Class or higher VEs must be present
     B. At least two VEC accredited General Class or higher VEs must be present
     C. At least two General Class or higher VEs must be present, but only one need be VEC accredited
     D. At least three VEs of Technician Class or higher must be present

    G1E02     [97.205(a)]

  57.   When may a 10 meter repeater retransmit the 2 meter signal from a station having a Technician Class control operator?
     A. Under no circumstances
     B. Only if the station on 10 meters is operating under a Special Temporary Authorization allowing such retransmission
     C. Only during an FCC declared general state of communications emergency
     D. Only if the 10 meter repeater control operator holds at least a General Class license


  58.   Which of the following is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands?
     A. Upper sideband
     B. Lower sideband
     C. Vestigial sideband
     D. Double sideband


  59.   What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in?
     A. Continue your communication because you were on frequency first
     B. Acknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be needed
     C. Change to a different frequency
     D. Immediately cease all transmissions


  60.   What does the Q signal "QRV" mean?
     A. You are sending too fast
     B. There is interference on the frequency
     C. I am quitting for the day
     D. I am ready to receive messages


  61.   What is QRP operation?
     A. Remote piloted model control
     B. Low power transmit operation
     C. Transmission using Quick Response Protocol
     D. Traffic relay procedure net operation


  62.   What part of a data packet contains the routing and handling information?
     A. Directory
     B. Preamble
     C. Header
     D. Footer


  63.   What does the A-index indicate?
     A. The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun
     B. The amount of polarization of the Sun's electric field
     C. The long term stability of the Earth's geomagnetic field
     D. The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado


  64.   What is a reliable way to determine if the Maximum Usable Frequency (MUF) is high enough to support skip propagation between your station and a distant location on frequencies between 14 and 30 MHz?
     A. Listen for signals from an international beacon
     B. Send a series of dots on the band and listen for echoes from your signal
     C. Check the strength of TV signals from Western Europe
     D. Check the strength of signals in the MF AM broadcast band


  65.   Why are HF scatter signals in the skip zone usually weak?
     A. Only a small part of the signal energy is scattered into the skip zone
     B. Signals are scattered from the magnetosphere which is not a good reflector
     C. Propagation is through ground waves which absorb most of the signal energy
     D. Propagations is through ducts in F region which absorb most of the energy


  66.   Why is a time delay sometimes included in a transmitter keying circuit?
     A. To prevent stations from talking over each other
     B. To allow the transmitter power regulators to charge properly
     C. To allow time for transmit-receive changeover operations to complete properly before RF output is allowed
     D. To allow time for a warning signal to be sent to other stations


  67.   Which of the following is an advantage of an oscilloscope versus a digital voltmeter?
     A. An oscilloscope uses less power
     B. Complex impedances can be easily measured
     C. Input impedance is much lower
     D. Complex waveforms can be measured


  68.   Which of the following is an advantage of a receiver Digital Signal Processor IF filter as compared to an analog filter?
     A. A wide range of filter bandwidths and shapes can be created
     B. Fewer digital components are required
     C. Mixing products are greatly reduced
     D. The DSP filter is much more effective at VHF frequencies


  69.   Which of the following can be the result of an incorrectly adjusted speech processor?
     A. Distorted speech
     B. Splatter
     C. Excessive background pickup
     D. All of these choices are correct


  70.   Which of the following most limits the effectiveness of an HF mobile transceiver operating in the 75 meter band?
     A. "Picket Fencing" signal variation
     B. The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver
     C. The antenna system
     D. FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75 meter band


  71.   Which of the following causes opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor?
     A. Conductance
     B. Reluctance
     C. Reactance
     D. Admittance


  72.   Which value of an AC signal results in the same power dissipation as a DC voltage of the same value?
     A. The peak-to-peak value
     B. The peak value
     C. The RMS value
     D. The reciprocal of the RMS value


  73.   What is the inductance of three 10 millihenry inductors connected in parallel?
     A. .30 Henrys
     B. 3.3 Henrys
     C. 3.3 millihenrys
     D. 30 millihenrys


  74.   Which of the following is an advantage of an electrolytic capacitor?
     A. Tight tolerance
     B. Non-polarized
     C. High capacitance for given volume
     D. Inexpensive RF capacitor


  75.   What is the peak-inverse-voltage rating of a rectifier?
     A. The maximum voltage the rectifier will handle in the conducting direction
     B. 1.4 times the AC frequency
     C. The maximum voltage the rectifier will handle in the non-conducting direction
     D. 2.8 times the AC frequency


  76.   Which of the following connectors would be a good choice for a serial data port?
     A. PL-259
     B. Type N
     C. Type SMA
     D. DE-9


  77.   Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a multiple-winding transformer?
     A. Symbol 4
     B. Symbol 7
     C. Symbol 6
     D. Symbol 1


  78.   How many states does a 3-bit binary counter have?
     A. 3
     B. 6
     C. 8
     D. 16


  79.   What is meant by the term "software defined radio" (SDR)?
     A. A radio in which most major signal processing functions are performed by software
     B. A radio which provides computer interface for automatic logging of band and frequency
     C. A radio which uses crystal filters designed using software
     D. A computer model which can simulate performance of a radio to aid in the design process


  80.   Which of the following is an effect of over-modulation?
     A. Insufficient audio
     B. Insufficient bandwidth
     C. Frequency drift
     D. Excessive bandwidth


  81.   How does forward error correction allow the receiver to correct errors in received data packets?
     A. By controlling transmitter output power for optimum signal strength
     B. By using the varicode character set
     C. By transmitting redundant information with the data
     D. By using a parity bit with each character


  82.   How does the attenuation of coaxial cable change as the frequency of the signal it is carrying increases?
     A. It is independent of frequency
     B. It increases
     C. It decreases
     D. It reaches a maximum at approximately 18 MHz


  83.   How does the feed-point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed-point location is moved from the center toward the ends?
     A. It steadily increases
     B. It steadily decreases
     C. It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength from the end
     D. It is unaffected by the location of the feed point


  84.   What configuration of the loops of a two-element quad antenna must be used for the antenna to operate as a beam antenna, assuming one of the elements is used as a reflector?
     A. The driven element must be fed with a balun transformer
     B. The driven element must be open-circuited on the side opposite the feed point
     C. The reflector element must be approximately 5% shorter than the driven element
     D. The reflector element must be approximately 5% longer than the driven element


  85.   Which of the following describes a log periodic antenna?
     A. Length and spacing of the elements increases logarithmically from one end of the boom to the other
     B. Impedance varies periodically as a function of frequency
     C. Gain varies logarithmically as a function of frequency
     D. SWR varies periodically as a function of boom length


  86.   What kind of hazard might exist in a power supply when it is turned off and disconnected?
     A. Static electricity could damage the grounding system
     B. Circulating currents inside the transformer might cause damage
     C. The fuse might blow if you remove the cover
     D. You might receive an electric shock from the charged stored in large capacitors


  87.   What is a good precaution to observe before climbing an antenna tower?
     A. Make sure that you wear a grounded wrist strap
     B. Remove all tower grounding connections
     C. Put on a climbing harness and safety glasses
     D. All of the these choices are correct


  88.   How can you make sure your station stays in compliance with RF safety regulations?
     A. By informing the FCC of any changes made in your station
     B. By re-evaluating the station whenever an item of equipment is changed
     C. By making sure your antennas have low SWR
     D. All of these choices are correct

    T1A05     [97.1 (e)]

  89.   Which of the following is a purpose of the Amateur Radio Service rules and regulations as defined by the FCC?
     A. Enhancing international goodwill
     B. Providing inexpensive communication for local emergency organizations
     C. Training of operators in military radio operating procedures
     D. All of these choices are correct

    T1B02     [97.301]

  90.   Why are the frequency assignments for some U.S. Territories different from those in the 50 U.S. States?
     A. Some U. S. Territories are located in ITU regions other than region 2
     B. Territorial governments are allowed to select their own frequency allocations
     C. Territorial frequency allocations must also include those of adjacent countries
     D. Any territory that was in existence before the ratification of the Communications Act of 1934 is exempt from FCC frequency regulations

    T1C06     [97.5(a)(2)]

  91.   From which of the following locations may an FCC-licensed amateur station transmit, in addition to places where the FCC regulates communications?
     A. From within any country that belongs to the International Telecommunications Union
     B. From within any country that is a member of the United Nations
     C. From anywhere within in ITU Regions 2 and 3
     D. From any vessel or craft located in international waters and documented or registered in the United States

    T1D08     [97.113(a)(3)(iii)]

  92.   In which of the following circumstances may the control operator of an amateur station receive compensation for operating the station?
     A. When engaging in communications on behalf of their employer
     B. When the communication is incidental to classroom instruction at an educational institution
     C. When re-broadcasting weather alerts during a RACES net
     D. When notifying other amateur operators of the availability for sale or trade of apparatus

    T1E06     [97.109(d)]

  93.   Under what type of control do APRS network digipeaters operate?
     A. Automatic
     B. Remote
     C. Local
     D. Manual

    T1F10     [97.205(g)]

  94.   Who is accountable should a repeater inadvertently retransmit communications that violate the FCC rules?
     A. The control operator of the originating station
     B. The control operator of the repeater
     C. The owner of the repeater
     D. Both the originating station and the repeater owner


  95.   How should you respond to a station calling CQ?
     A. Transmit CQ followed by the other station's call sign
     B. Transmit your call sign followed by the other station's call sign
     C. Transmit the other station's call sign followed by your call sign
     D. Transmit a signal report followed by your call sign


  96.   Under what circumstances should you consider communicating via simplex rather than a repeater?
     A. When the stations can communicate directly without using a repeater
     B. Only when you have an endorsement for simplex operation on your license
     C. Only when third party traffic is not being passed
     D. Only if you have simplex modulation capability


  97.   What is the Amateur Radio Emergency Service (ARES)?
     A. Licensed amateurs who have voluntarily registered their qualifications and equipment for communications duty in the public service
     B. Licensed amateurs who are members of the military and who voluntarily agreed to provide message handling services in the case of an emergency
     C. A training program that provides licensing courses for those interested in obtaining an amateur license to use during emergencies
     D. A training program that certifies amateur operators for membership in the Radio Amateur Civil Emergency Service


  98.   When using a directional antenna, how might your station be able to access a distant repeater if buildings or obstructions are blocking the direct line of sight path?
     A. Change from vertical to horizontal polarization
     B. Try to find a path that reflects signals to the repeater
     C. Try the long path
     D. Increase the antenna SWR


  99.   What property of radio waves is often used to identify the different frequency bands?
     A. The approximate wavelength
     B. The magnetic intensity of waves
     C. The time it takes for waves to travel one mile
     D. The voltage standing wave ratio of waves


  100.   What causes tropospheric ducting?
     A. Discharges of lightning during electrical storms
     B. Sunspots and solar flares
     C. Updrafts from hurricanes and tornadoes
     D. Temperature inversions in the atmosphere


  101.   Which of the following would be connected between a transceiver and computer in a packet radio station?
     A. Transmatch
     B. Mixer
     C. Terminal node controller
     D. Antenna


  102.   Which of the following would reduce ignition interference to a receiver?
     A. Change frequency slightly
     B. Decrease the squelch setting
     C. Turn on the noise blanker
     D. Use the RIT control


  103.   What term describes the number of times per second that an alternating current reverses direction?
     A. Pulse rate
     B. Speed
     C. Wavelength
     D. Frequency


  104.   How many milliamperes is 1.5 amperes?
     A. 15 milliamperes
     B. 150 milliamperes
     C. 1,500 milliamperes
     D. 15,000 milliamperes


  105.   What is the ability to store energy in a magnetic field called?
     A. Admittance
     B. Capacitance
     C. Resistance
     D. Inductance


  106.   What is the resistance of a circuit that draws 4 amperes from a 12-volt source?
     A. 3 ohms
     B. 16 ohms
     C. 48 ohms
     D. 8 Ohms


  107.   What electrical parameter is controlled by a potentiometer?
     A. Inductance
     B. Resistance
     C. Capacitance
     D. Field strength


  108.   Which of the following electronic components can amplify signals?
     A. Transistor
     B. Variable resistor
     C. Electrolytic capacitor
     D. Multi-cell battery


  109.   What is component 9 in figure T2?
     A. Variable capacitor
     B. Variable inductor
     C. Variable resistor
     D. Variable transformer


  110.   Which of the following can be used to display signal strength on a numeric scale?
     A. Potentiometer
     B. Transistor
     C. Meter
     D. Relay


  111.   What device takes the output of a low-powered 28 MHz SSB exciter and produces a 222 MHz output signal?
     A. High-pass filter
     B. Low-pass filter
     C. Transverter
     D. Phase converter


  112.   What might be the first step to resolve cable TV interference from your ham radio transmission?
     A. Add a low pass filter to the TV antenna input
     B. Add a high pass filter to the TV antenna input
     C. Add a preamplifier to the TV antenna input
     D. Be sure all TV coaxial connectors are installed properly


  113.   Why should the outer jacket of coaxial cable be resistant to ultraviolet light?
     A. Ultraviolet resistant jackets prevent harmonic radiation
     B. Ultraviolet light can increase losses in the cable's jacket
     C. Ultraviolet and RF signals can mix together, causing interference
     D. Ultraviolet light can damage the jacket and allow water to enter the cable


  114.   Which instrument is used to measure electric current?
     A. An ohmmeter
     B. A wavemeter
     C. A voltmeter
     D. An ammeter


  115.   What is the primary advantage of single sideband over FM for voice transmissions?
     A. SSB signals are easier to tune
     B. SSB signals are less susceptible to interference
     C. SSB signals have narrower bandwidth
     D. All of these choices are correct


  116.   What is a commonly used method of sending signals to and from a digital satellite?
     A. USB AFSK
     B. PSK31
     C. FM Packet
     D. WSJT

    T8C08     [97.215(a)]

  117.   What is required in place of on-air station identification when sending signals to a radio control model using amateur frequencies?
     A. Voice identification must be transmitted every 10 minutes
     B. Morse code ID must be sent once per hour
     C. A label indicating the licensee's name, call sign and address must be affixed to the transmitter
     D. A flag must be affixed to the transmitter antenna with the station call sign in 1 inch high letters or larger


  118.   What type of transmission is indicated by the term NTSC?
     A. A Normal Transmission mode in Static Circuit
     B. A special mode for earth satellite uplink
     C. An analog fast scan color TV signal
     D. A frame compression scheme for TV signals


  119.   Which of the following describes a simple dipole mounted so the conductor is parallel to the Earth's surface?
     A. A ground wave antenna
     B. A horizontally polarized antenna
     C. A rhombic antenna
     D. A vertically polarized antenna


  120.   What does an antenna tuner do?
     A. It matches the antenna system impedance to the transceiver's output impedance
     B. It helps a receiver automatically tune in weak stations
     C. It allows an antenna to be used on both transmit and receive
     D. It automatically selects the proper antenna for the frequency band being used