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About Practice Exam -


  1.   When evaluating a site with multiple transmitters operating at the same time, the operators and licensees of which transmitters are responsible for mitigating over-exposure situations?
     A. Only the most powerful transmitter
     B. Only commercial transmitters
     C. Each transmitter that produces 5% or more of its MPE exposure limit at accessible locations
     D. Each transmitter operating with a duty-cycle greater than 50%

    E1A07     [97.303]

  2.   What is the only amateur band where transmission on specific channels rather than a range of frequencies is permitted?
     A. 12 meter band
     B. 17 meter band
     C. 30 meter band
     D. 60 meter band

    E1B01     [97.3]

  3.   Which of the following constitutes a spurious emission?
     A. An amateur station transmission made at random without the proper call sign identification
     B. A signal transmitted to prevent its detection by any station other than the intended recipient
     C. Any transmitted bogus signal that interferes with another licensed radio station
     D. An emission outside its necessary bandwidth that can be reduced or eliminated without affecting the information transmitted

    E1C07     [97.3]

  4.   What is meant by local control?
     A. Controlling a station through a local auxiliary link
     B. Automatically manipulating local station controls
     C. Direct manipulation of the transmitter by a control operator
     D. Controlling a repeater using a portable handheld transceiver

    E1D05     [97.207]

  5.   What class of licensee is authorized to be the control operator of a space station?
     A. All except Technician Class
     B. Only General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class
     C. All classes
     D. Only Amateur Extra Class

    E1E03     [97.521]

  6.   What is a Volunteer Examiner Coordinator?
     A. A person who has volunteered to administer amateur operator license examinations
     B. A person who has volunteered to prepare amateur operator license examinations
     C. An organization that has entered into an agreement with the FCC to coordinate amateur operator license examinations
     D. The person who has entered into an agreement with the FCC to be the VE session manager

    E1F10     [97.313]

  7.   What is the maximum transmitter power for an amateur station transmitting spread spectrum communications?
     A. 1 W
     B. 1.5 W
     C. 10 W
     D. 1.5 kW


  8.   What is the direction of a descending pass for an amateur satellite?
     A. From north to south
     B. From west to east
     C. From east to west
     D. From south to north


  9.   What is vestigial sideband modulation?
     A. Amplitude modulation in which one complete sideband and a portion of the other are transmitted
     B. A type of modulation in which one sideband is inverted
     C. Narrow-band FM transmission achieved by filtering one sideband from the audio before frequency modulating the carrier
     D. Spread spectrum modulation achieved by applying FM modulation following single sideband amplitude modulation


  10.   How should you generally identify your station when attempting to contact a DX station working a pileup or in a contest?
     A. Send your full call sign once or twice
     B. Send only the last two letters of your call sign until you make contact
     C. Send your full call sign and grid square
     D. Send the call sign of the DX station three times, the words this is, then your call sign three times


  11.   Which of the following digital modes is especially designed for use for meteor scatter signals?
     A. WSPR
     B. FSK441
     C. Hellschreiber
     D. APRS


  12.   How does ARQ accomplish error correction?
     A. Special binary codes provide automatic correction
     B. Special polynomial codes provide automatic correction
     C. If errors are detected, redundant data is substituted
     D. If errors are detected, a retransmission is requested


  13.   Which of the following is a good technique for making meteor-scatter contacts?
     A. 15 second timed transmission sequences with stations alternating based on location
     B. Use of high speed CW or digital modes
     C. Short transmission with rapidly repeated call signs and signal reports
     D. All of these choices are correct


  14.   What is the cause of gray-line propagation?
     A. At midday, the Sun being directly overhead superheats the ionosphere causing increased refraction of radio waves
     B. At twilight, D-layer absorption drops while E-layer and F-layer propagation remain strong
     C. In darkness, solar absorption drops greatly while atmospheric ionization remains steady
     D. At mid afternoon, the Sun heats the ionosphere decreasing radio wave refraction and the MUF


  15.   Why does the radio-path horizon distance exceed the geometric horizon?
     A. E-region skip
     B. D-region skip
     C. Downward bending due to aurora refraction
     D. Downward bending due to density variations in the atmosphere


  16.   How does a spectrum analyzer differ from an oscilloscope?
     A. A spectrum analyzer measures ionospheric reflection; an oscilloscope displays electrical signals
     B. A spectrum analyzer displays the peak amplitude of signals; an oscilloscope displays the average amplitude of signals
     C. A spectrum analyzer displays signals in the frequency domain; an oscilloscope displays signals in the time domain
     D. A spectrum analyzer displays radio frequencies; an oscilloscope displays audio frequencies


  17.   Which of the following factors most affects the accuracy of a frequency counter?
     A. Input attenuator accuracy
     B. Time base accuracy
     C. Decade divider accuracy
     D. Temperature coefficient of the logic


  18.   What does a value of -174 dBm/Hz represent with regard to the noise floor of a receiver?
     A. The minimum detectable signal as a function of receive frequency
     B. The theoretical noise at the input of a perfect receiver at room temperature
     C. The noise figure of a 1 Hz bandwidth receiver
     D. The galactic noise contribution to minimum detectable signal


  19.   How can intermodulation interference between two repeaters occur?
     A. When the repeaters are in close proximity and the signals cause feedback in the final amplifier of one or both transmitters
     B. When the repeaters are in close proximity and the signals mix in the final amplifier of one or both transmitters
     C. When the signals from the transmitters are reflected out of phase from airplanes passing overhead
     D. When the signals from the transmitters are reflected in phase from airplanes passing overhead


  20.   Which of the following types of receiver noise can often be reduced with a DSP noise filter?
     A. Broadband white noise
     B. Ignition noise
     C. Power line noise
     D. All of these choices are correct


  21.   What is the magnitude of the circulating current within the components of a parallel LC circuit at resonance?
     A. It is at a minimum
     B. It is at a maximum
     C. It equals 1 divided by the quantity 2 times Pi, multiplied by the square root of inductance L multiplied by capacitance C
     D. It equals 2 multiplied by Pi, multiplied by frequency "F", multiplied by inductance "L"


  22.   What is the term for the time it takes for a charged capacitor in an RC circuit to discharge to 36.8% of its initial voltage?
     A. One discharge period
     B. An exponential discharge rate of one
     C. A discharge factor of one
     D. One time constant


  23.   If you plot the impedance of a circuit using the rectangular coordinate system and find the impedance point falls on the right side of the graph on the horizontal axis, what do you know about the circuit?
     A. It has to be a direct current circuit
     B. It contains resistance and capacitive reactance
     C. It contains resistance and inductive reactance
     D. It is equivalent to a pure resistance


  24.   Which of the following creates a magnetic field?
     A. Potential differences between two points in space
     B. Electric current
     C. A charged capacitor
     D. A battery


  25.   What are the names of the three terminals of a field-effect transistor?
     A. Gate 1, gate 2, drain
     B. Emitter, base, collector
     C. Emitter, base 1, base 2
     D. Gate, drain, source


  26.   What characteristic of a PIN diode makes it useful as an RF switch or attenuator?
     A. Extremely high reverse breakdown voltage
     B. Ability to dissipate large amounts of power
     C. Reverse bias controls its forward voltage drop
     D. A large region of intrinsic material


  27.   In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for an OR gate?
     A. 2
     B. 3
     C. 4
     D. 6


  28.   How many turns will be required to produce a 5-microhenry inductor using a powdered-iron toroidal core that has an inductance index (A L) value of 40 microhenrys/100 turns?
     A. 35 turns
     B. 13 turns
     C. 79 turns
     D. 141 turns


  29.   Which of the following factors has the greatest effect in helping determine the bandwidth and response shape of a crystal ladder filter?
     A. The relative frequencies of the individual crystals
     B. The DC voltage applied to the quartz crystal
     C. The gain of the RF stage preceding the filter
     D. The amplitude of the signals passing through the filter


  30.   What is the efficiency of a photovoltaic cell?
     A. The output RF power divided by the input dc power
     B. The effective payback period
     C. The open-circuit voltage divided by the short-circuit current under full illumination
     D. The relative fraction of light that is converted to current


  31.   What is the name for logic which represents a logic "1" as a high voltage?
     A. Reverse Logic
     B. Assertive Logic
     C. Negative logic
     D. Positive Logic


  32.   Which of the following is a likely result when a Class C amplifier is used to amplify a single-sideband phone signal?
     A. Reduced intermodulation products
     B. Increased overall intelligibility
     C. Signal inversion
     D. Signal distortion and excessive bandwidth


  33.   What type of digital signal processing filter might be used to generate an SSB signal?
     A. An adaptive filter
     B. A notch filter
     C. A Hilbert-transform filter
     D. An elliptical filter


  34.   What is the purpose of C3 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?
     A. It prevents self-oscillation
     B. It provides brute force filtering of the output
     C. It provides fixed bias for Q1
     D. It clips the peaks of the ripple


  35.   What is the function of a reactance modulator?
     A. To produce PM signals by using an electrically variable resistance
     B. To produce AM signals by using an electrically variable inductance or capacitance
     C. To produce AM signals by using an electrically variable resistance
     D. To produce PM signals by using an electrically variable inductance or capacitance


  36.   Which of the following would be used to reduce a signal's frequency by a factor of ten?
     A. A preamp
     B. A prescaler
     C. A marker generator
     D. A flip-flop


  37.   What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-4 when R1 is 1800 ohms and RF is 68 kilohms?
     A. 1
     B. 0.03
     C. 38
     D. 76


  38.   Why is the short-term stability of the reference oscillator important in the design of a phase locked loop (PLL) frequency synthesizer?
     A. Any amplitude variations in the reference oscillator signal will prevent the loop from locking to the desired signal
     B. Any phase variations in the reference oscillator signal will produce phase noise in the synthesizer output
     C. Any phase variations in the reference oscillator signal will produce harmonic distortion in the modulating signal
     D. Any amplitude variations in the reference oscillator signal will prevent the loop from changing frequency


  39.   What determines the PEP-to-average power ratio of a single-sideband phone signal?
     A. The frequency of the modulating signal
     B. The characteristics of the modulating signal
     C. The degree of carrier suppression
     D. The amplifier gain


  40.   How does the modulation index of a phase-modulated emission vary with RF carrier frequency (the modulated frequency)?
     A. It increases as the RF carrier frequency increases
     B. It decreases as the RF carrier frequency increases
     C. It varies with the square root of the RF carrier frequency
     D. It does not depend on the RF carrier frequency


  41.   Which one of the following digital codes consists of elements having unequal length?
     A. ASCII
     B. AX.25
     C. Baudot
     D. Morse code


  42.   Which of the following is a typical value for the peak-to-peak voltage at a standard U.S. household electrical outlet?
     A. 240 volts
     B. 120 volts
     C. 340 volts
     D. 170 volts


  43.   Which of the following factors may affect the feed point impedance of an antenna?
     A. Transmission-line length
     B. Antenna height, conductor length/diameter ratio and location of nearby conductive objects
     C. Constant feed point impedance
     D. Sunspot activity and time of day


  44.   In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the front-to-side ratio?
     A. 12 dB
     B. 14 dB
     C. 18 dB
     D. 24 dB


  45.   What are the disadvantages of a terminated rhombic antenna for the HF bands?
     A. The antenna has a very narrow operating bandwidth
     B. The antenna produces a circularly polarized signal
     C. The antenna requires a large physical area and 4 separate supports
     D. The antenna is more sensitive to man-made static than any other type


  46.   What is a disadvantage of using a multiband trapped antenna?
     A. It might radiate harmonics
     B. It radiates the harmonics and fundamental equally well
     C. It is too sharply directional at lower frequencies
     D. It must be neutralized


  47.   Which of the following measurements is characteristic of a mismatched transmission line?
     A. An SWR less than 1:1
     B. A reflection coefficient greater than 1
     C. A dielectric constant greater than 1
     D. An SWR greater than 1:1


  48.   What impedance does a 1/8-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at the far end?
     A. The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
     B. An inductive reactance
     C. A capacitive reactance
     D. The same as the input impedance of the final generator stage


  49.   What type of coordinate system is used in a Smith chart?
     A. Voltage circles and current arcs
     B. Resistance circles and reactance arcs
     C. Voltage lines and current chords
     D. Resistance lines and reactance chords


  50.   What is the effective isotropic radiated power of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 2-dB feed line loss, 2.8-dB duplexer loss, 1.2-dB circulator loss and 7-dBi antenna gain?
     A. 159 watts
     B. 252 watts
     C. 632 watts
     D. 63.2 watts


  51.   Which of the following properties is important in estimating whether an RF signal exceeds the maximum permissible exposure (MPE)?
     A. Its duty cycle
     B. Its frequency
     C. Its power density
     D. All of these choices are correct


  52.   Which size of fuse or circuit breaker would be appropriate to use with a circuit that uses AWG number 14 wiring?
     A. 100 amperes
     B. 60 amperes
     C. 30 amperes
     D. 15 amperes

    G1A15     [97.303]

  53.   What is the appropriate action if, when operating on either the 30 or 60 meter bands, a station in the primary service interferes with your contact?
     A. Notify the FCC's regional Engineer in Charge of the interference
     B. Increase your transmitter's power to overcome the interference
     C. Attempt to contact the station and request that it stop the interference
     D. Move to a clear frequency

    G1B11     [97.101(a)]

  54.   How does the FCC require an amateur station to be operated in all respects not specifically covered by the Part 97 rules?
     A. In conformance with the rules of the IARU
     B. In conformance with Amateur Radio custom
     C. In conformance with good engineering and good amateur practice
     D. All of these choices are correct

    G1C04     [97.313]

  55.   Which of the following is a limitation on transmitter power on the 14 MHz band?
     A. Only the minimum power necessary to carry out the desired communications should be used
     B. Power must be limited to 200 watts when transmitting between 14.100 MHz and 14.150 MHz
     C. Power should be limited as necessary to avoid interference to another radio service on the frequency
     D. Effective radiated power cannot exceed 3000 watts

    G1D06     [97.119(f)(2)]

  56.   When must you add the special identifier "AG" after your call sign if you are a Technician Class licensee and have a CSCE for General Class operator privileges, but the FCC has not yet posted your upgrade on its Web site?
     A. Whenever you operate using General Class frequency privileges
     B. Whenever you operate on any amateur frequency
     C. Whenever you operate using Technician frequency privileges
     D. A special identifier is not required as long as your General Class license application has been filed with the FCC

    G1E03     [97.301(d)]

  57.   In what ITU region is operation in the 7.175 to 7.300 MHz band permitted for a control operator holding an FCC-issued General Class license?
     A. Region 1
     B. Region 2
     C. Region 3
     D. All three regions


  58.   Which of the following is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands?
     A. Upper sideband
     B. Lower sideband
     C. Vestigial sideband
     D. Double sideband


  59.   When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what minimum frequency separation should you allow in order to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?
     A. 5 to 50 Hz
     B. 150 to 500 Hz
     C. 1 to 3 kHz
     D. 3 to 6 kHz


  60.   What does it mean when a CW operator sends "KN" at the end of a transmission?
     A. Listening for novice stations
     B. Operating full break-in
     C. Listening only for a specific station or stations
     D. Closing station now


  61.   How is a directional antenna pointed when making a "long-path" contact with another station?
     A. Toward the rising Sun
     B. Along the gray line
     C. 180 degrees from its short-path heading
     D. Toward the north


  62.   In the PACTOR protocol, what is meant by an NAK response to a transmitted packet?
     A. The receiver is requesting the packet be re-transmitted
     B. The receiver is reporting the packet was received without error
     C. The receiver is busy decoding the packet
     D. The entire file has been received correctly


  63.   What is a possible benefit to radio communications resulting from periods of high geomagnetic activity?
     A. Aurora that can reflect VHF signals
     B. Higher signal strength for HF signals passing through the polar regions
     C. Improved HF long path propagation
     D. Reduced long delayed echoes


  64.   How might a sky-wave signal sound if it arrives at your receiver by both short path and long path propagation?
     A. Periodic fading approximately every 10 seconds
     B. Signal strength increased by 3 dB
     C. The signal might be cancelled causing severe attenuation
     D. A well-defined echo might be heard


  65.   What does the term "critical angle" mean as used in radio wave propagation?
     A. The long path azimuth of a distant station
     B. The short path azimuth of a distant station
     C. The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to the Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
     D. The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to the Earth under specific ionospheric conditions


  66.   What is the purpose of the "notch filter" found on many HF transceivers?
     A. To restrict the transmitter voice bandwidth
     B. To reduce interference from carriers in the receiver passband
     C. To eliminate receiver interference from impulse noise sources
     D. To enhance the reception of a specific frequency on a crowded band


  67.   Which of the following can be determined with a directional wattmeter?
     A. Standing wave ratio
     B. Antenna front-to-back ratio
     C. RF interference
     D. Radio wave propagation


  68.   Which of the following is one use for a Digital Signal Processor in an amateur station?
     A. To provide adequate grounding
     B. To remove noise from received signals
     C. To increase antenna gain
     D. To increase antenna bandwidth


  69.   What does an S meter measure?
     A. Conductance
     B. Impedance
     C. Received signal strength
     D. Transmitter power output


  70.   Which of the following most limits the effectiveness of an HF mobile transceiver operating in the 75 meter band?
     A. "Picket Fencing" signal variation
     B. The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver
     C. The antenna system
     D. FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75 meter band


  71.   What is impedance?
     A. The electric charge stored by a capacitor
     B. The inverse of resistance
     C. The opposition to the flow of current in an AC circuit
     D. The force of repulsion between two similar electric fields


  72.   Which value of an AC signal results in the same power dissipation as a DC voltage of the same value?
     A. The peak-to-peak value
     B. The peak value
     C. The RMS value
     D. The reciprocal of the RMS value


  73.   What is the capacitance of three 100 microfarad capacitors connected in series?
     A. .30 microfarads
     B. .33 microfarads
     C. 33.3 microfarads
     D. 300 microfarads


  74.   Which of the following is one effect of lead inductance in a capacitor used at VHF and above?
     A. Effective capacitance may be reduced
     B. Voltage rating may be reduced
     C. ESR may be reduced
     D. The polarity of the capacitor might become reversed


  75.   Which of the following describes the construction of a MOSFET?
     A. The gate is formed by a back-biased junction
     B. The gate is separated from the channel with a thin insulating layer
     C. The source is separated from the drain by a thin insulating layer
     D. The source is formed by depositing metal on silicon


  76.   What is meant by the term MMIC?
     A. Multi Megabyte Integrated Circuit
     B. Monolithic Microwave Integrated Circuit
     C. Military-specification Manufactured Integrated Circuit
     D. Mode Modulated Integrated Circuit


  77.   What is the peak-inverse-voltage across the rectifiers in a full-wave bridge power supply?
     A. One-quarter the normal output voltage of the power supply
     B. Half the normal output voltage of the power supply
     C. Double the normal peak output voltage of the power supply
     D. Equal to the normal peak output voltage of the power supply


  78.   How many states does a 3-bit binary counter have?
     A. 3
     B. 6
     C. 8
     D. 16


  79.   What should be the impedance of a low-pass filter as compared to the impedance of the transmission line into which it is inserted?
     A. Substantially higher
     B. About the same
     C. Substantially lower
     D. Twice the transmission line impedance


  80.   What is meant by flat-topping of a single-sideband phone transmission?
     A. Signal distortion caused by insufficient collector current
     B. The transmitter's automatic level control is properly adjusted
     C. Signal distortion caused by excessive drive
     D. The transmitter's carrier is properly suppressed


  81.   What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21-MHz reactance-modulated oscillator in a 5-kHz deviation, 146.52-MHz FM-phone transmitter?
     A. 101.75 Hz
     B. 416.7 Hz
     C. 5 kHz
     D. 60 kHz


  82.   Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor antenna feed line?
     A. The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors
     B. The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line
     C. The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal
     D. The frequency of the signal and the length of the line


  83.   What is one disadvantage of a directly fed random-wire antenna?
     A. It must be longer than 1 wavelength
     B. You may experience RF burns when touching metal objects in your station
     C. It produces only vertically polarized radiation
     D. It is not effective on the higher HF bands


  84.   Which statement about a three-element; single-band Yagi antenna is true?
     A. The reflector is normally the longest parasitic element
     B. The director is normally the longest parasitic element
     C. The reflector is normally the shortest parasitic element
     D. All of the elements must be the same length


  85.   Which of the following is an advantage of an NVIS antenna?
     A. Low vertical angle radiation for working stations out to ranges of several thousand kilometers
     B. High vertical angle radiation for working stations within a radius of a few hundred kilometers
     C. High forward gain
     D. All of these choices are correct


  86.   Why is it unwise to install a 20-ampere fuse in the place of a 5-ampere fuse?
     A. The larger fuse would be likely to blow because it is rated for higher current
     B. The power supply ripple would greatly increase
     C. Excessive current could cause a fire
     D. All of these choices are correct


  87.   Which of the following establishes grounding requirements for an amateur radio tower or antenna?
     A. FCC Part 97 Rules
     B. Local electrical codes
     C. FAA tower lighting regulations
     D. Underwriters Laboratories' recommended practices


  88.   Why do exposure limits vary with frequency?
     A. Lower frequency RF fields have more energy than higher frequency fields
     B. Lower frequency RF fields do not penetrate the human body
     C. Higher frequency RF fields are transient in nature
     D. The human body absorbs more RF energy at some frequencies than at others

    T1A05     [97.1 (e)]

  89.   Which of the following is a purpose of the Amateur Radio Service rules and regulations as defined by the FCC?
     A. Enhancing international goodwill
     B. Providing inexpensive communication for local emergency organizations
     C. Training of operators in military radio operating procedures
     D. All of these choices are correct

    T1B13     [97.305(c)]

  90.   Which emission may be used between 219 and 220 MHz?
     A. Spread spectrum
     B. Data
     C. SSB voice
     D. Fast-scan television

    T1C12     [97.19]

  91.   Who may select a desired call sign under the vanity call sign rules?
     A. Only licensed amateurs with general or extra class licenses
     B. Only licensed amateurs with an extra class license
     C. Only an amateur licensee who has been licensed continuously for more than 10 years
     D. Any licensed amateur

    T1D08     [97.113(a)(3)(iii)]

  92.   In which of the following circumstances may the control operator of an amateur station receive compensation for operating the station?
     A. When engaging in communications on behalf of their employer
     B. When the communication is incidental to classroom instruction at an educational institution
     C. When re-broadcasting weather alerts during a RACES net
     D. When notifying other amateur operators of the availability for sale or trade of apparatus

    T1E02     [97.7(a)]

  93.   Who may a station licensee designate to be the control operator of an amateur station?
     A. Any U.S. citizen or registered alien
     B. Any family member of the station licensee
     C. Any person over the age of 18
     D. Only a person for whom an amateur operator/primary station license grant appears in the FCC database or who is authorized for alien reciprocal operation

    T1F03     [97.119(a)]

  94.   When is an amateur station required to transmit its assigned call sign?
     A. At the beginning of each contact, and every 10 minutes thereafter
     B. At least once during each transmission
     C. At least every 15 minutes during and at the end of a communication
     D. At least every 10 minutes during and at the end of a communication


  95.   Which of the following is true when making a test transmission?
     A. Station identification is not required if the transmission is less than 15 seconds
     B. Station identification is not required if the transmission is less than 1 watt
     C. Station identification is only required once an hour when the transmissions are for test purposes only
     D. Station identification is required at least every ten minutes during the test and at the end of the test


  96.   Which of the following common problems might cause you to be able to hear but not access a repeater even when transmitting with the proper offset?
     A. The repeater receiver may require an audio tone burst for access
     B. The repeater receiver may require a CTCSS tone for access
     C. The repeater receiver may require a DCS tone sequence for access
     D. All of these choices are correct


  97.   Which of the following is a characteristic of good emergency traffic handling?
     A. Passing messages exactly as received
     B. Making decisions as to whether or not messages should be relayed or delivered
     C. Communicating messages to the news media for broadcast outside the disaster area
     D. All of these choices are correct


  98.   What may occur if data signals propagate over multiple paths?
     A. Transmission rates can be increased by a factor equal to the number of separate paths observed
     B. Transmission rates must be decreased by a factor equal to the number of separate paths observed
     C. No significant changes will occur if the signals are transmitting using FM
     D. Error rates are likely to increase


  99.   What are the two components of a radio wave?
     A. AC and DC
     B. Voltage and current
     C. Electric and magnetic fields
     D. Ionizing and non-ionizing radiation


  100.   Which of the following propagation types is most commonly associated with occasional strong over-the-horizon signals on the 10, 6, and 2 meter bands?
     A. Backscatter
     B. Sporadic E
     C. D layer absorption
     D. Gray-line propagation


  101.   Where should the negative return connection of a mobile transceiver's power cable be connected?
     A. At the battery or engine block ground strap
     B. At the antenna mount
     C. To any metal part of the vehicle
     D. Through the transceiver's mounting bracket


  102.   What is the function of automatic gain control or AGC?
     A. To keep received audio relatively constant
     B. To protect an antenna from lightning
     C. To eliminate RF on the station cabling
     D. An asymmetric goniometer control used for antenna matching


  103.   What is the electrical term for the electromotive force (EMF) that causes electron flow?
     A. Voltage
     B. Ampere-hours
     C. Capacitance
     D. Inductance


  104.   What is the approximate amount of change, measured in decibels (dB), of a power increase from 5 watts to 10 watts?
     A. 2 dB
     B. 3 dB
     C. 5 dB
     D. 10 dB


  105.   What is the basic unit of inductance?
     A. The coulomb
     B. The farad
     C. The henry
     D. The ohm


  106.   What is the voltage across a 10-ohm resistor if a current of 2 amperes flows through it?
     A. 8 volts
     B. 0.2 volts
     C. 12 volts
     D. 20 volts


  107.   What type of electrical component consists of two or more conductive surfaces separated by an insulator?
     A. Resistor
     B. Potentiometer
     C. Oscillator
     D. Capacitor


  108.   Which of these components can be used as an electronic switch or amplifier?
     A. Oscillator
     B. Potentiometer
     C. Transistor
     D. Voltmeter


  109.   What is component 6 in figure T2?
     A. Resistor
     B. Capacitor
     C. Regulator IC
     D. Transistor


  110.   What component is commonly used to change 120V AC house current to a lower AC voltage for other uses?
     A. Variable capacitor
     B. Transformer
     C. Transistor
     D. Diode


  111.   Which of the following is used to convert a radio signal from one frequency to another?
     A. Phase splitter
     B. Mixer
     C. Inverter
     D. Amplifier


  112.   How can overload of a non-amateur radio or TV receiver by an amateur signal be reduced or eliminated?
     A. Block the amateur signal with a filter at the antenna input of the affected receiver
     B. Block the interfering signal with a filter on the amateur transmitter
     C. Switch the transmitter from FM to SSB
     D. Switch the transmitter to a narrow-band mode


  113.   What is the primary purpose of a dummy load?
     A. To prevent the radiation of signals when making tests
     B. To prevent over-modulation of your transmitter
     C. To improve the radiation from your antenna
     D. To improve the signal to noise ratio of your receiver


  114.   Which of the following might damage a multimeter?
     A. Measuring a voltage too small for the chosen scale
     B. Leaving the meter in the milliamps position overnight
     C. Attempting to measure voltage when using the resistance setting
     D. Not allowing it to warm up properly


  115.   Which sideband is normally used for 10 meter HF, VHF and UHF single-sideband communications?
     A. Upper sideband
     B. Lower sideband
     C. Suppressed sideband
     D. Inverted sideband


  116.   Which of the following are provided by satellite tracking programs?
     A. Maps showing the real-time position of the satellite track over the earth
     B. The time, azimuth, and elevation of the start, maximum altitude, and end of a pass
     C. The apparent frequency of the satellite transmission, including effects of Doppler shift
     D. All of these answers are correct


  117.   Which of the following is good procedure when contacting another station in a radio contest?
     A. Be sure to sign only the last two letters of your call if there is a pileup calling the station
     B. Work the station twice to be sure that you are in his log
     C. Send only the minimum information needed for proper identification and the contest exchange
     D. All of these choices are correct


  118.   Which of the following may be included in packet transmissions?
     A. A check sum which permits error detection
     B. A header which contains the call sign of the station to which the information is being sent
     C. Automatic repeat request in case of error
     D. All of these choices are correct


  119.   What is a disadvantage of the "rubber duck" antenna supplied with most handheld radio transceivers?
     A. It does not transmit or receive as effectively as a full-sized antenna
     B. It transmits a circularly polarized signal
     C. If the rubber end cap is lost it will unravel very quickly
     D. All of these choices are correct


  120.   What does an antenna tuner do?
     A. It matches the antenna system impedance to the transceiver's output impedance
     B. It helps a receiver automatically tune in weak stations
     C. It allows an antenna to be used on both transmit and receive
     D. It automatically selects the proper antenna for the frequency band being used