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  1.   Which part of the FCC regulations contains the rules governing the Amateur Radio Service?
     A. Part 73
     B. Part 95
     C. Part 90
     D. Part 97

    G1A04     [97.303 (h)]

  2.   Which of the following amateur bands is restricted to communication on only specific channels, rather than frequency ranges?
     A. 11 meters
     B. 12 meters
     C. 30 meters
     D. 60 meters

    E1A11     [97.5]

  3.   What authorization or licensing is required when operating an amateur station aboard a US-registered vessel in international waters?
     A. Any amateur license with an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement
     B. Any FCC-issued amateur license or a reciprocal permit for an alien amateur licensee
     C. Only General class or higher amateur licenses
     D. An unrestricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit

    T1B04     [97.301(a)]

  4.   Which amateur band are you using when your station is transmitting on 146.52 MHz?
     A. 2 meter band
     B. 20 meter band
     C. 14 meter band
     D. 6 meter band

    E1B06     [97.15]

  5.   Which of the following additional rules apply if you are installing an amateur station antenna at a site at or near a public use airport?
     A. You may have to notify the Federal Aviation Administration and register it with the FCC as required by Part 17 of FCC rules
     B. No special rules apply if your antenna structure will be less than 300 feet in height
     C. You must file an Environmental Impact Statement with the EPA before construction begins
     D. You must obtain a construction permit from the airport zoning authority

    G1B07     [97.113(a)(4)]

  6.   What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the Amateur Service?
     A. Only "Q" signals are permitted
     B. They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message
     C. They are not permitted
     D. Only "10 codes" are permitted

    G1C01     [97.313(c)(1)]

  7.   What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?
     A. 200 watts PEP output
     B. 1000 watts PEP output
     C. 1500 watts PEP output
     D. 2000 watts PEP output

    E1C05     [97.109]

  8.   When may an automatically controlled station originate third party communications?
     A. Never
     B. Only when transmitting an RTTY or data emissions
     C. When specifically agreed upon by the sending and receiving stations
     D. When approved by the National Telecommunication and Information Administration

    T1C12     [97.19]

  9.   Who may select a desired call sign under the vanity call sign rules?
     A. Only licensed amateurs with general or extra class licenses
     B. Only licensed amateurs with an extra class license
     C. Only an amateur licensee who has been licensed continuously for more than 10 years
     D. Any licensed amateur

    G1D02     [97.509(b)(3)(i)]

  10.   What license examinations may you administer when you are an accredited VE holding a General Class operator license?
     A. General and Technician
     B. General only
     C. Technician only
     D. Extra, General and Technician

    E1D05     [97.207]

  11.   What class of licensee is authorized to be the control operator of a space station?
     A. All except Technician Class
     B. Only General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class
     C. All classes
     D. Only Amateur Extra Class

    T1D06     [97.113(a)(4)]

  12.   What, if any, are the restrictions concerning transmission of language that may be considered indecent or obscene?
     A. The FCC maintains a list of words that are not permitted to be used on amateur frequencies
     B. Any such language is prohibited
     C. The ITU maintains a list of words that are not permitted to be used on amateur frequencies
     D. There is no such prohibition

    E1E01     [97.509]

  13.   What is the minimum number of qualified VEs required to administer an Element 4 amateur operator license examination?
     A. 5
     B. 2
     C. 4
     D. 3

    G1E05     [97.115(a)(2),97.117]

  14.   What types of messages for a third party in another country may be transmitted by an amateur station?
     A. Any message, as long as the amateur operator is not paid
     B. Only messages for other licensed amateurs
     C. Only messages relating to Amateur Radio or remarks of a personal character, or messages relating to emergencies or disaster relief
     D. Any messages, as long as the text of the message is recorded in the station log

    T1E12     [97.119(e)]

  15.   When, under normal circumstances, may a Technician Class licensee be the control operator of a station operating in an exclusive Extra Class operator segment of the amateur bands?
     A. At no time
     B. When operating a special event station
     C. As part of a multi-operator contest team
     D. When using a club station whose trustee is an Extra Class operator licensee


  16.   What type of identification is being used when identifying a station on the air as Race Headquarters?
     A. Tactical call sign
     B. An official call sign reserved for RACES drills
     C. SSID
     D. Broadcast station

    E1F02     [97.5]

  17.   Which of the following operating arrangements allows an FCC-licensed US citizen to operate in many European countries, and alien amateurs from many European countries to operate in the US?
     A. CEPT agreement
     B. IARP agreement
     C. ITU reciprocal license
     D. All of these choices are correct


  18.   What is a common repeater frequency offset in the 70 cm band?
     A. Plus or minus 5 MHz
     B. Plus or minus 600 kHz
     C. Minus 600 kHz
     D. Plus 600 kHz


  19.   Which mode of voice communication is most commonly used on the HF amateur bands?
     A. Frequency modulation
     B. Double sideband
     C. Single sideband
     D. Phase modulation


  20.   Why should effective radiated power to a satellite which uses a linear transponder be limited?
     A. To prevent creating errors in the satellite telemetry
     B. To avoid reducing the downlink power to all other users
     C. To prevent the satellite from emitting out of band signals
     D. To avoid interfering with terrestrial QSOs


  21.   What is the name of the signal component that carries color information in NTSC video?
     A. Luminance
     B. Chroma
     C. Hue
     D. Spectral Intensity

    G2B11     [97.405]

  22.   What frequency should be used to send a distress call?
     A. Whichever frequency has the best chance of communicating the distress message
     B. Only frequencies authorized for RACES or ARES stations
     C. Only frequencies that are within your operating privileges
     D. Only frequencies used by police, fire or emergency medical services


  23.   Which of the following is true of the use of SSB phone in amateur bands above 50 MHz?
     A. It is permitted only by holders of a General Class or higher license
     B. It is permitted only on repeaters
     C. It is permitted in at least some portion of all the amateur bands above 50 MHz
     D. It is permitted only on when power is limited to no more than 100 watts


  24.   What should you do if a CW station sends "QRS"?
     A. Send slower
     B. Change frequency
     C. Increase your power
     D. Repeat everything twice


  25.   On which of the following frequencies is an amateur radio contest contact generally discouraged?
     A. 3.525 MHz
     B. 14.020 MHz
     C. 28.330 MHz
     D. 146.52 MHz


  26.   Which of the following is an accepted practice for an amateur operator who has checked into an emergency traffic net?
     A. Provided that the frequency is quiet, announce the station call sign and location every 5 minutes
     B. Move 5 kHz away from the net's frequency and use high power to ask other hams to keep clear of the net frequency
     C. Remain on frequency without transmitting until asked to do so by the net control station
     D. All of the choices are correct


  27.   What is the Amateur Auxiliary to the FCC?
     A. Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for rules violations
     B. Amateur volunteers who conduct amateur licensing examinations
     C. Amateur volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for amateur VHF repeaters
     D. Amateur volunteers who use their station equipment to help civil defense organizations in times of emergency


  28.   Which of the following digital modes is especially useful for EME communications?
     A. FSK441
     C. Olivia
     D. JT65


  29.   What is the typical bandwidth of a properly modulated MFSK16 signal?
     A. 31 Hz
     B. 316 Hz
     C. 550 Hz
     D. 2.16 kHz


  30.   In what segment of the 20-meter band are most PSK31 operations commonly found?
     A. At the bottom of the slow-scan TV segment, near 14.230 MHz
     B. At the top of the SSB phone segment, near 14.325 MHz
     C. In the middle of the CW segment, near 14.100 MHz
     D. Below the RTTY segment, near 14.070 MHz


  31.   What frequency range would you normally tune to find EME signals in the 2 meter band?
     A. 144.000 - 144.001 MHz
     B. 144.000 - 144.100 MHz
     C. 144.100 - 144.300 MHz
     D. 145.000 - 145.100 MHz


  32.   Which of the following is a likely cause of irregular fading of signals received by ionospheric reflection?
     A. Frequency shift due to Faraday rotation
     B. Interference from thunderstorms
     C. Random combining of signals arriving via different paths
     D. Intermodulation distortion


  33.   What does the K-index indicate?
     A. The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun
     B. The short term stability of the Earth’s magnetic field
     C. The stability of the Sun's magnetic field
     D. The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado


  34.   What is a reliable way to determine if the MUF is high enough to support skip propagation between your station and a distant location on frequencies between 14 and 30 MHz?
     A. Listen for signals from an international beacon in the frequency range you plan to use
     B. Send a series of dots on the band and listen for echoes from your signal
     C. Check the strength of TV signals from Western Europe
     D. Check the strength of signals in the MF AM broadcast band


  35.   Which of the following could account for hearing an echo on the received signal of a distant station?
     A. High D layer absorption
     B. Meteor scatter
     C. Transmit frequency is higher than the MUF
     D. Receipt of a signal by more than one path


  36.   What are the frequency limits of the VHF spectrum?
     A. 30 to 300 kHz
     B. 30 to 300 MHz
     C. 300 to 3000 kHz
     D. 300 to 3000 MHz


  37.   What causes tropospheric ducting?
     A. Discharges of lightning during electrical storms
     B. Sunspots and solar flares
     C. Updrafts from hurricanes and tornadoes
     D. Temperature inversions in the atmosphere


  38.   Which of the following might be an indication that signals heard on the HF bands are being received via scatter propagation?
     A. The communication is during a sunspot maximum
     B. The communication is during a sudden ionospheric disturbance
     C. The signal is heard on a frequency below the Maximum Usable Frequency
     D. The signal is heard on a frequency above the Maximum Usable Frequency


  39.   How does the maximum distance of ground-wave propagation change when the signal frequency is increased?
     A. It stays the same
     B. It increases
     C. It decreases
     D. It peaks at roughly 14 MHz


  40.   What is the purpose of the "notch filter" found on many HF transceivers?
     A. To restrict the transmitter voice bandwidth
     B. To reduce interference from carriers in the receiver passband
     C. To eliminate receiver interference from impulse noise sources
     D. To enhance the reception of a specific frequency on a crowded band


  41.   Which of the following test instruments is used to display intermodulation distortion products in an SSB transmission?
     A. A wattmeter
     B. A spectrum analyzer
     C. A logic analyzer
     D. A time-domain reflectometer


  42.   How is a computer's sound card used when conducting digital communications using a computer?
     A. The sound card communicates between the computer CPU and the video display
     B. The sound card records the audio frequency for video display
     C. The sound card provides audio to the microphone input and converts received audio to digital form
     D. All of these choices are correct


  43.   How much power is being absorbed by the load when a directional power meter connected between a transmitter and a terminating load reads 100 watts forward power and 25 watts reflected power?
     A. 100 watts
     B. 125 watts
     C. 25 watts
     D. 75 watts


  44.   What is the advantage of having multiple receive bandwidth choices on a multimode transceiver?
     A. Permits monitoring several modes at once
     B. Permits noise or interference reduction by selecting a bandwidth matching the mode
     C. Increases the number of frequencies that can be stored in memory
     D. Increases the amount of offset between receive and transmit frequencies


  45.   Which of the following can be determined with a field strength meter?
     A. The radiation resistance of an antenna
     B. The radiation pattern of an antenna
     C. The presence and amount of phase distortion of a transmitter
     D. The presence and amount of amplitude distortion of a transmitter


  46.   What does a value of -174 dBm/Hz represent with regard to the noise floor of a receiver?
     A. The minimum detectable signal as a function of receive frequency
     B. The theoretical noise at the input of a perfect receiver at room temperature
     C. The noise figure of a 1 Hz bandwidth receiver
     D. The galactic noise contribution to minimum detectable signal


  47.   What is one good way to avoid unwanted effects of stray RF energy in an amateur station?
     A. Connect all equipment grounds together
     B. Install an RF filter in series with the ground wire
     C. Use a ground loop for best conductivity
     D. Install a few ferrite beads on the ground wire where it connects to your station


  48.   What transmitter frequencies would cause an intermodulation-product signal in a receiver tuned to 146.70 MHz when a nearby station transmits on 146.52 MHz?
     A. 146.34 MHz and 146.61 MHz
     B. 146.88 MHz and 146.34 MHz
     C. 146.10 MHz and 147.30 MHz
     D. 173.35 MHz and 139.40 MHz


  49.   Where is an S meter found?
     A. In a receiver
     B. In an SWR bridge
     C. In a transmitter
     D. In a conductance bridge


  50.   Which of the following may cause interference to be heard in the receiver of an HF radio installed in a recent model vehicle?
     A. The battery charging system
     B. The fuel delivery system
     C. The vehicle control computer
     D. All of these choices are correct


  51.   What is a common characteristic of interference caused by a touch controlled electrical device?
     A. The interfering signal sounds like AC hum on an AM receiver or a carrier modulated by 60 Hz hum on a SSB or CW receiver
     B. The interfering signal may drift slowly across the HF spectrum
     C. The interfering signal can be several kHz in width and usually repeats at regular intervals across a HF band
     D. All of these choices are correct


  52.   Which of the following causes opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor?
     A. Conductance
     B. Reluctance
     C. Reactance
     D. Admittance


  53.   What is the name for a current that reverses direction on a regular basis?
     A. Alternating current
     B. Direct current
     C. Circular current
     D. Vertical current


  54.   What is the resonant frequency of a series RLC circuit if R is 22 ohms, L is 50 microhenrys and C is 40 picofarads?
     A. 44.72 MHz
     B. 22.36 MHz
     C. 3.56 MHz
     D. 1.78 MHz


  55.   What dB change represents a two-times increase or decrease in power?
     A. Approximately 2 dB
     B. Approximately 3 dB
     C. Approximately 6 dB
     D. Approximately 12 dB


  56.   What is the relationship between the current through an inductor and the voltage across an inductor?
     A. Voltage leads current by 90 degrees
     B. Current leads voltage by 90 degrees
     C. Voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
     D. Voltage and current are in phase


  57.   If a frequency readout shows a reading of 2425 MHz, what frequency is that in GHz?
     A. 0.002425 GHZ
     B. 24.25 GHz
     C. 2.425 GHz
     D. 2425 GHz


  58.   In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 400-ohm-reactance inductor in parallel with a 300-ohm resistor?
     A. 240 ohms at an angle of 36.9 degrees
     B. 240 ohms at an angle of -36.9 degrees
     C. 500 ohms at an angle of 53.1 degrees
     D. 500 ohms at an angle of -53.1 degrees


  59.   If three equal value resistors in series produce 450 ohms, what is the value of each resistor?
     A. 1500 ohms
     B. 90 ohms
     C. 150 ohms
     D. 175 ohms


  60.   What is a usual name for electromagnetic waves that travel through space?
     A. Gravity waves
     B. Sound waves
     C. Radio waves
     D. Pressure waves


  61.   What is the resistance of a circuit that draws 4 amperes from a 12-volt source?
     A. 3 ohms
     B. 16 ohms
     C. 48 ohms
     D. 8 Ohms


  62.   How much power is consumed in a circuit consisting of a 100 ohm resistor in series with a 100 ohm inductive reactance drawing 1 ampere?
     A. 70.7 Watts
     B. 100 Watts
     C. 141.4 Watts
     D. 200 Watts


  63.   In what application is gallium arsenide used as a semiconductor material in preference to germanium or silicon?
     A. In high-current rectifier circuits
     B. In high-power audio circuits
     C. At microwave frequencies
     D. At very low frequency RF circuits


  64.   What electrical component stores energy in an electric field?
     A. Resistor
     B. Capacitor
     C. Inductor
     D. Diode


  65.   Which of the following describes the construction of a MOSFET?
     A. The gate is formed by a back-biased junction
     B. The gate is separated from the channel with a thin insulating layer
     C. The source is separated from the drain by a thin insulating layer
     D. The source is formed by depositing metal on silicon


  66.   What electronic component allows current to flow in only one direction?
     A. Resistor
     B. Fuse
     C. Diode
     D. Driven Element


  67.   Which of the following describes a type of semiconductor diode?
     A. Metal-semiconductor junction
     B. Electrolytic rectifier
     C. CMOS-field effect
     D. Thermionic emission diode


  68.   What is the main reason to use keyed connectors instead of non-keyed types?
     A. Prevention of use by unauthorized persons
     B. Reduced chance of incorrect mating
     C. Higher current carrying capacity
     D. All of these choices are correct


  69.   What is the recommended power supply voltage for TTL series integrated circuits?
     A. 12 volts
     B. 1.5 volts
     C. 5 volts
     D. 13.6 volts


  70.   What is component 3 in figure T3?
     A. Connector
     B. Meter
     C. Variable capacitor
     D. Variable inductor


  71.   Exceeding what design rating can cause a cathode ray tube (CRT) to generate X-rays?
     A. The heater voltage
     B. The anode voltage
     C. The operating temperature
     D. The operating frequency


  72.   What type of switch is represented by component 3 in figure T2?
     A. Single-pole single-throw
     B. Single-pole double-throw
     C. Double-pole single-throw
     D. Double-pole double-throw


  73.   What is a crystal lattice filter?
     A. A power supply filter made with interlaced quartz crystals
     B. An audio filter made with four quartz crystals that resonate at 1-kHz intervals
     C. A filter with wide bandwidth and shallow skirts made using quartz crystals
     D. A filter with narrow bandwidth and steep skirts made using quartz crystals


  74.   Why are optoisolators often used in conjunction with solid state circuits when switching 120 VAC?
     A. Optoisolators provide a low impedance link between a control circuit and a power circuit
     B. Optoisolators provide impedance matching between the control circuit and power circuit
     C. Optoisolators provide a very high degree of electrical isolation between a control circuit and the circuit being switched
     D. Optoisolators eliminate the effects of reflected light in the control circuit


  75.   Which of the following is a bistable circuit?
     A. An "AND" gate
     B. An "OR" gate
     C. A flip-flop
     D. A clock


  76.   What useful feature does a power supply bleeder resistor provide?
     A. It acts as a fuse for excess voltage
     B. It ensures that the filter capacitors are discharged when power is removed
     C. It removes shock hazards from the induction coils
     D. It eliminates ground loop current


  77.   Which of the following describes combining speech with an RF carrier signal?-
     A. Impedance matching
     B. Oscillation
     C. Modulation
     D. Low-pass filtering


  78.   What can you do if you are told your FM handheld or mobile transceiver is over-deviating?
     A. Talk louder into the microphone
     B. Let the transceiver cool off
     C. Change to a higher power level
     D. Talk farther away from the microphone


  79.   Complex digital circuitry can often be replaced by what type of integrated circuit?
     A. Microcontroller
     B. Charge-coupled device
     C. Phase detector
     D. Window comparator


  80.   Why are third-order intermodulation distortion products of particular concern in linear power amplifiers?
     A. Because they are relatively close in frequency to the desired signal
     B. Because they are relatively far in frequency from the desired signal
     C. Because they invert the sidebands causing distortion
     D. Because they maintain the sidebands, thus causing multiple duplicate signals


  81.   Which circuit is used to combine signals from the carrier oscillator and speech amplifier then send the result to the filter in some single sideband phone transmitters?
     A. Discriminator
     B. Detector
     C. IF amplifier
     D. Balanced modulator


  82.   Which filter type is described as having ripple in the passband and a sharp cutoff?
     A. A Butterworth filter
     B. An active LC filter
     C. A passive op-amp filter
     D. A Chebyshev filter


  83.   What is a disadvantage of air core coaxial cable when compared to foam or solid dielectric types?
     A. It has more loss per foot
     B. It cannot be used for VHF or UHF antennas
     C. It requires special techniques to prevent water absorption
     D. It cannot be used at below freezing temperatures


  84.   Which instrument would you use to measure electric potential or electromotive force?
     A. An ammeter
     B. A voltmeter
     C. A wavemeter
     D. An ohmmeter


  85.   What is one purpose of a "bleeder" resistor in a conventional (unregulated) power supply?
     A. To cut down on waste heat generated by the power supply
     B. To balance the low-voltage filament windings
     C. To improve output voltage regulation
     D. To boost the amount of output current


  86.   Which of the following can be used to generate FM phone emissions?
     A. A balanced modulator on the audio amplifier
     B. A reactance modulator on the oscillator
     C. A reactance modulator on the final amplifier
     D. A balanced modulator on the oscillator


  87.   Which of the following would be used to reduce a signal's frequency by a factor of ten?
     A. A preamp
     B. A prescaler
     C. A marker generator
     D. A flip-flop


  88.   What magnitude of voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-4 when R1 is 10 ohms and RF is 470 ohms?
     A. 0.21
     B. 94
     C. 47
     D. 24


  89.   What type of frequency synthesizer circuit uses a phase accumulator, lookup table, digital to analog converter and a low-pass anti-alias filter?
     A. A direct digital synthesizer
     B. A hybrid synthesizer
     C. A phase locked loop synthesizer
     D. A diode-switching matrix synthesizer


  90.   What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage?
     A. Multiplex modulation
     B. Phase modulation
     C. Amplitude modulation
     D. Pulse modulation


  91.   What determines the PEP-to-average power ratio of a single-sideband phone signal?
     A. The frequency of the modulating signal
     B. The characteristics of the modulating signal
     C. The degree of carrier suppression
     D. The amplifier gain


  92.   What is the typical bandwidth of analog fast-scan TV transmissions on the 70 cm band?
     A. More than 10 MHz
     B. About 6 MHz
     C. About 3 MHz
     D. About 1 MHz


  93.   What is the relationship between transmitted symbol rate and bandwidth?
     A. Symbol rate and bandwidth are not related
     B. Higher symbol rates require wider bandwidth
     C. Lower symbol rates require wider bandwidth
     D. Bandwidth is always half the symbol rate


  94.   What is a commonly used method of sending signals to and from a digital satellite?
     A. USB AFSK
     B. PSK31
     C. FM Packet
     D. WSJT


  95.   What is digital time division multiplexing?
     A. Two or more data streams are assigned to discrete sub-carriers on an FM transmitter
     B. Two or more signals are arranged to share discrete time slots of a data transmission
     C. Two or more data streams share the same channel by transmitting time of transmission as the sub-carrier
     D. Two or more signals are quadrature modulated to increase bandwidth efficiency


  96.   How many data bits are sent in a single PSK31 character?
     A. The number varies
     B. 5
     C. 7
     D. 8


  97.   Which of these items would be useful for a hidden transmitter hunt?
     A. Calibrated SWR meter
     B. A directional antenna
     C. A calibrated noise bridge
     D. All of these choices are correct


  98.   What is the necessary bandwidth of a 4800-Hz frequency shift, 9600-baud ASCII FM transmission?
     A. 15.36 kHz
     B. 9.6 kHz
     C. 4.8 kHz
     D. 5.76 kHz


  99.   Which of the following devices provides data to the transmitter when sending automatic position reports from a mobile amateur radio station?
     A. The vehicle speedometer
     B. A WWV receiver
     C. A connection to a broadcast FM sub-carrier receiver
     D. A Global Positioning System receiver


  100.   What is the RMS value of a 340-volt peak-to-peak pure sine wave?
     A. 120V AC
     B. 170V AC
     C. 240V AC
     D. 300V AC


  101.   What is a disadvantage of the "rubber duck" antenna supplied with most handheld radio transceivers?
     A. It does not transmit or receive as effectively as a full-sized antenna
     B. It transmits a circularly polarized signal
     C. If the rubber end cap is lost it will unravel very quickly
     D. All of these choices are correct


  102.   Which of the following factors determines ground losses for a ground-mounted vertical antenna operating in the 3-30 MHz range?
     A. The standing-wave ratio
     B. Distance from the transmitter
     C. Soil conductivity
     D. Take-off angle


  103.   What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having 25 ohm impedance?
     A. 2:1
     B. 2.5:1
     C. 1.25:1
     D. You cannot determine SWR from impedance values


  104.   In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the 3-dB beamwidth?
     A. 75 degrees
     B. 50 degrees
     C. 25 degrees
     D. 30 degrees


  105.   Which of the following types of feed line has the lowest loss at VHF and UHF?
     A. 50-ohm flexible coax
     B. Multi-conductor unbalanced cable
     C. Air-insulated hard line
     D. 75-ohm flexible coax


  106.   What is the approximate length for a 1/4 wave vertical antenna cut for 28.5 MHz?
     A. 8 feet
     B. 11 feet
     C. 16 feet
     D. 21 feet


  107.   How does the gain of two 3-element horizontally polarized Yagi antennas spaced vertically 1/2 wavelength apart typically compare to the gain of a single 3-element Yagi?
     A. Approximately 1.5 dB higher
     B. Approximately 3 dB higher
     C. Approximately 6 dB higher
     D. Approximately 9 dB higher


  108.   When constructing a Beverage antenna, which of the following factors should be included in the design to achieve good performance at the desired frequency?
     A. Its overall length must not exceed 1/4 wavelength
     B. It must be mounted more than 1 wavelength above ground
     C. It should be configured as a four-sided loop
     D. It should be one or more wavelengths long


  109.   Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband antennas?
     A. They present low impedance on all design frequencies
     B. They must be used with an antenna tuner
     C. They must be fed with open wire line
     D. They have poor harmonic rejection


  110.   What is one advantage of using a trapped antenna?
     A. It has high directivity in the higher-frequency bands
     B. It has high gain
     C. It minimizes harmonic radiation
     D. It may be used for multiband operation


  111.   What is the name of the matching system that uses a section of transmission line connected in parallel with the feed line at the feed point?
     A. The gamma match
     B. The delta match
     C. The omega match
     D. The stub match


  112.   What is the typical velocity factor for a coaxial cable with solid polyethylene dielectric?
     A. 2.70
     B. 0.66
     C. 0.30
     D. 0.10


  113.   Which of the following can be calculated using a Smith chart?
     A. Impedance along transmission lines
     B. Radiation resistance
     C. Antenna radiation pattern
     D. Radio propagation


  114.   What is the effective radiated power relative to a dipole of a repeater station with 150 watts transmitter power output, 2-dB feed line loss, 2.2-dB duplexer loss and 7-dBd antenna gain?
     A. 1977 watts
     B. 78.7 watts
     C. 420 watts
     D. 286 watts


  115.   Why is it unwise to install a 20-ampere fuse in the place of a 5-ampere fuse?
     A. The larger fuse would be likely to blow because it is rated for higher current
     B. The power supply ripple would greatly increase
     C. Excessive current could cause a fire
     D. All of these choices are correct


  116.   Why are there separate electric (E) and magnetic (H) field MPE limits?
     A. The body reacts to electromagnetic radiation from both the E and H fields
     B. Ground reflections and scattering make the field impedance vary with location
     C. E field and H field radiation intensity peaks can occur at different locations
     D. All of these choices are correct


  117.   What effect does transmitter duty cycle have when evaluating RF exposure?
     A. A lower transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels
     B. A higher transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels
     C. Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements
     D. High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements


  118.   Which wire or wires in a four-conductor connection should be attached to fuses or circuit breakers in a device operated from a 240 VAC single phase source?
     A. Only the two wires carrying voltage
     B. Only the neutral wire
     C. Only the ground wire
     D. All wires


  119.   Under what circumstances is it safe to climb a tower without a helper or observer?
     A. When no electrical work is being performed
     B. When no mechanical work is being performed
     C. When the work being done is not more than 20 feet above the ground
     D. Never


  120.   How does RF radiation differ from ionizing radiation (radioactivity)?
     A. RF radiation does not have sufficient energy to cause genetic damage
     B. RF radiation can only be detected with an RF dosimeter
     C. RF radiation is limited in range to a few feet
     D. RF radiation is perfectly safe