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About Practice Exam -

    G1A03     [97.305]

  1.   On which of the following bands is image transmission prohibited?
     A. 160 meters
     B. 30 meters
     C. 20 meters
     D. 12 meters

    T1A08     [97.3(a)(22)]

  2.   Which of the following entities recommends transmit/receive channels and other parameters for auxiliary and repeater stations?
     A. Frequency Spectrum Manager
     B. Frequency Coordinator
     C. FCC Regional Field Office
     D. International Telecommunications Union

    E1A13     [97.5]

  3.   Who must be in physical control of the station apparatus of an amateur station aboard any vessel or craft that is documented or registered in the United States?
     A. Only a person with an FCC Marine Radio
     B. Any person holding an FCC issued amateur license or who is authorized for alien reciprocal operation
     C. Only a person named in an amateur station license grant
     D. Any person named in an amateur station license grant or a person holding an unrestricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit

    T1B02     [97.301]

  4.   Why are the frequency assignments for some U.S. Territories different from those in the 50 U.S. States?
     A. Some U. S. Territories are located in ITU regions other than region 2
     B. Territorial governments are allowed to select their own frequency allocations
     C. Territorial frequency allocations must also include those of adjacent countries
     D. Any territory that was in existence before the ratification of the Communications Act of 1934 is exempt from FCC frequency regulations

    G1B03     [97.3(a)(9)]

  5.   Which of the following is a purpose of a beacon station as identified in the FCC rules?
     A. Observation of propagation and reception
     B. Automatic identification of repeaters
     C. Transmission of bulletins of general interest to Amateur Radio licensees
     D. Identifying net frequencies

    E1B08     [97.121]

  6.   What limitations may the FCC place on an amateur station if its signal causes interference to domestic broadcast reception, assuming that the receivers involved are of good engineering design?
     A. The amateur station must cease operation
     B. The amateur station must cease operation on all frequencies below 30 MHz
     C. The amateur station must cease operation on all frequencies above 30 MHz
     D. The amateur station must avoid transmitting during certain hours on frequencies that cause the interference

    T1C03     [97.117]

  7.   What types of international communications are permitted by an FCC-licensed amateur station?
     A. Communications incidental to the purposes of the amateur service and remarks of a personal character
     B. Communications incidental to conducting business or remarks of a personal nature
     C. Only communications incidental to contest exchanges, all other communications are prohibited
     D. Any communications that would be permitted by an international broadcast station

    G1C08     [97.307(f)(3)]

  8.   What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted at frequencies below 28 MHz?
     A. 56 kilobaud
     B. 19.6 kilobaud
     C. 1200 baud
     D. 300 baud

    E1C09     [97.205]

  9.   Which of these ranges of frequencies is available for an automatically controlled repeater operating below 30 MHz?
     A. 18.110 MHz - 18.168 MHz
     B. 24.940 MHz - 24.990 MHz
     C. 10.100 MHz - 10.150 MHz
     D. 29.500 MHz - 29.700 MHz

    T1D02     [97.111(a)(5)]

  10.   On which of the following occasions may an FCC-licensed amateur station exchange messages with a U.S. military station?
     A. During an Armed Forces Day Communications Test
     B. During a Memorial Day Celebration
     C. During an Independence Day celebration
     D. During a propagation test

    E1D07     [97.207]

  11.   Which amateur service HF bands have frequencies authorized for space stations?
     A. Only the 40 m, 20 m, 17 m, 15 m, 12 m and 10 m bands
     B. Only the 40 m, 20 m, 17 m, 15 m and 10 m bands
     C. Only the 40 m, 30 m, 20 m, 15 m, 12 m and 10 m bands
     D. All HF bands

    G1D08     [97.509(b)(3)]

  12.   Which of the following criteria must be met for a non-U.S. citizen to be an accredited Volunteer Examiner?
     A. The person must be a resident of the U.S. for a minimum of 5 years
     B. The person must hold an FCC granted Amateur Radio license of General Class or above
     C. The person’s home citizenship must be in ITU region 2
     D. None of these choices is correct; a non-U.S. citizen cannot be a Volunteer Examiner

    E1E02     [97.523]

  13.   Where are the questions for all written U.S. amateur license examinations listed?
     A. In FCC Part 97
     B. In a question pool maintained by the FCC
     C. In a question pool maintained by all the VECs
     D. In the appropriate FCC Report and Order

    G1E05     [97.115(a)(2),97.117]

  14.   What types of messages for a third party in another country may be transmitted by an amateur station?
     A. Any message, as long as the amateur operator is not paid
     B. Only messages for other licensed amateurs
     C. Only messages relating to Amateur Radio or remarks of a personal character, or messages relating to emergencies or disaster relief
     D. Any messages, as long as the text of the message is recorded in the station log

    T1E09     [97.109(b)]

  15.   What type of control is being used when the control operator is at the control point?
     A. Radio control
     B. Unattended control
     C. Automatic control
     D. Local control

    E1F12     [97.201]

  16.   Who may be the control operator of an auxiliary station?
     A. Any licensed amateur operator
     B. Only Technician, General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators
     C. Only General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators
     D. Only Amateur Extra Class operators

    T1F12     [97.5(b)(2)]

  17.   How many persons are required to be members of a club for a club station license to be issued by the FCC?
     A. At least 5
     B. At least 4
     C. A trustee and 2 officers
     D. At least 2


  18.   How should you respond to a station calling CQ?
     A. Transmit CQ followed by the other station's call sign
     B. Transmit your call sign followed by the other station's call sign
     C. Transmit the other station's call sign followed by your call sign
     D. Transmit a signal report followed by your call sign


  19.   What do the letters in a satellite's mode designator specify?
     A. Power limits for uplink and downlink transmissions
     B. The location of the ground control station
     C. The polarization of uplink and downlink signals
     D. The uplink and downlink frequency ranges


  20.   Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160-meter, 75-meter and 40-meter bands?
     A. Lower sideband is more efficient than upper sideband at these frequencies
     B. Lower sideband is the only sideband legal on these frequency bands
     C. Because it is fully compatible with an AM detector
     D. Current amateur practice is to use lower sideband on these frequency bands


  21.   What is the term used to describe the use of a sub-audible tone transmitted with normal voice audio to open the squelch of a receiver?
     A. Carrier squelch
     B. Tone burst
     C. DTMF
     D. CTCSS

    G2B10     [97.407(b)]

  22.   When may the FCC restrict normal frequency operations of amateur stations participating in RACES?
     A. When they declare a temporary state of communication emergency
     B. When they seize your equipment for use in disaster communications
     C. Only when all amateur stations are instructed to stop transmitting
     D. When the President’s War Emergency Powers have been invoked


  23.   What signals SSTV receiving equipment to begin a new picture line?
     A. Specific tone frequencies
     B. Elapsed time
     C. Specific tone amplitudes
     D. A two-tone signal


  24.   What does it mean when a CW operator sends "KN" at the end of a transmission?
     A. Listening for novice stations
     B. Operating full break-in
     C. Listening only for a specific station or stations
     D. Closing station now


  25.   What is the Cabrillo format?
     A. A standard for submission of electronic contest logs
     B. A method of exchanging information during a contest QSO
     C. The most common set of contest rules
     D. The rules of order for meetings between contest sponsors


  26.   Are amateur station control operators ever permitted to operate outside the frequency privileges of their license class?
     A. No
     B. Yes, but only when part of a FEMA emergency plan
     C. Yes, but only when part of a RACES emergency plan
     D. Yes, but only if necessary in situations involving the immediate safety of human life or protection of property


  27.   Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?
     A. A map that shows accurate land masses
     B. A map that shows true bearings and distances from a particular location
     C. A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator
     D. A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit


  28.   How can an APRS station be used to help support a public service communications activity?
     A. An APRS station with an emergency medical technician can automatically transmit medical data to the nearest hospital
     B. APRS stations with General Personnel Scanners can automatically relay the participant numbers and time as they pass the check points
     C. An APRS station with a GPS unit can automatically transmit information to show a mobile station's position during the event
     D. All of these choices are correct


  29.   What is the standard sideband used to generate a JT65 or JT9 digital signal when using AFSK in any amateur band?
     A. LSB
     B. USB
     C. DSB
     D. SSB


  30.   What is the difference between direct FSK and audio FSK?
     A. Direct FSK applies the data signal to the transmitter VFO
     B. Audio FSK has a superior frequency response
     C. Direct FSK uses a DC-coupled data connection
     D. Audio FSK can be performed anywhere in the transmit chain


  31.   Tropospheric propagation of microwave signals often occurs along what weather related structure?
     A. Gray-line
     B. Lightning discharges
     C. Warm and cold fronts
     D. Sprites and jets


  32.   What is a geomagnetic storm?
     A. A sudden drop in the solar flux index
     B. A thunderstorm which affects radio propagation
     C. Ripples in the ionosphere
     D. A temporary disturbance in the Earth's magnetosphere


  33.   Which part of the atmosphere enables the propagation of radio signals around the world?
     A. The stratosphere
     B. The troposphere
     C. The ionosphere
     D. The magnetosphere


  34.   What is the name for the distance a radio wave travels during one complete cycle?
     A. Wave speed
     B. Waveform
     C. Wavelength
     D. Wave spread


  35.   Which of the following could account for hearing an echo on the received signal of a distant station?
     A. High D layer absorption
     B. Meteor scatter
     C. Transmit frequency is higher than the MUF
     D. Receipt of a signal by more than one path


  36.   What factor or factors affect the MUF?
     A. Path distance and location
     B. Time of day and season
     C. Solar radiation and ionospheric disturbances
     D. All of these choices are correct


  37.   What mode is responsible for allowing over-the-horizon VHF and UHF communications to ranges of approximately 300 miles on a regular basis?
     A. Tropospheric scatter
     B. D layer refraction
     C. F2 layer refraction
     D. Faraday rotation


  38.   Which of the following descriptors indicates the greatest solar flare intensity?
     A. Class A
     B. Class B
     C. Class M
     D. Class X


  39.   Which of the following antenna types will be most effective for skip communications on 40-meters during the day?
     A. A vertical antenna
     B. A horizontal dipole placed between 1/8 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground
     C. A left-hand circularly polarized antenna
     D. A right-hand circularly polarized antenna


  40.   Which type of conductor is best to use for RF grounding?
     A. Round stranded wire
     B. Round copper-clad steel wire
     C. Twisted-pair cable
     D. Flat strap


  41.   Which of the following displays multiple digital signal states simultaneously?
     A. Network analyzer
     B. Bit error rate tester
     C. Modulation monitor
     D. Logic analyzer


  42.   What is the purpose of an electronic keyer?
     A. Automatic transmit/receive switching
     B. Automatic generation of strings of dots and dashes for CW operation
     C. VOX operation
     D. Computer interface for PSK and RTTY operation


  43.   What is an advantage of using a bridge circuit to measure impedance?
     A. It provides an excellent match under all conditions
     B. It is relatively immune to drift in the signal generator source
     C. It is very precise in obtaining a signal null
     D. It can display results directly in Smith chart format


  44.   Which of the following can be used to enter the operating frequency on a modern transceiver?
     A. The keypad or VFO knob
     B. The CTCSS or DTMF encoder
     C. The Automatic Frequency Control
     D. All of these choices are correct


  45.   What is an advantage of a digital voltmeter as compared to an analog voltmeter?
     A. Better for measuring computer circuits
     B. Better for RF measurements
     C. Better precision for most uses
     D. Faster response


  46.   Which of the following portions of a receiver can be effective in eliminating image signal interference?
     A. A front-end filter or pre-selector
     B. A narrow IF filter
     C. A notch filter
     D. A properly adjusted product detector


  47.   What is the effect on an audio device or telephone system if there is interference from a nearby CW transmitter?
     A. On-and-off humming or clicking
     B. A CW signal at a nearly pure audio frequency
     C. A chirpy CW signal
     D. Severely distorted audio


  48.   Where is an S meter found?
     A. In a receiver
     B. In an SWR bridge
     C. In a transmitter
     D. In a conductance bridge


  49.   What is the term for the reduction in receiver sensitivity caused by a strong signal near the received frequency?
     A. Desensitization
     B. Quieting
     C. Cross-modulation interference
     D. Squelch gain rollback


  50.   What undesirable effect can occur when using an IF noise blanker?
     A. Received audio in the speech range might have an echo effect
     B. The audio frequency bandwidth of the received signal might be compressed
     C. Nearby signals may appear to be excessively wide even if they meet emission standards
     D. FM signals can no longer be demodulated


  51.   Which of the following is a disadvantage of using wind as the primary source of power for an emergency station?
     A. The conversion efficiency from mechanical energy to electrical energy is less than 2 percent
     B. The voltage and current ratings of such systems are not compatible with amateur equipment
     C. A large energy storage system is needed to supply power when the wind is not blowing
     D. All of these choices are correct


  52.   Which of the following is a good electrical conductor?
     A. Glass
     B. Wood
     C. Copper
     D. Rubber


  53.   How is the Q of an RLC series resonant circuit calculated?
     A. Reactance of either the inductance or capacitance divided by the resistance
     B. Reactance of either the inductance or capacitance times the resistance
     C. Resistance divided by the reactance of either the inductance or capacitance
     D. Reactance of the inductance times the reactance of the capacitance


  54.   What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer?
     A. To minimize transmitter power output
     B. To maximize the transfer of power
     C. To reduce power supply ripple
     D. To minimize radiation resistance


  55.   How many watts of electrical power are used if 400 VDC is supplied to an 800 ohm load?
     A. 0.5 watts
     B. 200 watts
     C. 400 watts
     D. 3200 watts


  56.   If an ammeter calibrated in amperes is used to measure a 3000-milliampere current, what reading would it show?
     A. 0.003 amperes
     B. 0.3 amperes
     C. 3 amperes
     D. 3,000,000 amperes


  57.   What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 25 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 50 ohms?
     A. 14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
     B. 14 degrees with the voltage leading the current
     C. 76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
     D. 76 degrees with the voltage leading the current


  58.   What is the formula used to calculate electrical power in a DC circuit?
     A. Power (P) equals voltage (E) multiplied by current (I)
     B. Power (P) equals voltage (E) divided by current (I)
     C. Power (P) equals voltage (E) minus current (I)
     D. Power (P) equals voltage (E) plus current (I)


  59.   What do the two numbers that are used to define a point on a graph using rectangular coordinates represent?
     A. The magnitude and phase of the point
     B. The sine and cosine values
     C. The coordinate values along the horizontal and vertical axes
     D. The tangent and cotangent values


  60.   Why is the conductor of the primary winding of many voltage step up transformers larger in diameter than the conductor of the secondary winding?
     A. To improve the coupling between the primary and secondary
     B. To accommodate the higher current of the primary
     C. To prevent parasitic oscillations due to resistive losses in the primary
     D. To insure that the volume of the primary winding is equal to the volume of the secondary winding


  61.   What is the voltage across a 2-ohm resistor if a current of 0.5 amperes flows through it?
     A. 1 volt
     B. 0.25 volts
     C. 2.5 volts
     D. 1.5 volts


  62.   How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.2 if the input is 100-VAC at 4 amperes?
     A. 400 watts
     B. 80 watts
     C. 2000 watts
     D. 50 watts


  63.   What electrical component is used to oppose the flow of current in a DC circuit?
     A. Inductor
     B. Resistor
     C. Voltmeter
     D. Transformer


  64.   Which of the following solid state devices is most like a vacuum tube in its general operating characteristics?
     A. A bipolar transistor
     B. A field effect transistor
     C. A tunnel diode
     D. A varistor


  65.   What are the majority charge carriers in N-type semiconductor material?
     A. Holes
     B. Free electrons
     C. Free protons
     D. Free neutrons


  66.   How is an LED biased when emitting light?
     A. Beyond cutoff
     B. At the Zener voltage
     C. Reverse Biased
     D. Forward Biased


  67.   In Figure E6-3, what is the schematic symbol for a light-emitting diode?
     A. 1
     B. 5
     C. 6
     D. 7


  68.   What at are the three electrodes of a field effect transistor?
     A. Emitter, base, and collector
     B. Source, gate, and drain
     C. Cathode, grid, and plate
     D. Cathode, gate, and anode


  69.   What is component 4 in figure T1?
     A. Resistor
     B. Transistor
     C. Battery
     D. Ground symbol


  70.   In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for a NOR gate?
     A. 1
     B. 2
     C. 3
     D. 4


  71.   What best describes a relay?
     A. A switch controlled by an electromagnet
     B. A current controlled amplifier
     C. An optical sensor
     D. A pass transistor


  72.   What is current in the primary winding of a transformer called if no load is attached to the secondary?
     A. Magnetizing current
     B. Direct current
     C. Excitation current
     D. Stabilizing current


  73.   Which of the following is typically used to construct a MMIC-based microwave amplifier?
     A. Ground-plane construction
     B. Microstrip construction
     C. Point-to-point construction
     D. Wave-soldering construction


  74.   What is the most common type of photovoltaic cell used for electrical power generation?
     A. Selenium
     B. Silicon
     C. Cadmium Sulfide
     D. Copper oxide


  75.   Which is a bi-stable circuit?
     A. An "AND" gate
     B. An "OR" gate
     C. A flip-flop
     D. A clock


  76.   Which of the following components are used in a power supply filter network?
     A. Diodes
     B. Transformers and transducers
     C. Quartz crystals
     D. Capacitors and inductors


  77.   What is meant by term "PTT"?
     A. Pre-transmission tuning to reduce transmitter harmonic emission
     B. Precise tone transmissions used to limit repeater access to only certain signals
     C. A primary transformer tuner use to match antennas
     D. The push to talk function which switches between receive and transmit


  78.   How can overload of a non-amateur radio or TV receiver by an amateur signal be reduced or eliminated?
     A. Block the amateur signal with a filter at the antenna input of the affected receiver
     B. Block the interfering signal with a filter on the amateur transmitter
     C. Switch the transmitter from FM to SSB
     D. Switch the transmitter to a narrow-band mode


  79.   Which of the following describes how the loading and tuning capacitors are to be adjusted when tuning a vacuum tube RF power amplifier that employs a Pi-network output circuit?
     A. The loading capacitor is set to maximum capacitance and the tuning capacitor is adjusted for minimum allowable plate current
     B. The tuning capacitor is set to maximum capacitance and the loading capacitor is adjusted for minimum plate permissible current
     C. The loading capacitor is adjusted to minimum plate current while alternately adjusting the tuning capacitor for maximum allowable plate current
     D. The tuning capacitor is adjusted for minimum plate current, and the loading capacitor is adjusted for maximum permissible plate current


  80.   What is the reason for neutralizing the final amplifier stage of a transmitter?
     A. To limit the modulation index
     B. To eliminate self-oscillations
     C. To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods
     D. To keep the carrier on frequency


  81.   What is the approximate SWR value above which the protection circuits in most solid-state transmitters begin to reduce transmitter power?
     A. 2 to 1
     B. 1 to 2
     C. 6 to 1
     D. 10 to 1


  82.   What is the simplest combination of stages that implement a superheterodyne receiver?
     A. RF amplifier, detector, audio amplifier
     B. RF amplifier, mixer, IF discriminator
     C. HF oscillator, mixer, detector
     D. HF oscillator, prescaler, audio amplifier


  83.   Which describes a Pi-L-network used for matching a vacuum tube final amplifier to a 50 ohm unbalanced output?
     A. A Phase Inverter Load network
     B. A Pi-network with an additional series inductor on the output
     C. A network with only three discrete parts
     D. A matching network in which all components are isolated from ground


  84.   Which of the following might damage a multimeter?
     A. Measuring a voltage too small for the chosen scale
     B. Leaving the meter in the milliamps position overnight
     C. Attempting to measure voltage when using the resistance setting
     D. Not allowing it to warm up properly


  85.   What is the purpose of C2 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?
     A. It bypasses hum around D1
     B. It is a brute force filter for the output
     C. To self-resonate at the hum frequency
     D. To provide fixed DC bias for Q1


  86.   What is one way a single-sideband phone signal can be generated?
     A. By using a balanced modulator followed by a filter
     B. By using a reactance modulator followed by a mixer
     C. By using a loop modulator followed by a mixer
     D. By driving a product detector with a DSB signal


  87.   What do the letters I and Q in I/Q Modulation represent?
     A. Inactive and Quiescent
     B. Instantaneous and Quasi-stable
     C. Instantaneous and Quenched
     D. In-phase and Quadrature


  88.   What is an integrated circuit operational amplifier?
     A. A high-gain, direct-coupled differential amplifier with very high input impedance and very low output impedance
     B. A digital audio amplifier whose characteristics are determined by components external to the amplifier
     C. An amplifier used to increase the average output of frequency modulated amateur signals to the legal limit
     D. A RF amplifier used in the UHF and microwave regions


  89.   Which of these functions can be performed by a phase-locked loop?
     A. Wide-band AF and RF power amplification
     B. Comparison of two digital input signals, digital pulse counter
     C. Photovoltaic conversion, optical coupling
     D. Frequency synthesis, FM demodulation


  90.   Why would a direct or flash conversion analog-to-digital converter be useful for a software defined radio?
     A. Very low power consumption decreases frequency drift
     B. Immunity to out of sequence coding reduces spurious responses
     C. Very high speed allows digitizing high frequencies
     D. All of these choices are correct


  91.   What control is typically adjusted for proper ALC setting on an amateur single sideband transceiver?
     A. The RF clipping level
     B. Transmit audio or microphone gain
     C. Antenna inductance or capacitance
     D. Attenuator level


  92.   What is the approximate maximum bandwidth required to transmit a CW signal?
     A. 2.4 kHz
     B. 150 Hz
     C. 1000 Hz
     D. 15 kHz


  93.   If a receiver mixes a 13.800 MHz VFO with a 14.255 MHz received signal to produce a 455 kHz intermediate frequency (IF) signal, what type of interference will a 13.345 MHz signal produce in the receiver?
     A. Quadrature noise
     B. Image response
     C. Mixer interference
     D. Intermediate interference


  94.   With regard to satellite communications, what is Doppler shift?
     A. A change in the satellite orbit
     B. A mode where the satellite receives signals on one band and transmits on another
     C. An observed change in signal frequency caused by relative motion between the satellite and the earth station
     D. A special digital communications mode for some satellites


  95.   Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing is a technique used for which type of amateur communication?
     A. High speed digital modes
     B. Extremely low-power contacts
     C. EME
     D. OFDM signals are not allowed on amateur bands

    T8C07     [97.215(c)]

  96.   What is the maximum power allowed when transmitting telecommand signals to radio controlled models?
     A. 500 milliwatts
     B. 1 watt
     C. 25 watts
     D. 1500 watts


  97.   How does ARQ accomplish error correction?
     A. Special binary codes provide automatic correction
     B. Special polynomial codes provide automatic correction
     C. If errors are detected, redundant data is substituted
     D. If errors are detected, a retransmission is requested


  98.   What does the number 31 represent in "PSK31"?
     A. The approximate transmitted symbol rate
     B. The version of the PSK protocol
     C. The year in which PSK31 was invented
     D. The number of characters that can be represented by PSK31


  99.   Which of the following indicates likely overmodulation of an AFSK signal such as PSK or MFSK?
     A. High reflected power
     B. Strong ALC action
     C. Harmonics on higher bands
     D. Rapid signal fading


  100.   What is an ARQ transmission system?
     A. A special transmission format limited to video signals
     B. A system used to encrypt command signals to an amateur radio satellite
     C. A digital scheme whereby the receiving station detects errors and sends a request to the sending station to retransmit the information
     D. A method of compressing the data in a message so more information can be sent in a shorter time


  101.   What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having 50 ohm impedance?
     A. 2:1
     B. 1:1
     C. 50:50
     D. 0:0


  102.   What is meant by the radiation resistance of an antenna?
     A. The combined losses of the antenna elements and feed line
     B. The specific impedance of the antenna
     C. The value of a resistance that would dissipate the same amount of power as that radiated from an antenna
     D. The resistance in the atmosphere that an antenna must overcome to be able to radiate a signal


  103.   Which of the following terms describes a type of loading when referring to an antenna?
     A. Inserting an inductor in the radiating portion of the antenna to make it electrically longer
     B. Inserting a resistor in the radiating portion of the antenna to make it resonant
     C. Installing a spring at the base of the antenna to absorb the effects of collisions with other objects
     D. Making the antenna heavier so it will resist wind effects when in motion


  104.   What is one disadvantage of a directly fed random-wire HF antenna?
     A. It must be longer than 1 wavelength
     B. You may experience RF burns when touching metal objects in your station
     C. It produces only vertically polarized radiation
     D. It is more effective on the lower HF bands than on the higher bands


  105.   Which of the following is true of PL-259 type coax connectors?
     A. They are preferred for microwave operation
     B. They are water tight
     C. They are commonly used at HF frequencies
     D. They are a bayonet type connector


  106.   How many elevation lobes appear in the forward direction of the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?
     A. 4
     B. 3
     C. 1
     D. 7


  107.   What is a G5RV antenna?
     A. A multi-band dipole antenna fed with coax and a balun through a selected length of open wire transmission line
     B. A multi-band trap antenna
     C. A phased array antenna consisting of multiple loops
     D. A wide band dipole using shorted coaxial cable for the radiating elements and fed with a4:1 balun


  108.   How does antenna gain stated in dBi compare to gain stated in dBd for the same antenna?
     A. dBi gain figures are 2.15 dB lower then dBd gain figures
     B. dBi gain figures are 2.15 dB higher than dBd gain figures
     C. dBi gain figures are the same as the square root of dBd gain figures multiplied by 2.15
     D. dBi gain figures are the reciprocal of dBd gain figures + 2.15 dB


  109.   What happens to feed point impedance at the base of a fixed length HF mobile antenna as the frequency of operation is lowered?
     A. The radiation resistance decreases and the capacitive reactance decreases
     B. The radiation resistance decreases and the capacitive reactance increases
     C. The radiation resistance increases and the capacitive reactance decreases
     D. The radiation resistance increases and the capacitive reactance increases


  110.   Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband antennas?
     A. They present low impedance on all design frequencies
     B. They must be used with an antenna tuner
     C. They must be fed with open wire line
     D. They have poor harmonic rejection


  111.   Which of these matching systems is an effective method of connecting a 50 ohm coaxial cable feed line to a grounded tower so it can be used as a vertical antenna?
     A. Double-bazooka match
     B. Hairpin match
     C. Gamma match
     D. All of these choices are correct


  112.   What impedance does a 1/4 wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is shorted at the far end?
     A. Very high impedance
     B. Very low impedance
     C. The same as the characteristic impedance of the transmission line
     D. The same as the generator output impedance


  113.   On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the name for the large outer circle on which the reactance arcs terminate?
     A. Prime axis
     B. Reactance axis
     C. Impedance axis
     D. Polar axis


  114.   What characteristic of a cardioid pattern antenna is useful for direction finding?
     A. A very sharp peak
     B. A very sharp single null
     C. Broad band response
     D. High-radiation angle


  115.   Why is it unwise to install a 20-ampere fuse in the place of a 5-ampere fuse?
     A. The larger fuse would be likely to blow because it is rated for higher current
     B. The power supply ripple would greatly increase
     C. Excessive current could cause a fire
     D. All of these choices are correct


  116.   Which of the following steps must an amateur operator take to ensure compliance with RF safety regulations when transmitter power exceeds levels specified in FCC Part 97.13?
     A. Post a copy of FCC Part 97.13 in the station
     B. Post a copy of OET Bulletin 65 in the station
     C. Perform a routine RF exposure evaluation
     D. All of these choices are correct


  117.   Which insulating material commonly used as a thermal conductor for some types of electronic devices is extremely toxic if broken or crushed and the particles are accidentally inhaled?
     A. Mica
     B. Zinc oxide
     C. Beryllium Oxide
     D. Uranium Hexafluoride


  118.   What is a good precaution to observe before climbing an antenna tower?
     A. Make sure that you wear a grounded wrist strap
     B. Remove all tower grounding connections
     C. Put on a climbing harness and safety glasses
     D. All of the these choices are correct


  119.   Which size of fuse or circuit breaker would be appropriate to use with a circuit that uses AWG number 14 wiring?
     A. 100 amperes
     B. 60 amperes
     C. 30 amperes
     D. 15 amperes


  120.   What is the definition of duty cycle during the averaging time for RF exposure?
     A. The difference between the lowest power output and the highest power output of a transmitter
     B. The difference between the PEP and average power output of a transmitter
     C. The percentage of time that a transmitter is transmitting
     D. The percentage of time that a transmitter is not transmitting