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About Practice Exam -

    T1A07     [97.3(a)(46)]

  1.   What is the FCC Part 97 definition of telemetry?
     A. An information bulletin issued by the FCC
     B. A one-way transmission to initiate, modify or terminate functions of a device at a distance
     C. A one-way transmission of measurements at a distance from the measuring instrument
     D. An information bulletin from a VEC

    E1A08     [97.219]

  2.   If a station in a message forwarding system inadvertently forwards a message that is in violation of FCC rules, who is primarily accountable for the rules violation?
     A. The control operator of the packet bulletin board station
     B. The control operator of the originating station
     C. The control operators of all the stations in the system
     D. The control operators of all the stations in the system not authenticating the source from which they accept communications

    G1A08     [97.301(d)]

  3.   Which of the following frequencies is within the General Class portion of the 80-meter band?
     A. 1855 kHz
     B. 2560 kHz
     C. 3560 kHz
     D. 3650 kHz

    E1B08     [97.121]

  4.   What limitations may the FCC place on an amateur station if its signal causes interference to domestic broadcast reception, assuming that the receivers involved are of good engineering design?
     A. The amateur station must cease operation
     B. The amateur station must cease operation on all frequencies below 30 MHz
     C. The amateur station must cease operation on all frequencies above 30 MHz
     D. The amateur station must avoid transmitting during certain hours on frequencies that cause the interference

    G1B09     [97.113(a)(3)]

  5.   When may an amateur station transmit communications in which the licensee or control operator has a pecuniary (monetary) interest?
     A. When other amateurs are being notified of the sale of apparatus normally used in an amateur station and such activity is not done on a regular basis
     B. Only when there is no other means of communications readily available
     C. When other amateurs are being notified of the sale of any item with a monetary value less than $200 and such activity is not done on a regular basis
     D. Never

    T1B12     [97.301]

  6.   Why are frequency assignments for U.S. stations operating maritime mobile not the same everywhere in the world?
     A. Amateur maritime mobile stations in international waters must conform to the frequency assignments of the country nearest to their vessel
     B. Amateur frequency assignments can vary among the three ITU regions
     C. Frequency assignments are determined by the captain of the vessel
     D. Amateur frequency assignments are different in each of the 90 ITU zones

    E1C05     [97.221(c)(1),[97.115(c)]

  7.   When may an automatically controlled station originate third party communications?
     A. Never
     B. Only when transmitting RTTY or data emissions
     C. When agreed upon by the sending or receiving station
     D. When approved by the National Telecommunication and Information Administration

    G1C09     [97.305(c) and 97.307(f)(5)]

  8.   What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted on the 1.25-meter and 70-centimeter bands?
     A. 56 kilobaud
     B. 19.6 kilobaud
     C. 1200 baud
     D. 300 baud

    T1C12     [97.19]

  9.   Who may select a desired call sign under the vanity call sign rules?
     A. Only licensed amateurs with general or extra class licenses
     B. Only licensed amateurs with an extra class license
     C. Only an amateur licensee who has been licensed continuously for more than 10 years
     D. Any licensed amateur

    T1D06     [97.113(a)(4)]

  10.   What, if any, are the restrictions concerning transmission of language that may be considered indecent or obscene?
     A. The FCC maintains a list of words that are not permitted to be used on amateur frequencies
     B. Any such language is prohibited
     C. The ITU maintains a list of words that are not permitted to be used on amateur frequencies
     D. There is no such prohibition

    G1D08     [97.509(b)(3)]

  11.   Which of the following criteria must be met for a non-U.S. citizen to be an accredited Volunteer Examiner?
     A. The person must be a resident of the U.S. for a minimum of 5 years
     B. The person must hold an FCC granted Amateur Radio license of General Class or above
     C. The person's home citizenship must be in ITU region 2
     D. None of these choices is correct; a non-U.S. citizen cannot be a Volunteer Examiner

    E1D10     [97.211]

  12.   Which amateur stations are eligible to be telecommand stations?
     A. Any amateur station designated by NASA
     B. Any amateur station so designated by the space station licensee, subject to the privileges of the class of operator license held by the control operator
     C. Any amateur station so designated by the ITU
     D. All of these choices are correct

    G1E02     [97.205(b)]

  13.   When may a 10-meter repeater retransmit the 2-meter signal from a station having a Technician Class control operator?
     A. Under no circumstances
     B. Only if the station on 10-meters is operating under a Special Temporary Authorization allowing such retransmission
     C. Only during an FCC declared general state of communications emergency
     D. Only if the 10-meter repeater control operator holds at least a General Class license

    E1E03     [97.521]

  14.   What is a Volunteer Examiner Coordinator?
     A. A person who has volunteered to administer amateur operator license examinations
     B. A person who has volunteered to prepare amateur operator license examinations
     C. An organization that has entered into an agreement with the FCC to coordinate amateur operator license examinations
     D. The person who has entered into an agreement with the FCC to be the VE session manager

    T1E11     [97.103(a)]

  15.   Who does the FCC presume to be the control operator of an amateur station, unless documentation to the contrary is in the station records?
     A. The station custodian
     B. The third party participant
     C. The person operating the station equipment
     D. The station licensee

    E1F04     [97.3]

  16.   Which of the following geographic descriptions approximately describes "Line A"?
     A. A line roughly parallel to and south of the U.S.-Canadian border
     B. A line roughly parallel to and west of the U.S. Atlantic coastline
     C. A line roughly parallel to and north of the U.S.-Mexican border and Gulf coastline
     D. A line roughly parallel to and east of the U.S. Pacific coastline

    T1F13     [97.103(c)]

  17.   When must the station licensee make the station and its records available for FCC inspection?
     A. At any time ten days after notification by the FCC of such an inspection
     B. At any time upon request by an FCC representative
     C. Only after failing to comply with an FCC notice of violation
     D. Only when presented with a valid warrant by an FCC official or government agent


  18.   How should you respond to a station calling CQ?
     A. Transmit CQ followed by the other station's call sign
     B. Transmit your call sign followed by the other station's call sign
     C. Transmit the other station's call sign followed by your call sign
     D. Transmit a signal report followed by your call sign


  19.   Which of the following is an advantage when using single sideband as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands?
     A. Very high fidelity voice modulation
     B. Less bandwidth used and greater power efficiency
     C. Ease of tuning on receive and immunity to impulse noise
     D. Less subject to interference from atmospheric static crashes


  20.   What technology is used to track, in real time, balloons carrying amateur radio transmitters?
     A. Radar
     B. Bandwidth compressed LORAN
     C. APRS
     D. Doppler shift of beacon signals


  21.   What is a practical way to avoid harmful interference on an apparently clear frequency before calling CQ on CW or phone?
     A. Send "QRL?" on CW, followed by your call sign; or, if using phone, ask if the frequency is in use, followed by your call sign
     B. Listen for 2 minutes before calling CQ
     C. Send the letter "V" in Morse code several times and listen for a response or say "test" several times and listen for a response
     D. Send "QSY" on CW or if using phone, announce "the frequency is in use", then give your call and listen for a response


  22.   Which of the following is true of the use of SSB phone in amateur bands above 50 MHz?
     A. It is permitted only by holders of a General Class or higher license
     B. It is permitted only on repeaters
     C. It is permitted in at least some portion of all the amateur bands above 50 MHz
     D. It is permitted only on when power is limited to no more than 100 watts


  23.   On which of the following frequencies is one likely to find FM ATV transmissions?
     A. 14.230 MHz
     B. 29.6 MHz
     C. 52.525 MHz
     D. 1255 MHz


  24.   Which of the following describes full break-in telegraphy (QSK)?
     A. Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign BK
     B. Automatic keyers are used to send Morse code instead of hand keys
     C. An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission
     D. Transmitting stations can receive between code characters and elements


  25.   What type of transmission is most often used for a ham radio mesh network?
     A. Spread spectrum in the 2.4 GHz band
     B. Multiple Frequency Shift Keying in the 10 GHz band
     C. Store and forward on the 440 MHz band
     D. Frequency division multiplex in the 24 GHz band


  26.   Are amateur station control operators ever permitted to operate outside the frequency privileges of their license class?
     A. No
     B. Yes, but only when part of a FEMA emergency plan
     C. Yes, but only when part of a RACES emergency plan
     D. Yes, but only if necessary in situations involving the immediate safety of human life or protection of property


  27.   Which of the following describes a method of establishing EME contacts?
     A. Time synchronous transmissions alternately from each station
     B. Storing and forwarding digital messages
     C. Judging optimum transmission times by monitoring beacons reflected from the Moon
     D. High speed CW identification to avoid fading


  28.   What is QRP operation?
     A. Remote piloted model control
     B. Low power transmit operation
     C. Transmission using Quick Response Protocol
     D. Traffic relay procedure net operation


  29.   How can a PACTOR modem or controller be used to determine if the channel is in use by other PACTOR stations?
     A. Unplug the data connector temporarily and see if the channel-busy indication is turned off
     B. Put the modem or controller in a mode which allows monitoring communications without a connection
     C. Transmit UI packets several times and wait to see if there is a response from another PACTOR station
     D. Send the message: "Is this frequency in use?"


  30.   What is the difference between direct FSK and audio FSK?
     A. Direct FSK applies the data signal to the transmitter VFO
     B. Audio FSK has a superior frequency response
     C. Direct FSK uses a DC-coupled data connection
     D. Audio FSK can be performed anywhere in the transmit chain


  31.   What is the approximate maximum separation measured along the surface of the Earth between two stations communicating by Moon bounce?
     A. 500 miles, if the Moon is at perigee
     B. 2000 miles, if the Moon is at apogee
     C. 5000 miles, if the Moon is at perigee
     D. 12,000 miles, if the Moon is visible by both stations


  32.   What antenna polarization is normally used for long-distance weak-signal CW and SSB contacts using the VHF and UHF bands?
     A. Right-hand circular
     B. Left-hand circular
     C. Horizontal
     D. Vertical


  33.   Approximately how long is the typical sunspot cycle?
     A. 8 minutes
     B. 40 hours
     C. 28 days
     D. 11 years


  34.   What is the name for the distance a radio wave travels during one complete cycle?
     A. Wave speed
     B. Waveform
     C. Wavelength
     D. Wave spread


  35.   What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop using the E region?
     A. 180 miles
     B. 1,200 miles
     C. 2,500 miles
     D. 12,000 miles


  36.   Why is chordal hop propagation desirable?
     A. The signal experiences less loss along the path compared to normal skip propagation
     B. The MUF for chordal hop propagation is much lower than for normal skip propagation
     C. Atmospheric noise is lower in the direction of chordal hop propagation
     D. Signals travel faster along ionospheric chords


  37.   Which of the following might be an indication that signals heard on the HF bands are being received via scatter propagation?
     A. The communication is during a sunspot maximum
     B. The communication is during a sudden ionospheric disturbance
     C. The signal is heard on a frequency below the Maximum Usable Frequency
     D. The signal is heard on a frequency above the Maximum Usable Frequency


  38.   Which of the following bands may provide long distance communications during the peak of the sunspot cycle?
     A. Six or ten meters
     B. 23 centimeters
     C. 70 centimeters or 1.25 meters
     D. All of these choices are correct


  39.   What might a sudden rise in radio background noise indicate?
     A. A meteor ping
     B. A solar flare has occurred
     C. Increased transequatorial propagation likely
     D. Long-path propagation is occurring


  40.   What condition can lead to permanent damage to a solid-state RF power amplifier?
     A. Insufficient drive power
     B. Low input SWR
     C. Shorting the input signal to ground
     D. Excessive drive power


  41.   Which type of conductor is best to use for RF grounding?
     A. Round stranded wire
     B. Round copper-clad steel wire
     C. Twisted-pair cable
     D. Flat strap


  42.   How is the compensation of an oscilloscope probe typically adjusted?
     A. A square wave is displayed and the probe is adjusted until the horizontal portions of the displayed wave are as nearly flat as possible
     B. A high frequency sine wave is displayed and the probe is adjusted for maximum amplitude
     C. A frequency standard is displayed and the probe is adjusted until the deflection time is accurate
     D. A DC voltage standard is displayed and the probe is adjusted until the displayed voltage is accurate


  43.   What does the term "RIT" mean?
     A. Receiver Input Tone
     B. Receiver Incremental Tuning
     C. Rectifier Inverter Test
     D. Remote Input Transmitter


  44.   What problem can occur when making measurements on an antenna system with an antenna analyzer?
     A. Permanent damage to the analyzer may occur if it is operated into a high SWR
     B. Strong signals from nearby transmitters can affect the accuracy of measurements
     C. The analyzer can be damaged if measurements outside the ham bands are attempted
     D. Connecting the analyzer to an antenna can cause it to absorb harmonics


  45.   What happens if a dip meter is too tightly coupled to a tuned circuit being checked?
     A. Harmonics are generated
     B. A less accurate reading results
     C. Cross modulation occurs
     D. Intermodulation distortion occurs


  46.   Which of the following could be a cause of interference covering a wide range of frequencies?
     A. Not using a balun or line isolator to feed balanced antennas
     B. Lack of rectification of the transmitter's signal in power conductors
     C. Arcing at a poor electrical connection
     D. Using a balun to feed an unbalanced antenna


  47.   A CW receiver with the AGC off has an equivalent input noise power density of -174 dBm/Hz. What would be the level of an unmodulated carrier input to this receiver that would yield an audio output SNR of 0 dB in a 400 Hz noise bandwidth?
     A. -174 dBm
     B. -164 dBm
     C. -155 dBm
     D. -148 dBm


  48.   How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?
     A. It is 10 times less powerful
     B. It is 20 times less powerful
     C. It is 20 times more powerful
     D. It is 100 times more powerful


  49.   What causes intermodulation in an electronic circuit?
     A. Too little gain
     B. Lack of neutralization
     C. Nonlinear circuits or devices
     D. Positive feedback


  50.   Why is it best NOT to draw the DC power for a 100 watt HF transceiver from a vehicle's auxiliary power socket?
     A. The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable
     B. The socket's wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver
     C. The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers
     D. Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat


  51.   What current flows equally on all conductors of an unshielded multi-conductor cable?
     A. Differential-mode current
     B. Common-mode current
     C. Reactive current only
     D. Return current


  52.   What can cause the voltage across reactances in series to be larger than the voltage applied to them?
     A. Resonance
     B. Capacitance
     C. Conductance
     D. Resistance


  53.   Electrical current is measured in which of the following units?
     A. Volts
     B. Watts
     C. Ohms
     D. Amperes


  54.   How does an inductor react to AC?
     A. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
     B. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
     C. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
     D. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases


  55.   What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 500 ohms, R is 1 kilohm, and XL is 250 ohms?
     A. 68.2 degrees with the voltage leading the current
     B. 14.0 degrees with the voltage leading the current
     C. 14.0 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
     D. 68.2 degrees with the voltage lagging the current


  56.   If a frequency readout calibrated in megahertz shows a reading of 3.525 MHz, what would it show if it were calibrated in kilohertz?
     A. 0.003525 kHz
     B. 35.25 kHz
     C. 3525 kHz
     D. 3,525,000 kHz


  57.   What percentage of power loss would result from a transmission line loss of 1 dB?
     A. 10.9 percent
     B. 12.2 percent
     C. 20.5 percent
     D. 25.9 percent


  58.   What is the name of the diagram used to show the phase relationship between impedances at a given frequency?
     A. Venn diagram
     B. Near field diagram
     C. Phasor diagram
     D. Far field diagram


  59.   What does the abbreviation "RF" refer to?
     A. Radio frequency signals of all types
     B. The resonant frequency of a tuned circuit
     C. The real frequency transmitted as opposed to the apparent frequency
     D. Reflective force in antenna transmission lines


  60.   What is the equivalent capacitance of two 5.0 nanofarad capacitors and one 750 picofarad capacitor connected in parallel?
     A. 576.9 nanofarads
     B. 1733 picofarads
     C. 3583 picofarads
     D. 10.750 nanofarads


  61.   What is the resistance of a circuit that draws 4 amperes from a 12-volt source?
     A. 3 ohms
     B. 16 ohms
     C. 48 ohms
     D. 8 Ohms


  62.   How can the true power be determined in an AC circuit where the voltage and current are out of phase?
     A. By multiplying the apparent power times the power factor
     B. By dividing the reactive power by the power factor
     C. By dividing the apparent power by the power factor
     D. By multiplying the reactive power times the power factor


  63.   What is the beta of a bipolar junction transistor?
     A. The frequency at which the current gain is reduced to 1
     B. The change in collector current with respect to base current
     C. The breakdown voltage of the base to collector junction
     D. The switching speed of the transistor


  64.   What electrical component is usually composed of a coil of wire?
     A. Switch
     B. Capacitor
     C. Diode
     D. Inductor


  65.   What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?
     A. Large values of inductance may be obtained
     B. The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies
     C. Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core
     D. All of these choices are correct


  66.   Which of the following is a common use of a hot-carrier diode?
     A. As balanced mixers in FM generation
     B. As a variable capacitance in an automatic frequency control circuit
     C. As a constant voltage reference in a power supply
     D. As a VHF/UHF mixer or detector


  67.   What are the three electrodes of a PNP or NPN transistor?
     A. Emitter, base, and collector
     B. Source, gate, and drain
     C. Cathode, grid, and plate
     D. Cathode, drift cavity, and collector


  68.   What is a type SMA connector?
     A. A large bayonet connector usable at power levels in excess of 1 KW
     B. A small threaded connector suitable for signals up to several GHz
     C. A connector designed for serial multiple access signals
     D. A type of push-on connector intended for high voltage applications


  69.   What is tri-state logic?
     A. Logic devices with 0, 1, and high impedance output states
     B. Logic devices that utilize ternary math
     C. Low power logic devices designed to operate at 3 volts
     D. Proprietary logic devices manufactured by Tri-State Devices


  70.   What is component 2 in figure T1?
     A. Resistor
     B. Transistor
     C. Indicator lamp
     D. Connector


  71.   What is one reason for using powdered-iron cores rather than ferrite cores in an inductor?
     A. Powdered-iron cores generally have greater initial permeability
     B. Powdered-iron cores generally maintain their characteristics at higher currents
     C. Powdered-iron cores generally require fewer turns to produce a given inductance
     D. Powdered-iron cores use smaller diameter wire for the same inductance


  72.   What is a simple resonant or tuned circuit?
     A. An inductor and a capacitor connected in series or parallel to form a filter
     B. A type of voltage regulator
     C. A resistor circuit used for reducing standing wave ratio
     D. A circuit designed to provide high fidelity audio


  73.   Which of the following component package types would be most suitable for use at frequencies above the HF range?
     A. TO-220
     B. Axial lead
     C. Radial lead
     D. Surface mount


  74.   Which of these materials is affected the most by photoconductivity?
     A. A crystalline semiconductor
     B. An ordinary metal
     C. A heavy metal
     D. A liquid semiconductor


  75.   What is a transceiver?
     A. A type of antenna switch
     B. A unit combining the functions of a transmitter and a receiver
     C. A component in a repeater which filters out unwanted interference
     D. A type of antenna matching network


  76.   How many flip-flops are required to divide a signal frequency by 4?
     A. 1
     B. 2
     C. 4
     D. 8


  77.   Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a Zener diode?
     A. Symbol 4
     B. Symbol 1
     C. Symbol 11
     D. Symbol 5


  78.   Which of the following actions should you take if a neighbor tells you that your station's transmissions are interfering with their radio or TV reception?
     A. Make sure that your station is functioning properly and that it does not cause interference to your own radio or television when it is tuned to the same channel
     B. Immediately turn off your transmitter and contact the nearest FCC office for assistance
     C. Tell them that your license gives you the right to transmit and nothing can be done to reduce the interference
     D. Install a harmonic doubler on the output of your transmitter and tune it until the interference is eliminated


  79.   In Figure E7-1, what is the purpose of R1 and R2?
     A. Load resistors
     B. Fixed bias
     C. Self bias
     D. Feedback


  80.   For which of the following modes is a Class C power stage appropriate for amplifying a modulated signal?
     A. SSB
     B. CW
     C. AM
     D. All of these choices are correct


  81.   What is the simplest combination of stages that implement a superheterodyne receiver?
     A. RF amplifier, detector, audio amplifier
     B. RF amplifier, mixer, IF discriminator
     C. HF oscillator, mixer, detector
     D. HF oscillator, prescaler, audio amplifier


  82.   Which of the following filters would be the best choice for use in a 2 meter repeater duplexer?
     A. A crystal filter
     B. A cavity filter
     C. A DSP filter
     D. An L-C filter


  83.   What is a disadvantage of air core coaxial cable when compared to foam or solid dielectric types?
     A. It has more loss per foot
     B. It cannot be used for VHF or UHF antennas
     C. It requires special techniques to prevent water absorption
     D. It cannot be used at below freezing temperatures


  84.   What is probably happening when an ohmmeter, connected across an unpowered circuit, initially indicates a low resistance and then shows increasing resistance with time?
     A. The ohmmeter is defective
     B. The circuit contains a large capacitor
     C. The circuit contains a large inductor
     D. The circuit is a relaxation oscillator


  85.   What is the equation for calculating power dissipation by a series connected linear voltage regulator?
     A. Input voltage multiplied by input current
     B. Input voltage divided by output current
     C. Voltage difference from input to output multiplied by output current
     D. Output voltage multiplied by output current


  86.   Which of the following can be used to generate FM phone emissions?
     A. A balanced modulator on the audio amplifier
     B. A reactance modulator on the oscillator
     C. A reactance modulator on the final amplifier
     D. A balanced modulator on the oscillator


  87.   What is the minimum number of bits required for an analog-to-digital converter to sample a signal with a range of 1 volt at a resolution of 1 millivolt?
     A. 4 bits
     B. 6 bits
     C. 8 bits
     D. 10 bits


  88.   What magnitude of voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-4 when R1 is 10 ohms and RF is 470 ohms?
     A. 0.21
     B. 94
     C. 47
     D. 24


  89.   What are three oscillator circuits used in Amateur Radio equipment?
     A. Taft, Pierce and negative feedback
     B. Pierce, Fenner and Beane
     C. Taft, Hartley and Pierce
     D. Colpitts, Hartley and Pierce


  90.   Which of the following is a form of amplitude modulation?
     A. Spread-spectrum
     B. Packet radio
     C. Single sideband
     D. Phase shift keying


  91.   What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage?
     A. Multiplex modulation
     B. Phase modulation
     C. Amplitude modulation
     D. Pulse modulation


  92.   What is the approximate ratio of PEP-to-average power in a typical single-sideband phone signal?
     A. 2.5 to 1
     B. 25 to 1
     C. 1 to 1
     D. 100 to 1


  93.   What is the deviation ratio of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus or minus 7.5 kHz when the maximum modulation frequency is 3.5 kHz?
     A. 2.14
     B. 0.214
     C. 0.47
     D. 47


  94.   Which of the following are inputs to a satellite tracking program?
     A. The weight of the satellite
     B. The Keplerian elements
     C. The last observed time of zero Doppler shift
     D. All of these answers are correct


  95.   What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz reactance modulated oscillator in a 5 kHz deviation, 146.52 MHz FM phone transmitter?
     A. 101.75 Hz
     B. 416.7 Hz
     C. 5 kHz
     D. 60 kHz


  96.   Which of the following describes Baudot code?
     A. A 7-bit code with start, stop and parity bits
     B. A code using error detection and correction
     C. A 5-bit code with additional start and stop bits
     D. A code using SELCAL and LISTEN


  97.   Which is the name of a digital code where each preceding or following character changes by only one bit?
     A. Binary Coded Decimal Code
     B. Extended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code
     C. Excess 3 code
     D. Gray code


  98.   What is meant by Voice Over Internet Protocol (VoIP) as used in amateur radio?
     A. A set of rules specifying how to identify your station when linked over the Internet to another station
     B. A set of guidelines for working DX during contests using Internet access
     C. A technique for measuring the modulation quality of a transmitter using remote sites monitored via the Internet
     D. A method of delivering voice communications over the Internet using digital techniques


  99.   What does the abbreviation PSK mean?
     A. Pulse Shift Keying
     B. Phase Shift Keying
     C. Packet Short Keying
     D. Phased Slide Keying


  100.   What is one advantage of using ASCII code for data communications?
     A. It includes built in error correction features
     B. It contains fewer information bits per character than any other code
     C. It is possible to transmit both upper and lower case text
     D. It uses one character as a shift code to send numeric and special characters


  101.   What are the typical characteristic impedances of coaxial cables used for antenna feed lines at amateur stations?
     A. 25 and 30 ohms
     B. 50 and 75 ohms
     C. 80 and 100 ohms
     D. 500 and 750 ohms


  102.   Which of the following is true regarding vertical antennas?
     A. The magnetic field is perpendicular to the Earth
     B. The electric field is perpendicular to the Earth
     C. The phase is inverted
     D. The phase is reversed


  103.   What is the effective radiated power of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 2 dB feed line loss, 2.8 dB duplexer loss, 1.2 dB circulator loss, and 7 dBi antenna gain?
     A. 159 watts
     B. 252 watts
     C. 632 watts
     D. 63.2 watts


  104.   Why is it important to have a low SWR in an antenna system that uses coaxial cable feed line?
     A. To reduce television interference
     B. To allow the efficient transfer of power and reduce losses
     C. To prolong antenna life
     D. All of these choices are correct


  105.   What happens to the feed point impedance of a ground plane antenna when its radials are changed from horizontal to sloping downward?
     A. It decreases
     B. It increases
     C. It stays the same
     D. It reaches a maximum at an angle of 45 degrees


  106.   How does the total amount of radiation emitted by a directional gain antenna compare with the total amount of radiation emitted from an isotropic antenna, assuming each is driven by the same amount of power?
     A. The total amount of radiation from the directional antenna is increased by the gain of the antenna
     B. The total amount of radiation from the directional antenna is stronger by its front-to-back ratio
     C. They are the same
     D. The radiation from the isotropic antenna is 2.15 dB stronger than that from the directional antenna


  107.   What configuration of the loops of a two-element quad antenna must be used for the antenna to operate as a beam antenna, assuming one of the elements is used as a reflector?
     A. The driven element must be fed with a balun transformer
     B. There must be an open circuit in the driven element at the point opposite the feed point
     C. The reflector element must be approximately 5 percent shorter than the driven element
     D. The reflector element must be approximately 5 percent longer than the driven element


  108.   Which of the following describes an extended double Zepp antenna?
     A. A wideband vertical antenna constructed from precisely tapered aluminum tubing
     B. A portable antenna erected using two push support poles
     C. A center fed 1.25 wavelength antenna (two 5/8 wave elements in phase)
     D. An end fed folded dipole antenna


  109.   Why is a Beverage antenna not used for transmitting?
     A. Its impedance is too low for effective matching
     B. It has high losses compared to other types of antennas
     C. It has poor directivity
     D. All of these choices are correct


  110.   What happens to feed point impedance at the base of a fixed length HF mobile antenna as the frequency of operation is lowered?
     A. The radiation resistance decreases and the capacitive reactance decreases
     B. The radiation resistance decreases and the capacitive reactance increases
     C. The radiation resistance increases and the capacitive reactance decreases
     D. The radiation resistance increases and the capacitive reactance increases


  111.   What system matches a higher impedance transmission line to a lower impedance antenna by connecting the line to the driven element in two places spaced a fraction of a wavelength each side of element center?
     A. The gamma matching system
     B. The delta matching system
     C. The omega matching system
     D. The stub matching system


  112.   What impedance does a 1/4 wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at the far end?
     A. The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
     B. The same as the input impedance to the generator
     C. Very high impedance
     D. Very low impedance


  113.   On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the only straight line shown?
     A. The reactance axis
     B. The current axis
     C. The voltage axis
     D. The resistance axis


  114.   Why is it advisable to use an RF attenuator on a receiver being used for direction finding?
     A. It narrows the bandwidth of the received signal to improve signal to noise ratio
     B. It compensates for the effects of an isotropic antenna, thereby improving directivity
     C. It reduces loss of received signals caused by antenna pattern nulls, thereby increasing sensitivity
     D. It prevents receiver overload which could make it difficult to determine peaks or nulls


  115.   What is one of the potential hazards of using microwaves in the amateur radio bands?
     A. Microwaves are ionizing radiation
     B. The high gain antennas commonly used can result in high exposure levels
     C. Microwaves often travel long distances by ionospheric reflection
     D. The extremely high frequency energy can damage the joints of antenna structures


  116.   Which of these precautions should be taken when installing devices for lightning protection in a coaxial cable feed line?
     A. Include a parallel bypass switch for each protector so that it can be switched out of the circuit when running high power
     B. Include a series switch in the ground line of each protector to prevent RF overload from inadvertently damaging the protector
     C. Keep the ground wires from each protector separate and connected to station ground
     D. Ground all of the protectors to a common plate which is in turn connected to an external ground


  117.   What precaution should you take whenever you make adjustments or repairs to an antenna?
     A. Ensure that you and the antenna structure are grounded
     B. Turn off the transmitter and disconnect the feed line
     C. Wear a radiation badge
     D. All of these choices are correct


  118.   Which of the following is true concerning grounding conductors used for lightning protection?
     A. Only non-insulated wire must be used
     B. Wires must be carefully routed with precise right-angle bends
     C. Sharp bends must be avoided
     D. Common grounds must be avoided


  119.   Which of the following is good practice for lightning protection grounds?
     A. They must be bonded to all buried water and gas lines
     B. Bends in ground wires must be made as close as possible to a right angle
     C. Lightning grounds must be connected to all ungrounded wiring
     D. They must be bonded together with all other grounds


  120.   Which of the following frequencies has the lowest value for Maximum Permissible Exposure limit?
     A. 3.5 MHz
     B. 50 MHz
     C. 440 MHz
     D. 1296 MHz