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About Practice Exam -

    G1A10     [97.301(d)]

  1.   Which of the following frequencies is available to a control operator holding a General Class license?
     A. 28.020 MHz
     B. 28.350 MHz
     C. 28.550 MHz
     D. All of these choices are correct

    E1A10     [97.11]

  2.   If an amateur station is installed aboard a ship or aircraft, what condition must be met before the station is operated?
     A. Its operation must be approved by the master of the ship or the pilot in command of the aircraft
     B. The amateur station operator must agree not to transmit when the main radio of the ship or aircraft is in use
     C. The amateur station must have a power supply that is completely independent of the main ship or aircraft power supply
     D. The amateur operator must have an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement on his or her amateur license

    T1A14     [97.303(d)]

  3.   What must you do if you are operating on the 23 cm band and learn that you are interfering with a radiolocation station outside the United States?
     A. Stop operating or take steps to eliminate the harmful interference
     B. Nothing, because this band is allocated exclusively to the amateur service
     C. Establish contact with the radiolocation station and ask them to change frequency
     D. Change to CW mode, because this would not likely cause interference

    E1B09     [97.407]

  4.   Which amateur stations may be operated under RACES rules?
     A. Only those club stations licensed to Amateur Extra class operators
     B. Any FCC-licensed amateur station except a Technician class
     C. Any FCC-licensed amateur station certified by the responsible civil defense organization for the area served
     D. Any FCC-licensed amateur station participating in the Military Auxiliary Radio System (MARS)

    G1B11     [97.101(a)]

  5.   How does the FCC require an amateur station to be operated in all respects not specifically covered by the Part 97 rules?
     A. In conformance with the rules of the IARU
     B. In conformance with Amateur Radio custom
     C. In conformance with good engineering and good amateur practice
     D. All of these choices are correct

    T1B12     [97.301]

  6.   Why are frequency assignments for U.S. stations operating maritime mobile not the same everywhere in the world?
     A.Amateur maritime mobile stations in international waters must conform to the frequency assignments of the country nearest to their vessel
     B. Amateur frequency assignments can vary among the three ITU regions
     C. Frequency assignments are determined by the captain of the vessel
     D. Amateur frequency assignments are different in each of the 90 ITU zones

    G1C04     [97.313(a)]

  7.   Which of the following limitations apply to transmitter power on every amateur band?
     A. Only the minimum power necessary to carry out the desired communications should be used
     B. Power must be limited to 200 watts when transmitting between 14.100 MHz and 14.150 MHz
     C. Power should be limited as necessary to avoid interference to another radio service on the frequency
     D. Effective radiated power cannot exceed 1500 watts

    T1C06     [97.5(a)(2)]

  8.   From which of the following locations may an FCC-licensed amateur station transmit, in addition to places where the FCC regulates communications?
     A. From within any country that belongs to the International Telecommunications Union
     B. From within any country that is a member of the United Nations
     C. From anywhere within in ITU Regions 2 and 3
     D. From any vessel or craft located in international waters and documented or registered in the United States

    E1C12     [97.117]

  9.   What types of communications may be transmitted to amateur stations in foreign countries?
     A. Business-related messages for non-profit organizations
     B. Messages intended for connection to users of the maritime satellite service
     C. Communications incidental to the purpose of the amateur service and remarks of a personal nature
     D. All of these choices are correct

    T1D01     [97.111(a)(1)]

  10.   With which countries are FCC-licensed amateur stations prohibited from exchanging communications?
     A. Any country whose administration has notified the ITU that it objects to such communications
     B. Any country whose administration has notified the ARRL that it objects to such communications
     C. Any country engaged in hostilities with another country
     D. Any country in violation of the War Powers Act of 1934

    E1D02     [97.3]

  11.   What is the amateur satellite service?
     A. A radio navigation service using satellites for the purpose of self training, intercommunication and technical studies carried out by amateurs
     B. A spacecraft launching service for amateur-built satellites
     C. A radio communications service using amateur radio stations on satellites
     D. A radio communications service using stations on Earth satellites for public service broadcast

    G1D06     [97.119(f)(2)]

  12.   When must you add the special identifier "AG" after your call sign if you are a Technician Class licensee and have a CSCE for General Class operator privileges, but the FCC has not yet posted your upgrade on its website ?
     A. Whenever you operate using General Class frequency privileges
     B. Whenever you operate on any amateur frequency
     C. Whenever you operate using Technician frequency privileges
     D. A special identifier is not required as long as your General Class license application has been filed with the FCC

    T1E01     [97.7(a)]

  13.   When is an amateur station permitted to transmit without a control operator?
     A. When using automatic control, such as in the case of a repeater
     B. When the station licensee is away and another licensed amateur is using the station
     C. When the transmitting station is an auxiliary station
     D. Never

    E1E03     [97.521]

  14.   What is a Volunteer Examiner Coordinator?
     A. A person who has volunteered to administer amateur operator license examinations
     B. A person who has volunteered to prepare amateur operator license examinations
     C. An organization that has entered into an agreement with the FCC to coordinate amateur operator license examinations
     D. The person who has entered into an agreement with the FCC to be the VE session manager

    G1E06     [97.205(c)]

  15.   Which of the following applies in the event of interference between a coordinated repeater and an uncoordinated repeater?
     A. The licensee of the uncoordinated repeater has primary responsibility to resolve the interference
     B. The licensee of the coordinated repeater has primary responsibility to resolve the interference
     C. Both repeater licensees share equal responsibility to resolve the interference
     D. The frequency coordinator bears primary responsibility to resolve the interference

    T1F05     [97.119(b)(2)]

  16.   What method of call sign identification is required for a station transmitting phone signals?
     A. Send the call sign followed by the indicator RPT
     B. Send the call sign using CW or phone emission
     C. Send the call sign followed by the indicator R
     D. Send the call sign using only phone emission

    E1F09     [97.311]

  17.   Which of the following conditions apply when transmitting spread spectrum emission?
     A. A station transmitting SS emission must not cause harmful interference to other stations employing other authorized emissions
     B. The transmitting station must be in an area regulated by the FCC or in a country that permits SS emissions
     C. The transmission must not be used to obscure the meaning of any communication
     D. All of these choices are correct


  18.   Which sideband is most commonly used for voice communications on frequencies of 14 MHz or higher?
     A. Upper sideband
     B. Lower sideband
     C. Vestigial sideband
     D. Double sideband


  19.   What is the orbital period of an Earth satellite?
     A. The point of maximum height of a satellite's orbit
     B. The point of minimum height of a satellite's orbit
     C. The time it takes for a satellite to complete one revolution around the Earth
     D. The time it takes for a satellite to travel from perigee to apogee

    T2A11     [97.313(a)]

  20.   Which of the following is an FCC rule regarding power levels used in the amateur bands, under normal, non-distress circumstances?
     A. There is no limit to power as long as there is no interference with other services
     B. No more than 200 watts PEP may be used
     C. Up to 1500 watts PEP may be used on any amateur frequency without restriction
     D. While not exceeding the maximum power permitted on a given band, use the minimum power necessary to carry out the desired communication


  21.   What is the term used to describe the use of a sub-audible tone transmitted with normal voice audio to open the squelch of a receiver?
     A. Carrier squelch
     B. Tone burst
     C. DTMF
     D. CTCSS

    G2B12     [97.405(b)]

  22.   When is an amateur station allowed to use any means at its disposal to assist another station in distress?
     A. Only when transmitting in RACES
     B. At any time when transmitting in an organized net
     C. At any time during an actual emergency
     D. Only on authorized HF frequencies


  23.   What is the approximate bandwidth of a slow-scan TV signal?
     A. 600 Hz
     B. 3 kHz
     C. 2 MHz
     D. 6 MHz


  24.   What should you do if a CW station sends "QRS"?
     A. Send slower
     B. Change frequency
     C. Increase your power
     D. Repeat everything twice


  25.   What is meant by the term "check" in reference to a formal traffic message?
     A. The check is a count of the number of words or word equivalents in the text portion of the message
     B. The check is the value of a money order attached to the message
     C. The check is a list of stations that have relayed the message
     D. The check is a box on the message form that tells you the message was received


  26.   What indicator is required to be used by U.S.-licensed operators when operating a station via remote control where the transmitter is located in the U.S.?
     A. / followed by the USPS two letter abbreviation for the state in which the remote station is located
     B. /R# where # is the district of the remote station
     C. The ARRL section of the remote station
     D. No additional indicator is required


  27.   Which of the following techniques is normally used by low Earth orbiting digital satellites to relay messages around the world?
     A. Digipeating
     B. Store-and-forward
     C. Multi-satellite relaying
     D. Node hopping


  28.   What is QRP operation?
     A. Remote piloted model control
     B. Low power transmit operation
     C. Transmission using Quick Response Protocol
     D. Traffic relay procedure net operation


  29.   What symptoms may result from other signals interfering with a PACTOR or WINMOR transmission?
     A. Frequent retries or timeouts
     B. Long pauses in message transmission
     C. Failure to establish a connection between stations
     D. All of these choices are correct


  30.   Which of the following HF digital modes uses variable-length coding for bandwidth efficiency?
     A. RTTY
     B. PACTOR
     C. MT63
     D. PSK31


  31.   What effect does a Sudden Ionospheric Disturbance have on the daytime ionospheric propagation of HF radio waves?
     A. It enhances propagation on all HF frequencies
     B. It disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on higher frequencies
     C. It disrupts communications via satellite more than direct communications
     D. None, because only areas on the night side of the Earth are affected


  32.   Which type of atmospheric structure can create a path for microwave propagation?
     A. The jet stream
     B. Temperature inversion
     C. Wind shear
     D. Dust devil


  33.   Which part of the atmosphere enables the propagation of radio signals around the world?
     A. The stratosphere
     B. The troposphere
     C. The ionosphere
     D. The magnetosphere


  34.   How might a sky-wave signal sound if it arrives at your receiver by both short path and long path propagation?
     A. Periodic fading approximately every 10 seconds
     B. Signal strength increased by 3 dB
     C. The signal might be cancelled causing severe attenuation
     D. A well-defined echo might be heard


  35.   What are the frequency limits of the VHF spectrum?
     A. 30 to 300 kHz
     B. 30 to 300 MHz
     C. 300 to 3000 kHz
     D. 300 to 3000 MHz


  36.   What is the cause of gray-line propagation?
     A. At midday, the Sun super heats the ionosphere causing increased refraction of radio waves
     B. At twilight and sunrise, D-layer absorption is low while E-layer and F-layer propagation remains high
     C. In darkness, solar absorption drops greatly while atmospheric ionization remains steady
     D. At mid-afternoon, the Sun heats the ionosphere decreasing radio wave refraction and the MUF


  37.   Why are HF scatter signals in the skip zone usually weak?
     A. Only a small part of the signal energy is scattered into the skip zone
     B. Signals are scattered from the magnetosphere which is not a good reflector
     C. Propagation is through ground waves which absorb most of the signal energy
     D. Propagations is through ducts in F region which absorb most of the energy


  38.   What does the 304A solar parameter measure?
     A. The ratio of X-Ray flux to radio flux, correlated to sunspot number
     B. UV emissions at 304 angstroms, correlated to solar flux index
     C. The solar wind velocity at 304 degrees from the solar equator, correlated to solar activity
     D. The solar emission at 304 GHz, correlated to X-Ray flare levels


  39.   Which of the following bands may provide long distance communications during the peak of the sunspot cycle?
     A. Six or ten meters
     B. 23 centimeters
     C. 70 centimeters or 1.25 meters
     D. All of these choices are correct


  40.   What is the purpose of the "notch filter" found on many HF transceivers?
     A. To restrict the transmitter voice bandwidth
     B. To reduce interference from carriers in the receiver passband
     C. To eliminate receiver interference from impulse noise sources
     D. To enhance the reception of a specific frequency on a crowded band


  41.   How might a computer be used as part of an amateur radio station?
     A. For logging contacts and contact information
     B. For sending and/or receiving CW
     C. For generating and decoding digital signals
     D. All of these choices are correct


  42.   Which of the following is an advantage of using an antenna analyzer compared to an SWR bridge to measure antenna SWR?
     A. Antenna analyzers automatically tune your antenna for resonance
     B. Antenna analyzers do not need an external RF source
     C. Antenna analyzers display a time-varying representation of the modulation envelope
     D. All of these choices are correct


  43.   Which of the following can be used to enter the operating frequency on a modern transceiver?
     A. The keypad or VFO knob
     B. The CTCSS or DTMF encoder
     C. The Automatic Frequency Control
     D. All of these choices are correct


  44.   How much power is being absorbed by the load when a directional power meter connected between a transmitter and a terminating load reads 100 watts forward power and 25 watts reflected power?
     A. 100 watts
     B. 125 watts
     C. 25 watts
     D. 75 watts


  45.   What signals are used to conduct a two-tone test?
     A. Two audio signals of the same frequency shifted 90 degrees
     B. Two non-harmonically related audio signals
     C. Two swept frequency tones
     D. Two audio frequency range square wave signals of equal amplitude


  46.   What effect can be caused by a resonant ground connection?
     A. Overheating of ground straps
     B. Corrosion of the ground rod
     C. High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment
     D. A ground loop


  47.   Which of the following is caused by missing codes in an SDR receiver's analog-to-digital converter?
     A. Distortion
     B. Overload
     C. Loss of sensitivity
     D. Excess output level


  48.   Which of the following may reduce or eliminate intermodulation interference in a repeater caused by another transmitter operating in close proximity?
     A. A band-pass filter in the feed line between the transmitter and receiver
     B. A properly terminated circulator at the output of the transmitter
     C. A Class C final amplifier
     D. A Class D final amplifier


  49.   How close to the lower edge of the 40-meter General Class phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?
     A. At least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment
     B. At least 3 kHz below the edge of the segment
     C. Your displayed carrier frequency may be set at the edge of the segment
     D. At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment


  50.   Why is it best NOT to draw the DC power for a 100 watt HF transceiver from a vehicle’s auxiliary power socket?
     A. The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable
     B. The socket's wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver
     C. The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers
     D. Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat


  51.   Which is the most likely cause if you are hearing combinations of local AM broadcast signals within one or more of the MF or HF ham bands?
     A. The broadcast station is transmitting an over-modulated signal
     B. Nearby corroded metal joints are mixing and re-radiating the broadcast signals
     C. You are receiving sky wave signals from a distant station
     D. Your station receiver IF amplifier stage is defective


  52.   What is the magnitude of the circulating current within the components of a parallel LC circuit at resonance?
     A. It is at a minimum
     B. It is at a maximum
     C. It equals 1 divided by the quantity 2 times Pi, multiplied by the square root of inductance L multiplied by capacitance C
     D. It equals 2 multiplied by Pi, multiplied by frequency, multiplied by inductance


  53.   What is the name for a current that reverses direction on a regular basis?
     A. Alternating current
     B. Direct current
     C. Circular current
     D. Vertical current


  54.   Which of the following devices can be used for impedance matching at radio frequencies?
     A. A transformer
     B. A Pi-network
     C. A length of transmission line
     D. All of these choices are correct


  55.   What is susceptance?
     A. The magnetic impedance of a circuit
     B. The ratio of magnetic field to electric field
     C. The inverse of reactance
     D. A measure of the efficiency of a transformer


  56.   What value of an AC signal produces the same power dissipation in a resistor as a DC voltage of the same value?
     A. The peak-to-peak value
     B. The peak value
     C. The RMS value
     D. The reciprocal of the RMS value


  57.   If a frequency readout shows a reading of 2425 MHz, what frequency is that in GHz?
     A. 0.002425 GHZ
     B. 24.25 GHz
     C. 2.425 GHz
     D. 2425 GHz


  58.   How much power is being used in a circuit when the applied voltage is 13.8 volts DC and the current is 10 amperes?
     A. 138 watts
     B. 0.7 watts
     C. 23.8 watts
     D. 3.8 watts


  59.   What is the inductance of three 10 millihenry inductors connected in parallel?
     A. 0.30 henrys
     B. 3.3 henrys
     C. 3.3 millihenrys
     D. 30 millihenrys


  60.   What coordinate system is often used to display the resistive, inductive, and/or capacitive reactance components of impedance?
     A. Maidenhead grid
     B. Faraday grid
     C. Elliptical coordinates
     D. Rectangular coordinates


  61.   What formula is used to calculate current in a circuit?
     A. Current (I) equals voltage (E) multiplied by resistance (R)
     B. Current (I) equals voltage (E) divided by resistance (R)
     C. Current (I) equals voltage (E) added to resistance (R)
     D. Current (I) equals voltage (E) minus resistance (R)


  62.   What is the power factor of an R-L circuit having a 60 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current?
     A. 1.414
     B. 0.866
     C. 0.5
     D. 1.73


  63.   Which of the following is an advantage of using a Schottky diode in an RF switching circuit rather than a standard silicon diode?
     A. Lower capacitance
     B. Lower inductance
     C. Longer switching times
     D. Higher breakdown voltage


  64.   Which of the following indicates that a silicon NPN junction transistor is biased on?
     A. Base-to-emitter resistance of approximately 6 to 7 ohms
     B. Base-to-emitter resistance of approximately 0.6 to 0.7 ohms
     C. Base-to-emitter voltage of approximately 6 to 7 volts
     D. Base-to-emitter voltage of approximately 0.6 to 0.7 volts


  65.   What electrical component is usually composed of a coil of wire?
     A. Switch
     B. Capacitor
     C. Diode
     D. Inductor


  66.   Which of the following is a common use of a hot-carrier diode?
     A. As balanced mixers in FM generation
     B. As a variable capacitance in an automatic frequency control circuit
     C. As a constant voltage reference in a power supply
     D. As a VHF/UHF mixer or detector


  67.   What does the abbreviation LED stand for?
     A. Low Emission Diode
     B. Light Emitting Diode
     C. Liquid Emission Detector
     D. Long Echo Delay


  68.   What is the general description of a DIN type connector?
     A. A special connector for microwave interfacing
     B. A DC power connector rated for currents between 30 and 50 amperes
     C. A family of multiple circuit connectors suitable for audio and control signals
     D. A special watertight connector for use in marine applications


  69.   What is component 2 in figure T1?
     A. Resistor
     B. Transistor
     C. Indicator lamp
     D. Connector


  70.   Which of the following is an advantage of BiCMOS logic?
     A. Its simplicity results in much less expensive devices than standard CMOS
     B. It is totally immune to electrostatic damage
     C. It has the high input impedance of CMOS and the low output impedance of bipolar transistors
     D. All of these choices are correct


  71.   What best describes a relay?
     A. A switch controlled by an electromagnet
     B. A current controlled amplifier
     C. An optical sensor
     D. A pass transistor


  72.   What is one reason for using powdered-iron cores rather than ferrite cores in an inductor?
     A. Powdered-iron cores generally have greater initial permeability
     B. Powdered-iron cores generally maintain their characteristics at higher currents
     C. Powdered-iron cores generally require fewer turns to produce a given inductance
     D. Powdered-iron cores use smaller diameter wire for the same inductance


  73.   Which of the following component package types would be most suitable for use at frequencies above the HF range?
     A. TO-220
     B. Axial lead
     C. Radial lead
     D. Surface mount


  74.   What is the most common type of photovoltaic cell used for electrical power generation?
     A. Selenium
     B. Silicon
     C. Cadmium Sulfide
     D. Copper oxide


  75.   Which term describes the ability of a receiver to detect the presence of a signal?
     C. Selectivity
     D. Total Harmonic Distortion


  76.   Which of the following components are used in a power supply filter network?
     A. Diodes
     B. Transformers and transducers
     C. Quartz crystals
     D. Capacitors and inductors


  77.   What logical operation does a NAND gate perform?
     A. It produces logic "0" at its output only when all inputs are logic "0"
     B. It produces logic "1" at its output only when all inputs are logic "1"
     C. It produces logic "0" at its output if some but not all inputs are logic "1"
     D. It produces logic "0" at its output only when all inputs are logic "1"


  78.   Which of the following describes the function of a two input AND gate?
     A. Output is high when either or both inputs are low
     B. Output is high only when both inputs are high
     C. Output is low when either or both inputs are high
     D. Output is low only when both inputs are high


  79.   What might be the problem if you receive a report that your audio signal through the repeater is distorted or unintelligible?
     A. Your transmitter may be slightly off frequency
     B. Your batteries may be running low
     C. You could be in a bad location
     D. All of these choices are correct


  80.   Why are switching amplifiers more efficient than linear amplifiers?
     A. Switching amplifiers operate at higher voltages
     B. The power transistor is at saturation or cut off most of the time, resulting in low power dissipation
     C. Linear amplifiers have high gain resulting in higher harmonic content
     D. Switching amplifiers use push-pull circuits


  81.   How does an impedance-matching circuit transform a complex impedance to a resistive impedance?
     A. It introduces negative resistance to cancel the resistive part of impedance
     B. It introduces transconductance to cancel the reactive part of impedance
     C. It cancels the reactive part of the impedance and changes the resistive part to a desired value
     D. Network resistances are substituted for load resistances and reactances are matched to the resistances


  82.   What circuit is used to combine signals from the IF amplifier and BFO and send the result to the AF amplifier in some single sideband receivers?
     A. RF oscillator
     B. IF filter
     C. Balanced modulator
     D. Product detector


  83.   Why should the outer jacket of coaxial cable be resistant to ultraviolet light?
     A. Ultraviolet resistant jackets prevent harmonic radiation
     B. Ultraviolet light can increase losses in the cable's jacket
     C. Ultraviolet and RF signals can mix together, causing interference
     D. Ultraviolet light can damage the jacket and allow water to enter the cable


  84.   What is the correct way to connect a voltmeter to a circuit?
     A. In series with the circuit
     B. In parallel with the circuit
     C. In quadrature with the circuit
     D. In phase with the circuit


  85.   What circuit element is controlled by a series analog voltage regulator to maintain a constant output voltage?
     A. Reference voltage
     B. Switching inductance
     C. Error amplifier
     D. Pass transistor


  86.   Why is de-emphasis commonly used in FM communications receivers?
     A. For compatibility with transmitters using phase modulation
     B. To reduce impulse noise reception
     C. For higher efficiency
     D. To remove third-order distortion products


  87.   What is meant by direct digital conversion as applied to software defined radios?
     A. Software is converted from source code to object code during operation of the receiver
     B. Incoming RF is converted to a control voltage for a voltage controlled oscillator
     C. Incoming RF is digitized by an analog-to-digital converter without being mixed with a local oscillator signal
     D. A switching mixer is used to generate I and Q signals directly from the RF input


  88.   Which of the following is the most appropriate use of an op-amp active filter?
     A. As a high-pass filter used to block RFI at the input to receivers
     B. As a low-pass filter used between a transmitter and a transmission line
     C. For smoothing power supply output
     D. As an audio filter in a receiver


  89.   Which of the following oscillator circuits are commonly used in VFOs?
     A. Pierce and Zener
     B. Colpitts and Hartley
     C. Armstrong and deForest
     D. Negative feedback and balanced feedback


  90.   What type of wave does a Fourier analysis show to be made up of sine waves of a given fundamental frequency plus all of its harmonics?
     A. A sawtooth wave
     B. A square wave
     C. A sine wave
     D. A cosine wave


  91.   Which type of voice mode is most often used for long-distance (weak signal) contacts on the VHF and UHF bands?
     A. FM
     B. DRM
     C. SSB
     D. PM


  92.   What is meant by the term flat-topping when referring to a single sideband phone transmission?
     A. Signal distortion caused by insufficient collector current
     B. The transmitter's automatic level control (ALC) is properly adjusted
     C. Signal distortion caused by excessive drive
     D. The transmitter's carrier is properly suppressed


  93.   What receiver stage combines a 14.250 MHz input signal with a 13.795 MHz oscillator signal to produce a 455 kHz intermediate frequency (IF) signal?
     A. Mixer
     B. BFO
     C. VFO
     D. Discriminator


  94.   What is the deviation ratio of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus-or-minus 5 kHz when the maximum modulation frequency is 3 kHz?
     A. 60
     B. 0.167
     C. 0.6
     D. 1.67


  95.   What is a commonly used method of sending signals to and from a digital satellite?
     A. USB AFSK
     B. PSK31
     C. FM Packet
     D. WSJT


  96.   What popular operating activity involves contacting as many stations as possible during a specified period of time?
     A. Contesting
     B. Net operations
     C. Public service events
     D. Simulated emergency exercises


  97.   In the PACTOR protocol, what is meant by an NAK response to a transmitted packet?
     A. The receiver is requesting the packet be retransmitted
     B. The receiver is reporting the packet was received without error
     C. The receiver is busy decoding the packet
     D. The entire file has been received correctly


  98.   What is the necessary bandwidth of a 170-hertz shift, 300-baud ASCII transmission?
     A. 0.1 Hz
     B. 0.3 kHz
     C. 0.5 kHz
     D. 1.0 kHz


  99.   What does the term "APRS" mean?
     A. Automatic Packet Reporting System
     B. Associated Public Radio Station
     C. Auto Planning Radio Set-up
     D. Advanced Polar Radio System


  100.   What is one advantage of using ASCII code for data communications?
     A. It includes built in error correction features
     B. It contains fewer information bits per character than any other code
     C. It is possible to transmit both upper and lower case text
     D. It uses one character as a shift code to send numeric and special characters


  101.   How would you change a dipole antenna to make it resonant on a higher frequency?
     A. Lengthen it
     B. Insert coils in series with radiating wires
     C. Shorten it
     D. Add capacitive loading to the ends of the radiating wires


  102.   What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having 25 ohm impedance?
     A. 2:1
     B. 2.5:1
     C. 1.25:1
     D. You cannot determine SWR from impedance values


  103.   What term describes station output, taking into account all gains and losses?
     A. Power factor
     B. Half-power bandwidth
     C. Effective radiated power
     D. Apparent power


  104.   Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed point impedance of a quarter wave ground plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?
     A. Slope the radials upward
     B. Slope the radials downward
     C. Lengthen the radials
     D. Shorten the radials


  105.   What does an antenna tuner do?
     A. It matches the antenna system impedance to the transceiver's output impedance
     B. It helps a receiver automatically tune in weak stations
     C. It allows an antenna to be used on both transmit and receive
     D. It automatically selects the proper antenna for the frequency band being used


  106.   What is the front-to-back ratio of the radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?
     A. 15 dB
     B. 28 dB
     C. 3 dB
     D. 24 dB


  107.   How does the radiation pattern of a horizontally polarized 3-element beam antenna vary with its height above ground?
     A. The main lobe takeoff angle increases with increasing height
     B. The main lobe takeoff angle decreases with increasing height
     C. The horizontal beam width increases with height
     D. The horizontal beam width decreases with height


  108.   Approximately how long is each leg of a symmetrical delta-loop antenna?
     A. 1/4 wavelength
     B. 1/3 wavelength
     C. 1/2 wavelength
     D. 2/3 wavelength


  109.   Which of the following is an advantage of a log periodic antenna?
     A. Wide bandwidth
     B. Higher gain per element than a Yagi antenna
     C. Harmonic suppression
     D. Polarization diversity


  110.   What happens as the Q of an antenna increases?
     A. SWR bandwidth increases
     B. SWR bandwidth decreases
     C. Gain is reduced
     D. More common-mode current is present on the feed line


  111.   What is the name of an antenna matching system that matches an unbalanced feed line to an antenna by feeding the driven element both at the center of the element and at a fraction of a wavelength to one side of center?
     A. The gamma match
     B. The delta match
     C. The epsilon match
     D. The stub match


  112.   What impedance does a 1/2 wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at the far end?
     A. Very high impedance
     B. Very low impedance
     C. The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
     D. The same as the output impedance of the generator


  113.   What is the process of normalization with regard to a Smith chart?
     A. Reassigning resistance values with regard to the reactance axis
     B. Reassigning reactance values with regard to the resistance axis
     C. Reassigning impedance values with regard to the prime center
     D. Reassigning prime center with regard to the reactance axis


  114.   Which is generally true for low band (160 meter and 80 meter) receiving antennas?
     A. Atmospheric noise is so high that gain over a dipole is not important
     B. They must be erected at least 1/2 wavelength above the ground to attain good directivity
     C. Low loss coax transmission line is essential for good performance
     D. All of these choices are correct


  115.   When evaluating a site with multiple transmitters operating at the same time, the operators and licensees of which transmitters are responsible for mitigating over-exposure situations?
     A. Only the most powerful transmitter
     B. Only commercial transmitters
     C. Each transmitter that produces 5 percent or more of its MPE limit at accessible locations
     D. Each transmitter operating with a duty-cycle greater than 50 percent


  116.   Which of the following steps must an amateur operator take to ensure compliance with RF safety regulations when transmitter power exceeds levels specified in FCC Part 97.13?
     A. Post a copy of FCC Part 97.13 in the station
     B. Post a copy of OET Bulletin 65 in the station
     C. Perform a routine RF exposure evaluation
     D. All of these choices are correct


  117.   What kind of hazard might exist in a power supply when it is turned off and disconnected?
     A. Static electricity could damage the grounding system
     B. Circulating currents inside the transformer might cause damage
     C. The fuse might blow if you remove the cover
     D. You might receive an electric shock from the charged stored in large capacitors


  118.   Which of the following establishes grounding requirements for an amateur radio tower or antenna?
     A. FCC Part 97 Rules
     B. Local electrical codes
     C. FAA tower lighting regulations
     D. Underwriters Laboratories' recommended practices


  119.   What must you do when powering your house from an emergency generator?
     A. Disconnect the incoming utility power feed
     B. Insure that the generator is not grounded
     C. Insure that all lightning grounds are disconnected
     D. All of these choices are correct


  120.   How can you make sure your station stays in compliance with RF safety regulations?
     A. By informing the FCC of any changes made in your station
     B. By re-evaluating the station whenever an item of equipment is changed
     C. By making sure your antennas have low SWR
     D. All of these choices are correct