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About Practice Exam -

    T1A04     [97.5(b)(1)]

  1.   How many operator/primary station license grants may be held by any one person?
     No more than two
     One for each band on which the person plans to operate
     One for each permanent station location from which the person plans to operate

    G1A10     [97.301(d)]

  2.   Which of the following frequencies is available to a control operator holding a General Class license?
     A. 28.020 MHz
     B. 28.350 MHz
     C. 28.550 MHz
     D. All of these choices are correct

    E1A10     [97.11]

  3.   If an amateur station is installed aboard a ship or aircraft, what condition must be met before the station is operated?
     A. Its operation must be approved by the master of the ship or the pilot in command of the aircraft
     B. The amateur station operator must agree not to transmit when the main radio of the ship or aircraft is in use
     C. The amateur station must have a power supply that is completely independent of the main ship or aircraft power supply
     D. The amateur operator must have an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement on his or her amateur license

    G1B01     [97.15(a)]

  4.   What is the maximum height above ground to which an antenna structure may be erected without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC, provided it is not at or near a public use airport?
     A. 50 feet
     B. 100 feet
     C. 200 feet
     D. 300 feet

    T1B04     [97.301(a)]

  5.   Which amateur band are you using when your station is transmitting on 146.52 MHz?
     2 meter band
     20 meter band
     14 meter band
     6 meter band

    E1B06     [97.15]

  6.   Which of the following additional rules apply if you are installing an amateur station antenna at a site at or near a public use airport?
     A. You may have to notify the Federal Aviation Administration and register it with the FCC as required by Part 17 of FCC rules
     B. No special rules apply if your antenna structure will be less than 300 feet in height
     C. You must file an Environmental Impact Statement with the EPA before construction begins
     D. You must obtain a construction permit from the airport zoning authority

    G1C06     [97.313]

  7.   Which of the following is a limitation on transmitter power on the 1.8 MHz band?
     A. 200 watts PEP output
     B. 1000 watts PEP output
     C. 1200 watts PEP output
     D. 1500 watts PEP output

    T1C07     [97.23]

  8.   What may result when correspondence from the FCC is returned as undeliverable because the grantee failed to provide and maintain a correct mailing address with the FCC?
     Fine or imprisonment
     Revocation of the station license or suspension of the operator license
     Require the licensee to be re-examined
     A reduction of one rank in operator class

    E1C08     [97.213]

  9.   What is the maximum permissible duration of a remotely controlled station's transmissions if its control link malfunctions?
     A. 30 seconds
     B. 3 minutes
     C. 5 minutes
     D. 10 minutes

    E1D01     [97.3]

  10.   What is the definition of the term telemetry?
     A. One-way transmission of measurements at a distance from the measuring instrument
     B. Two-way radiotelephone transmissions in excess of 1000 feet
     C. Two-way single channel transmissions of data
     D. One-way transmission that initiates, modifies, or terminates the functions of a device at a distance

    T1D03     [97.211(b), 97.215(b), 97.114(a)(4)]

  11.   When is it permissible to transmit messages encoded to hide their meaning?
     Only during contests
     Only when operating mobile
     Only when transmitting control commands to space stations or radio control craft
     Only when frequencies above 1280 MHz are used

    G1D09     [97.9(b)]

  12.   How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?
     A. 30 days
     B. 180 days
     C. 365 days
     D. For as long as your current license is valid

    E1E05     [97.503]

  13.   What is the minimum passing score on amateur operator license examinations?
     A. Minimum passing score of 70%
     B. Minimum passing score of 74%
     C. Minimum passing score of 80%
     D. Minimum passing score of 77%

    G1E08     [97.115(a)(b)]

  14.   Which of the following is a requirement for a non-licensed person to communicate with a foreign Amateur Radio station from a station with an FCC-granted license at which an FCC licensed control operator is present?
     A. Information must be exchanged in English
     B. The foreign amateur station must be in a country with which the United States has a third party agreement
     C. The control operator must have at least a General Class license
     D. All of these choices are correct

    T1E10     [97.3(a)(39)]

  15.   Which of the following is an example of remote control as defined in Part 97?
     Repeater operation
     Operating the station over the internet
     Controlling a model aircraft, boat, or car by amateur radio
     All of these choices are correct

    T1F02     [97.119 (a)]

  16.   When using tactical identifiers such as "Race Headquarters" during a community service net operation, how often must your station transmit the station's FCC-assigned call sign?
     Never, the tactical call is sufficient
     Once during every hour
     At the end of each communication and every ten minutes during a communication
     At the end of every transmission

    E1F11     [97.317]

  17.   Which of the following best describes one of the standards that must be met by an external RF power amplifier if it is to qualify for a grant of FCC certification?
     A. It must produce full legal output when driven by not more than 5 watts of mean RF input power
     B. It must be capable of external RF switching between its input and output networks
     C. It must exhibit a gain of 0 dB or less over its full output range
     D. It must satisfy the FCC's spurious emission standards when operated at the lesser of 1500 watts or its full output power


  18.   What is meant by the term mode as applied to an amateur radio satellite?
     A. The type of signals that can be relayed through the satellite
     B. The satellite's uplink and downlink frequency bands
     C. The satellite's orientation with respect to the Earth
     D. Whether the satellite is in a polar or equatorial orbit


  19.   Which of the following is an advantage when using single sideband as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands?
     A. Very high fidelity voice modulation
     B. Less bandwidth used and greater power efficiency
     C. Ease of tuning on receive and immunity to impulse noise
     D. Less subject to interference from atmospheric static crashes


  20.   What is a band plan, beyond the privileges established by the FCC?
     A voluntary guideline for using different modes or activities within an amateur band
     A mandated list of operating schedules
     A list of scheduled net frequencies
     A plan devised by a club to indicate frequency band usage

    G2B10     [97.407(b)]

  21.   When may the FCC restrict normal frequency operations of amateur stations participating in RACES?
     A. When they declare a temporary state of communication emergency
     B. When they seize your equipment for use in disaster communications
     C. Only when all amateur stations are instructed to stop transmitting
     D. When the President's War Emergency Powers have been invoked


  22.   Which Q signal indicates that you are changing frequency?


  23.   How are analog SSTV images typically transmitted on the HF bands?
     A. Video is converted to equivalent Baudot representation
     B. Video is converted to equivalent ASCII representation
     C. Varying tone frequencies representing the video are transmitted using PSK
     D. Varying tone frequencies representing the video are transmitted using single sideband


  24.   Which of the following describes full break-in telegraphy (QSK)?
     A. Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign BK
     B. Automatic keyers are used to send Morse code instead of hand keys
     C. An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission
     D. Transmitting stations can receive between code characters and elements


  25.   What is meant by the term "NCS" used in net operation?
     Nominal Control System
     Net Control Station
     National Communications Standard
     Normal Communications Syntax


  26.   From which of the following bands is amateur radio contesting generally excluded?
     A. 30 m
     B. 6 m
     C. 2 m
     D. 33 cm


  27.   What is the Amateur Auxiliary to the FCC?
     A. Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for rules violations
     B. Amateur volunteers who conduct amateur licensing examinations
     C. Amateur volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for amateur VHF repeaters
     D. Amateur volunteers who use their station equipment to help civil defense organizations in times of emergency


  28.   Which of the following data are used by the APRS network to communicate your location?
     A. Polar coordinates
     B. Time and frequency
     C. Radio direction finding spectrum analysis
     D. Latitude and longitude


  29.   Which of the following describes a waterfall display?
     A. Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is vertical, time is intensity
     B. Frequency is vertical, signal strength is intensity, time is horizontal
     C. Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is intensity, time is vertical
     D. Frequency is vertical, signal strength is horizontal, time is intensity


  30.   Which type of control is used by stations using the Automatic Link Enable (ALE) protocol?
     A. Local
     B. Remote
     C. Automatic
     D. ALE can use any type of control


  31.   What is the significance of the sunspot number with regard to HF propagation?
     A. Higher sunspot numbers generally indicate a greater probability of good propagation at higher frequencies
     B. Lower sunspot numbers generally indicate greater probability of sporadic E propagation
     C. A zero sunspot number indicate radio propagation is not possible on any band
     D. All of these choices are correct.


  32.   Which of the following is required for microwave propagation via rain scatter?
     A. Rain droplets must be electrically charged
     B. Rain droplets must be within the E layer
     C. The rain must be within radio range of both stations
     D. All of these choices are correct


  33.   What weather condition would decrease range at microwave frequencies?
     High winds
     Low barometric pressure
     Colder temperatures


  34.   Which of the following is a good indicator of the possibility of sky-wave propagation on the 6-meter band?
     A. Short skip sky-wave propagation on the 10-meter band
     B. Long skip sky-wave propagation on the 10-meter band
     C. Severe attenuation of signals on the 10-meter band
     D. Long delayed echoes on the 10-meter band


  35.   Which of the following could account for hearing an echo on the received signal of a distant station?
     A. High D layer absorption
     B. Meteor scatter
     C. Transmit frequency is higher than the MUF
     D. Receipt of a signal by more than one path


  36.   What is the approximate velocity of a radio wave as it travels through free space?
     150,000 kilometers per second
     300,000,000 meters per second
     300,000,000 miles per hour
     150,000 miles per hour


  37.   Why is the F2 region mainly responsible for the longest distance radio wave propagation?
     A. Because it is the densest ionospheric layer
     B. Because it does not absorb radio waves as much as other ionospheric regions
     C. Because it is the highest ionospheric region
     D. All of these choices are correct


  38.   What band is best suited for communicating via meteor scatter?
     10 meter band
     6 meter band
     2 meter band
     70 centimeter band


  39.   How does the intensity of an X3 flare compare to that of an X2 flare?
     A. 10 percent greater
     B. 50 percent greater
     C. Twice as great
     D. Four times as great


  40.   Which of the following conductors provides the lowest impedance to RF signals?
     Round stranded wire
     Round copper-clad steel wire
     Twisted-pair cable
     Flat strap


  41.   Which of the following instrument would be best for measuring the SWR of a beam antenna?
     A. A spectrum analyzer
     B. A Q meter
     C. An ohmmeter
     D. An antenna analyzer


  42.   Why is a time delay sometimes included in a transmitter keying circuit?
     A. To prevent stations from interfering with one another
     B. To allow the transmitter power regulators to charge properly
     C. To allow time for transmit-receive changeover operations to complete properly before RF output is allowed
     D. To allow time for a warning signal to be sent to other stations


  43.   Why is high input impedance desirable for a voltmeter?
     A. It improves the frequency response
     B. It decreases battery consumption in the meter
     C. It improves the resolution of the readings
     D. It decreases the loading on circuits being measured


  44.   What is the advantage of having multiple receive bandwidth choices on a multimode transceiver?
     Permits monitoring several modes at once
     Permits noise or interference reduction by selecting a bandwidth matching the mode
     Increases the number of frequencies that can be stored in memory
     Increases the amount of offset between receive and transmit frequencies


  45.   Which of the following is a characteristic of a good DC voltmeter?
     A. High reluctance input
     B. Low reluctance input
     C. High impedance input
     D. Low impedance input


  46.   Which of the following would reduce RF interference caused by common-mode current on an audio cable?
     A. Placing a ferrite choke around the cable
     B. Adding series capacitors to the conductors
     C. Adding shunt inductors to the conductors
     D. Adding an additional insulating jacket to the cable


  47.   Which of the following is a desirable amount of selectivity for an amateur RTTY HF receiver?
     A. 100 Hz
     B. 300 Hz
     C. 6000 Hz
     D. 2400 Hz


  48.   What is meant by the blocking dynamic range of a receiver?
     A. The difference in dB between the noise floor and the level of an incoming signal which will cause 1 dB of gain compression
     B. The minimum difference in dB between the levels of two FM signals which will cause one signal to block the other
     C. The difference in dB between the noise floor and the third order intercept point
     D. The minimum difference in dB between two signals which produce third order intermodulation products greater than the noise floor


  49.   How close to the lower edge of the 40-meter General Class phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?
     A. At least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment
     B. At least 3 kHz below the edge of the segment
     C. Your displayed carrier frequency may be set at the edge of the segment
     D. At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment


  50.   What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full size antenna?
     A. Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals
     B. Short antennas can only receive circularly polarized signals
     C. Operating bandwidth may be very limited
     D. Harmonic radiation may increase


  51.   What is a major cause of atmospheric static?
     A. Solar radio frequency emissions
     B. Thunderstorms
     C. Geomagnetic storms
     D. Meteor showers


  52.   What is the magnitude of the impedance of a series RLC circuit at resonance?
     A. High, as compared to the circuit resistance
     B. Approximately equal to capacitive reactance
     C. Approximately equal to inductive reactance
     D. Approximately equal to circuit resistance


  53.   Which of the following describes one method of impedance matching between two AC circuits?
     A. Insert an LC network between the two circuits
     B. Reduce the power output of the first circuit
     C. Increase the power output of the first circuit
     D. Insert a circulator between the two circuits


  54.   In which type of circuit is voltage the same across all components?


  55.   What is susceptance?
     A. The magnetic impedance of a circuit
     B. The ratio of magnetic field to electric field
     C. The inverse of reactance
     D. A measure of the efficiency of a transformer


  56.   If a frequency display shows a reading of 2425 MHz, what frequency is that in GHz?
     0.002425 GHz
     24.25 GHz
     2.425 GHz
     2425 GHz


  57.   What is the output PEP from a transmitter if an oscilloscope measures 500 volts peak-to-peak across a 50 ohm resistive load connected to the transmitter output?
     A. 8.75 watts
     B. 625 watts
     C. 2500 watts
     D. 5000 watts


  58.   A radio wave is made up of what type of energy?


  59.   What is the inductance of three 10 millihenry inductors connected in parallel?
     A. 0.30 henrys
     B. 3.3 henrys
     C. 3.3 millihenrys
     D. 30 millihenrys


  60.   When using rectangular coordinates to graph the impedance of a circuit, what does the vertical axis represent?
     A. Resistive component
     B. Reactive component
     C. The sum of the reactive and resistive components
     D. The difference between the resistive and reactive components


  61.   What is the power factor of an R-L circuit having a 60 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current?
     A. 1.414
     B. 0.866
     C. 0.5
     D. 1.73


  62.   What happens to current at the junction of two components in series?
     It divides equally between them
     It is unchanged
     It divides based on the on the value of the components
     The current in the second component is zero


  63.   Which of the following semiconductor materials contains excess free electrons?
     A. N-type
     B. P-type
     C. Bipolar
     D. Insulated gate


  64.   What electrical component usually is constructed as a coil of wire?


  65.   What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?
     A. Large values of inductance may be obtained
     B. The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies
     C. Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core
     D. All of these choices are correct


  66.   How is the cathode lead of a semiconductor diode often marked on the package?
     With the word "cathode"
     With a stripe
     With the letter C
     With the letter K


  67.   Which of the following describes a type of semiconductor diode?
     A. Metal-semiconductor junction
     B. Electrolytic rectifier
     C. CMOS-field effect
     D. Thermionic emission diode


  68.   What is the main reason to use keyed connectors instead of non-keyed types?
     A. Prevention of use by unauthorized persons
     B. Reduced chance of incorrect mating
     C. Higher current carrying capacity
     D. All of these choices are correct


  69.   What is component 2 in figure T1?
     Indicator lamp


  70.   Why do CMOS digital integrated circuits have high immunity to noise on the input signal or power supply?
     A. Larger bypass capacitors are used in CMOS circuit design
     B. The input switching threshold is about two times the power supply voltage
     C. The input switching threshold is about one-half the power supply voltage
     D. Input signals are stronger


  71.   What is the equivalent circuit of a quartz crystal?
     A. Motional capacitance, motional inductance, and loss resistance in series, all in parallel with a shunt capacitor representing electrode and stray capacitance
     B. Motional capacitance, motional inductance, loss resistance, and a capacitor representing electrode and stray capacitance all in parallel
     C. Motional capacitance, motional inductance, loss resistance, and a capacitor representing electrode and stray capacitance all in series
     D. Motional inductance and loss resistance in series, paralleled with motional capacitance and a capacitor representing electrode and stray capacitance


  72.   Which of the following is commonly used as a visual indicator?
     Zener diode
     Bipolar transistor


  73.   Which is the most common input and output impedance of circuits that use MMICs?
     A. 50 ohms
     B. 300 ohms
     C. 450 ohms
     D. 10 ohms


  74.   What is a solid state relay?
     A. A relay using transistors to drive the relay coil
     B. A device that uses semiconductors to implement the functions of an electromechanical relay
     C. A mechanical relay that latches in the on or off state each time it is pulsed
     D. A passive delay line


  75.   Which of the following is used to convert a radio signal from one frequency to another?
     Phase splitter


  76.   What logical operation does a NAND gate perform?
     A. It produces logic "0" at its output only when all inputs are logic "0"
     B. It produces logic "1" at its output only when all inputs are logic "1"
     C. It produces logic "0" at its output if some but not all inputs are logic "1"
     D. It produces logic "0" at its output only when all inputs are logic "1"


  77.   Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a field effect transistor?
     A. Symbol 2
     B. Symbol 5
     C. Symbol 1
     D. Symbol 4


  78.   What are the basic components of virtually all sine wave oscillators?
     A. An amplifier and a divider
     B. A frequency multiplier and a mixer
     C. A circulator and a filter operating in a feed-forward loop
     D. A filter and an amplifier operating in a feedback loop


  79.   Which of the following is a likely result when a Class C amplifier is used to amplify a single-sideband phone signal?
     A. Reduced intermodulation products
     B. Increased overall intelligibility
     C. Signal inversion
     D. Signal distortion and excessive bandwidth


  80.   What should you do if something in a neighbor's home is causing harmful interference to your amateur station?
     Work with your neighbor to identify the offending device
     Politely inform your neighbor about the rules that prohibit the use of devices that cause interference
     Check your station and make sure it meets the standards of good amateur practice
     All of these choices are correct


  81.   What circuit is used to combine signals from the IF amplifier and BFO and send the result to the AF amplifier in some single sideband receivers?
     A. RF oscillator
     B. IF filter
     C. Balanced modulator
     D. Product detector


  82.   Which of the following is the most common cause for failure of coaxial cables?
     Moisture contamination
     Gamma rays
     The velocity factor exceeds 1.0


  83.   What is a Jones filter as used as part of an HF receiver IF stage?
     A. An automatic notch filter
     B. A variable bandwidth crystal lattice filter
     C. A special filter that emphasizes image responses
     D. A filter that removes impulse noise


  84.   What device is typically used as a stable reference voltage in a linear voltage regulator?
     A. A Zener diode
     B. A tunnel diode
     C. An SCR
     D. A varactor diode


  85.   Which of the following precautions should be taken when measuring circuit resistance with an ohmmeter?
     Ensure that the applied voltages are correct
     Ensure that the circuit is not powered
     Ensure that the circuit is grounded
     Ensure that the circuit is operating at the correct frequency


  86.   Which of the following can be used to generate FM phone emissions?
     A. A balanced modulator on the audio amplifier
     B. A reactance modulator on the oscillator
     C. A reactance modulator on the final amplifier
     D. A balanced modulator on the oscillator


  87.   What aspect of receiver analog-to-digital conversion determines the maximum receive bandwidth of a Direct Digital Conversion SDR?
     A. Sample rate
     B. Sample width in bits
     C. Sample clock phase noise
     D. Processor latency


  88.   How can unwanted ringing and audio instability be prevented in a multi-section op-amp RC audio filter circuit?
     A. Restrict both gain and Q
     B. Restrict gain but increase Q
     C. Restrict Q but increase gain
     D. Increase both gain and Q


  89.   Which of the following must be done to insure that a crystal oscillator provides the frequency specified by the crystal manufacturer?
     A. Provide the crystal with a specified parallel inductance
     B. Provide the crystal with a specified parallel capacitance
     C. Bias the crystal at a specified voltage
     D. Bias the crystal at a specified current


  90.   Which type of modulation is most commonly used for VHF and UHF voice repeaters?


  91.   What type of modulation varies the instantaneous power level of the RF signal?
     A. Frequency shift keying
     B. Phase modulation
     C. Frequency modulation
     D. Amplitude modulation


  92.   What type of information can be conveyed using digital waveforms?
     A. Human speech
     B. Video signals
     C. Data
     D. All of these choices are correct


  93.   What is the term for the ratio between the frequency deviation of an RF carrier wave and the modulating frequency of its corresponding FM-phone signal?
     A. FM compressibility
     B. Quieting index
     C. Percentage of modulation
     D. Modulation index


  94.   Which of the following are provided by satellite tracking programs?
     Maps showing the real-time position of the satellite track over the earth
     The time, azimuth, and elevation of the start, maximum altitude, and end of a pass
     The apparent frequency of the satellite transmission, including effects of Doppler shift
     All of these choices are correct


  95.   What is the stage in a VHF FM transmitter that generates a harmonic of a lower frequency signal to reach the desired operating frequency?
     A. Mixer
     B. Reactance modulator
     C. Pre-emphasis network
     D. Multiplier


  96.   In the PACTOR protocol, what is meant by an NAK response to a transmitted packet?
     A. The receiver is requesting the packet be retransmitted
     B. The receiver is reporting the packet was received without error
     C. The receiver is busy decoding the packet
     D. The entire file has been received correctly


  97.   What is the necessary bandwidth of a 170-hertz shift, 300-baud ASCII transmission?
     A. 0.1 Hz
     B. 0.3 kHz
     C. 0.5 kHz
     D. 1.0 kHz


  98.   How is access to some IRLP nodes accomplished?
     By obtaining a password that is sent via voice to the node
     By using DTMF signals
     By entering the proper internet password
     By using CTCSS tone codes


  99.   How does the spread spectrum technique of frequency hopping work?
     A. If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to change frequencies
     B. If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to wait until the frequency is clear
     C. A pseudo-random binary bit stream is used to shift the phase of an RF carrier very rapidly in a particular sequence
     D. The frequency of the transmitted signal is changed very rapidly according to a particular sequence also used by the receiving station


  100.   Which of the following is an application of APRS (Automatic Packet Reporting System)?
     Providing real-time tactical digital communications in conjunction with a map showing the locations of stations
     Showing automatically the number of packets transmitted via PACTOR during a specific time interval
     Providing voice over internet connection between repeaters
     Providing information on the number of stations signed into a repeater


  101.   What is a beam antenna?
     An antenna built from aluminum I-beams
     An omnidirectional antenna invented by Clarence Beam
     An antenna that concentrates signals in one direction
     An antenna that reverses the phase of received signals


  102.   What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having 200 ohm impedance?
     A. 4:1
     B. 1:4
     C. 2:1
     D. 1:2


  103.   What term describes station output, taking into account all gains and losses?
     A. Power factor
     B. Half-power bandwidth
     C. Effective radiated power
     D. Apparent power


  104.   How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole antenna change as the antenna is lowered below 1/4 wave above ground?
     A. It steadily increases
     B. It steadily decreases
     C. It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength above ground
     D. It is unaffected by the height above ground


  105.   How can the approximate beam-width in a given plane of a directional antenna be determined?
     A. Note the two points where the signal strength of the antenna is 3 dB less than maximum and compute the angular difference
     B. Measure the ratio of the signal strengths of the radiated power lobes from the front and rear of the antenna
     C. Draw two imaginary lines through the ends of the elements and measure the angle between the lines
     D. Measure the ratio of the signal strengths of the radiated power lobes from the front and side of the antenna


  106.   Why should coax connectors exposed to the weather be sealed against water intrusion?
     To prevent an increase in feed line loss
     To prevent interference to telephones
     To keep the jacket from becoming loose
     All of these choices are correct


  107.   What is a folded dipole antenna?
     A. A dipole one-quarter wavelength long
     B. A type of ground-plane antenna
     C. A dipole consisting of one wavelength of wire forming a very thin loop
     D. A dipole configured to provide forward gain


  108.   Which of the following is an advantage of using a gamma match for impedance matching of a Yagi antenna to 50 ohm coax feed line?
     A. It does not require that the elements be insulated from the boom
     B. It does not require any inductors or capacitors
     C. It is useful for matching multiband antennas
     D. All of these choices are correct


  109.   What is a disadvantage of using a multiband trapped antenna?
     A. It might radiate harmonics
     B. It radiates the harmonics and fundamental equally well
     C. It is too sharply directional at lower frequencies
     D. It must be neutralized


  110.   Why is a Beverage antenna not used for transmitting?
     A. Its impedance is too low for effective matching
     B. It has high losses compared to other types of antennas
     C. It has poor directivity
     D. All of these choices are correct


  111.   Which of these matching systems is an effective method of connecting a 50 ohm coaxial cable feed line to a grounded tower so it can be used as a vertical antenna?
     A. Double-bazooka match
     B. Hairpin match
     C. Gamma match
     D. All of these choices are correct


  112.   What is the term for the ratio of the actual speed at which a signal travels through a transmission line to the speed of light in a vacuum?
     A. Velocity factor
     B. Characteristic impedance
     C. Surge impedance
     D. Standing wave ratio


  113.   What type of chart is shown in Figure E9-3?
     A. Smith chart
     B. Free space radiation directivity chart
     C. Elevation angle radiation pattern chart
     D. Azimuth angle radiation pattern chart


  114.   Which is generally true for low band (160 meter and 80 meter) receiving antennas?
     A. Atmospheric noise is so high that gain over a dipole is not important
     B. They must be erected at least 1/2 wavelength above the ground to attain good directivity
     C. Low loss coax transmission line is essential for good performance
     D. All of these choices are correct


  115.   What health hazard is presented by electrical current flowing through the body?
     It may cause injury by heating tissue
     It may disrupt the electrical functions of cells
     It may cause involuntary muscle contractions
     All of these choices are correct


  116.   What must you do if an evaluation of your station shows RF energy radiated from your station exceeds permissible limits?
     A. Take action to prevent human exposure to the excessive RF fields
     B. File an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS-97) with the FCC
     C. Secure written permission from your neighbors to operate above the controlled MPE limits
     D. All of these choices are correct


  117.   Why are there separate electric (E) and magnetic (H) field MPE limits?
     A. The body reacts to electromagnetic radiation from both the E and H fields
     B. Ground reflections and scattering make the field impedance vary with location
     C. E field and H field radiation intensity peaks can occur at different locations
     D. All of these choices are correct


  118.   Which size of fuse or circuit breaker would be appropriate to use with a circuit that uses AWG number 14 wiring?
     A. 100 amperes
     B. 60 amperes
     C. 30 amperes
     D. 15 amperes


  119.   What is the minimum safe distance from a power line to allow when installing an antenna?
     Half the width of your property
     The height of the power line above ground
     1/2 wavelength at the operating frequency
     Enough so that if the antenna falls unexpectedly, no part of it can come closer than 10 feet to the power wires


  120.   Which of the following frequencies has the lowest value for Maximum Permissible Exposure limit?
     3.5 MHz
     50 MHz
     440 MHz
     1296 MHz