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About Practice Exam -

    E1A04     [97.301, 97.305]

  1.   With your transceiver displaying the carrier frequency of phone signals, you hear a DX station calling CQ on 3.601 MHz LSB. Is it legal to return the call using lower sideband on the same frequency?
     A. Yes, because the DX station initiated the contact
     B. Yes, because the displayed frequency is within the 75 meter phone band segment
     C. No, the sideband will extend beyond the edge of the phone band segment
     D. No, U.S. stations are not permitted to use phone emissions below 3.610 MHz

    T1A06     [97.3(a)(9)]

  2.   What is the FCC Part 97 definition of a "beacon"?
     A government transmitter marking the amateur radio band edges
     A bulletin sent by the FCC to announce a national emergency
     An amateur station transmitting communications for the purposes of observing propagation or related experimental activities
     A continuous transmission of weather information authorized in the amateur bands by the National Weather Service

    G1A11     [97.301]

  3.   When General Class licensees are not permitted to use the entire voice portion of a particular band, which portion of the voice segment is generally available to them?
     A. The lower frequency end
     B. The upper frequency end
     C. The lower frequency end on frequencies below 7.3 MHz and the upper end on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
     D. The upper frequency end on frequencies below 7.3 MHz and the lower end on frequencies above 14.150 MHz

    E1B04     [97.13, 1.1305-1.1319]

  4.   What must be done before placing an amateur station within an officially designated wilderness area or wildlife preserve, or an area listed in the National Register of Historical Places?
     A. A proposal must be submitted to the National Park Service
     B. A letter of intent must be filed with the National Audubon Society
     C. An Environmental Assessment must be submitted to the FCC
     D. A form FSD-15 must be submitted to the Department of the Interior

    G1B10     [97.203(c)]

  5.   What is the power limit for beacon stations?
     A. 10 watts PEP output
     B. 20 watts PEP output
     C. 100 watts PEP output
     D. 200 watts PEP output

    T1B10     [97.301(e), 97.305(c)]

  6.   Which of the following HF bands have frequencies available to the Technician class operator for RTTY and data transmissions?
     10 meter, 12 meter, 17 meter, and 40 meter bands
     10 meter, 15 meter, 40 meter, and 80 meter bands
     30 meter band only
     10 meter band only

    T1C03     [97.117]

  7.   What types of international communications is an FCC-licensed amateur radio station permitted to make?
     Communications incidental to the purposes of the Amateur Radio Service and remarks of a personal character
     Communications incidental to conducting business or remarks of a personal nature
     Only communications incidental to contest exchanges, all other communications are prohibited
     Any communications that would be permitted by an international broadcast station

    G1C05     [97.313(c)(2)]

  8.   Which of the following is a limitation on transmitter power on the 28 MHz band for a General Class control operator?
     A. 100 watts PEP output
     B. 1000 watts PEP output
     C. 1500 watts PEP output
     D. 2000 watts PEP output


  9.   Which of the following is required in order to operate in accordance with CEPT rules in foreign countries where permitted?
     A. You must identify in the official language of the country in which you are operating
     B. The U.S. embassy must approve of your operation
     C. You must bring a copy of FCC Public Notice DA 11-221
     D. You must append "/CEPT" to your call sign

    G1D03     [97.9(b)]

  10.   On which of the following band segments may you operate if you are a Technician Class operator and have a CSCE for General Class privileges?
     A. Only the Technician band segments until your upgrade is posted in the FCC database
     B. Only on the Technician band segments until your license arrives in the mail
     C. On any General or Technician Class band segment
     D. On any General or Technician Class band segment except 30-meters and 60-meters

    E1D06     [97.207]

  11.   Which of the following is a requirement of a space station?
     A. The space station must be capable of terminating transmissions by telecommand when directed by the FCC
     B. The space station must cease all transmissions after 5 years
     C. The space station must be capable of changing its orbit whenever such a change is ordered by NASA
     D. All of these choices are correct

    T1D10     [97.3(a)(10)]

  12.   What is the meaning of the term "broadcasting" in the FCC rules for the Amateur Radio Service?
     Two-way transmissions by amateur stations
     Transmission of music
     Transmission of messages directed only to amateur operators
     Transmissions intended for reception by the general public

    E1E02     [97.523]

  13.   Where are the questions for all written U.S. amateur license examinations listed?
     A. In FCC Part 97
     B. In a question pool maintained by the FCC
     C. In a question pool maintained by all the VECs
     D. In the appropriate FCC Report and Order

    T1E02     [97.301, 97.207(c)]

  14.   Who may be the control operator of a station communicating through an amateur satellite or space station?
     Only an Amateur Extra Class operator
     A General class or higher licensee who has a satellite operator certification
     Only an Amateur Extra Class operator who is also an AMSAT member
     Any amateur whose license privileges allow them to transmit on the satellite uplink frequency

    G1E08     [97.115(a)(b)]

  15.   Which of the following is a requirement for a non-licensed person to communicate with a foreign Amateur Radio station from a station with an FCC-granted license at which an FCC licensed control operator is present?
     A. Information must be exchanged in English
     B. The foreign amateur station must be in a country with which the United States has a third party agreement
     C. The control operator must have at least a General Class license
     D. All of these choices are correct

    E1F06     [1.931]

  16.   Under what circumstances might the FCC issue a Special Temporary Authority (STA) to an amateur station?
     A. To provide for experimental amateur communications
     B. To allow regular operation on Land Mobile channels
     C. To provide additional spectrum for personal use
     D. To provide temporary operation while awaiting normal licensing

    T1F11     [97.5(b)(2)]

  17.   Which of the following is a requirement for the issuance of a club station license grant?
     The trustee must have an Amateur Extra class operator license grant
     The club must have at least four members
     The club must be registered with the American Radio Relay League
     All of these choices are correct


  18.   What is the direction of an ascending pass for an amateur satellite?
     A. From west to east
     B. From east to west
     C. From south to north
     D. From north to south


  19.   Which of the following is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands?
     A. Upper sideband
     B. Lower sideband
     C. Vestigial sideband
     D. Double sideband


  20.   What is meant by "repeater offset?"
     The difference between a repeater's transmit frequency and its receive frequency
     The repeater has a time delay to prevent interference
     The repeater station identification is done on a separate frequency
     The number of simultaneous transmit frequencies used by a repeater


  21.   How many horizontal lines make up a fast-scan (NTSC) television frame?
     A. 30
     B. 60
     C. 525
     D. 1080


  22.   What is a practical way to avoid harmful interference on an apparently clear frequency before calling CQ on CW or phone?
     A. Send "QRL?" on CW, followed by your call sign; or, if using phone, ask if the frequency is in use, followed by your call sign
     B. Listen for 2 minutes before calling CQ
     C. Send the letter "V" in Morse code several times and listen for a response or say "test" several times and listen for a response
     D. Send "QSY" on CW or if using phone, announce "the frequency is in use", then give your call and listen for a response


  23.   How can you join a digital repeater's "talk group"?
     Register your radio with the local FCC office
     Join the repeater owner's club
     Program your radio with the group's ID or code
     Sign your call after the courtesy tone


  24.   What does the Q signal "QRL?" mean?
     A. "Will you keep the frequency clear?"
     B. "Are you operating full break-in" or "Can you operate full break-in?"
     C. "Are you listening only for a specific station?"
     D. "Are you busy?", or "Is this frequency in use?"


  25.   What is the function of a DX QSL Manager?
     A. To allocate frequencies for DXpeditions
     B. To handle the receiving and sending of confirmation cards for a DX station
     C. To run a net to allow many stations to contact a rare DX station
     D. To relay calls to and from a DX station


  26.   What is meant by the term "check," in reference to a formal traffic message?
     The number of words or word equivalents in the text portion of the message
     The value of a money order attached to the message
     A list of stations that have relayed the message
     A box on the message form that indicates that the message was received and/or relayed


  27.   What is QRP operation?
     A. Remote piloted model control
     B. Low power transmit operation
     C. Transmission using Quick Response Protocol
     D. Traffic relay procedure net operation


  28.   What type of modulation is used for JT65 contacts?
     A. Multi-tone AFSK
     B. PSK
     C. RTTY
     D. IEEE 802.11


  29.   What segment of the 80-meter band is most commonly used for digital transmissions?
     A. 3570 - 3600 kHz
     B. 3500 - 3525 kHz
     C. 3700 - 3750 kHz
     D. 3775 - 3825 kHz


  30.   Which of the following HF digital modes uses variable-length coding for bandwidth efficiency?
     A. RTTY
     B. PACTOR
     C. MT63
     D. PSK31


  31.   What effect does a Sudden Ionospheric Disturbance have on the daytime ionospheric propagation of HF radio waves?
     A. It enhances propagation on all HF frequencies
     B. It disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on higher frequencies
     C. It disrupts communications via satellite more than direct communications
     D. None, because only areas on the night side of the Earth are affected


  32.   Why might the range of VHF and UHF signals be greater in the winter?
     Less ionospheric absorption
     Less absorption by vegetation
     Less solar activity
     Less tropospheric absorption


  33.   What is the cause of auroral activity?
     A. The interaction in the F2 layer between the solar wind and the Van Allen belt
     B. A low sunspot level combined with tropospheric ducting
     C. The interaction in the E layer of charged particles from the Sun with the Earth's magnetic field
     D. Meteor showers concentrated in the extreme northern and southern latitudes


  34.   Which of the following applies when selecting a frequency for lowest attenuation when transmitting on HF?
     A. Select a frequency just below the MUF
     B. Select a frequency just above the LUF
     C. Select a frequency just below the critical frequency
     D. Select a frequency just above the critical frequency


  35.   Which of the following could account for hearing an echo on the received signal of a distant station?
     A. High D layer absorption
     B. Meteor scatter
     C. Transmit frequency is higher than the MUF
     D. Receipt of a signal by more than one path


  36.   What property of radio waves is often used to identify the different frequency bands?
     The approximate wavelength
     The magnetic intensity of waves
     The time it takes for waves to travel one mile
     The voltage standing wave ratio of waves


  37.   Which of the following signal paths is most likely to experience high levels of absorption when the A index or K index is elevated?
     A. Transequatorial propagation
     B. Polar paths
     C. Sporadic-E
     D. NVIS


  38.   What does the term "critical angle" mean as used in radio wave propagation?
     A. The long path azimuth of a distant station
     B. The short path azimuth of a distant station
     C. The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to the Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
     D. The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to the Earth under specific ionospheric conditions


  39.   Which of the following bands may provide long distance communications during the peak of the sunspot cycle?
     6 or 10 meter band
     23 centimeter band
     70 centimeters or 1.25 meter band
     All of these choices are correct


  40.   What must be considered to determine the minimum current capacity needed for a transceiver power supply?
     Efficiency of the transmitter at full power output
     Receiver and control circuit power
     Power supply regulation and heat dissipation
     All of these choices are correct


  41.   Which of the following instrument would be best for measuring the SWR of a beam antenna?
     A. A spectrum analyzer
     B. A Q meter
     C. An ohmmeter
     D. An antenna analyzer


  42.   Which of the following is a common use for the dual VFO feature on a transceiver?
     A. To allow transmitting on two frequencies at once
     B. To permit full duplex operation, that is transmitting and receiving at the same time
     C. To permit monitoring of two different frequencies
     D. To facilitate computer interface


  43.   Which of the following can be used to enter the operating frequency on a modern transceiver?
     The keypad or VFO knob
     The CTCSS or DTMF encoder
     The Automatic Frequency Control
     All of these choices are correct


  44.   What is an advantage of using a bridge circuit to measure impedance?
     A. It provides an excellent match under all conditions
     B. It is relatively immune to drift in the signal generator source
     C. It is very precise in obtaining a signal null
     D. It can display results directly in Smith chart format


  45.   What is an instance in which the use of an instrument with analog readout may be preferred over an instrument with a digital readout?
     A. When testing logic circuits
     B. When high precision is desired
     C. When measuring the frequency of an oscillator
     D. When adjusting tuned circuits


  46.   What sound is heard from an audio device or telephone if there is interference from a nearby single sideband phone transmitter?
     A. A steady hum whenever the transmitter is on the air
     B. On-and-off humming or clicking
     C. Distorted speech
     D. Clearly audible speech


  47.   What transmit frequency might generate an image response signal in a receiver tuned to 14.300 MHz and which uses a 455 kHz IF frequency?
     A. 13.845 MHz
     B. 14.755 MHz
     C. 14.445 MHz
     D. 15.210 MHz


  48.   Which describes the most significant effect of an off-frequency signal when it is causing cross-modulation interference to a desired signal?
     A. A large increase in background noise
     B. A reduction in apparent signal strength
     C. The desired signal can no longer be heard
     D. The off-frequency unwanted signal is heard in addition to the desired signal


  49.   How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9?
     A. Approximately 1.5 times
     B. Approximately 2 times
     C. Approximately 4 times
     D. Approximately 8 times


  50.   Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100 watt HF mobile installation?
     A. To the battery using heavy gauge wire
     B. To the alternator or generator using heavy gauge wire
     C. To the battery using resistor wire
     D. To the alternator or generator using resistor wire


  51.   What undesirable effect can occur when using an IF noise blanker?
     A. Received audio in the speech range might have an echo effect
     B. The audio frequency bandwidth of the received signal might be compressed
     C. Nearby signals may appear to be excessively wide even if they meet emission standards
     D. FM signals can no longer be demodulated


  52.   Which of the following causes opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor?
     A. Conductance
     B. Reluctance
     C. Admittance
     D. Reactance


  53.   How much voltage does a mobile transceiver typically require?
     About 12 volts
     About 30 volts
     About 120 volts
     About 240 volts


  54.   What is the resonant frequency of a series RLC circuit if R is 22 ohms, L is 50 microhenrys and C is 40 picofarads?
     A. 44.72 MHz
     B. 22.36 MHz
     C. 3.56 MHz
     D. 1.78 MHz


  55.   How many milliamperes is 1.5 amperes?
     15 milliamperes
     150 milliamperes
     1500 milliamperes
     15,000 milliamperes


  56.   What is the relationship between the current through an inductor and the voltage across an inductor?
     A. Voltage leads current by 90 degrees
     B. Current leads voltage by 90 degrees
     C. Voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
     D. Voltage and current are in phase


  57.   What percentage of power loss would result from a transmission line loss of 1 dB?
     A. 10.9 percent
     B. 12.2 percent
     C. 20.5 percent
     D. 25.9 percent


  58.   Which of the following represents a capacitive reactance in rectangular notation?
     A. –jX
     B. +jX
     C. X
     D. Omega


  59.   What is the ability to store energy in a magnetic field called?


  60.   What is the inductance of a 20 millihenry inductor connected in series with a 50 millihenry inductor?
     A. 0.07 millihenrys
     B. 14.3 millihenrys
     C. 70 millihenrys
     D. 1000 millihenrys


  61.   What formula is used to calculate resistance in a circuit?
     Resistance (R) equals voltage (E) multiplied by current (I)
     Resistance (R) equals voltage (E) divided by current (I)
     Resistance (R) equals voltage (E) added to current (I)
     Resistance (R) equals voltage (E) minus current (I)


  62.   How can the true power be determined in an AC circuit where the voltage and current are out of phase?
     A. By multiplying the apparent power times the power factor
     B. By dividing the reactive power by the power factor
     C. By dividing the apparent power by the power factor
     D. By multiplying the reactive power times the power factor


  63.   What is an advantage of the low internal resistance of nickel-cadmium batteries?
     A. Long life
     B. High discharge current
     C. High voltage
     D. Rapid recharge


  64.   Why does a PN-junction diode not conduct current when reverse biased?
     A. Only P-type semiconductor material can conduct current
     B. Only N-type semiconductor material can conduct current
     C. Holes in P-type material and electrons in the N-type material are separated by the applied voltage, widening the depletion region
     D. Excess holes in P-type material combine with the electrons in N-type material, converting the entire diode into an insulator


  65.   What type of electrical component consists of two or more conductive surfaces separated by an insulator?


  66.   Which of the following components can consist of three layers of semiconductor material?
     Pentagrid converter


  67.   What two devices in an Amateur Radio station might be connected using a USB interface?
     A. Computer and transceiver
     B. Microphone and transceiver
     C. Amplifier and antenna
     D. Power supply and amplifier


  68.   What is used to control the attenuation of RF signals by a PIN diode?
     A. Forward DC bias current
     B. A sub-harmonic pump signal
     C. Reverse voltage larger than the RF signal
     D. Capacitance of an RF coupling capacitor


  69.   What is component 4 in figure T1?
     Ground symbol


  70.   What is a Programmable Logic Device (PLD)?
     A. A device to control industrial equipment
     B. A programmable collection of logic gates and circuits in a single integrated circuit
     C. Programmable equipment used for testing digital logic integrated circuits
     D. An algorithm for simulating logic functions during circuit design


  71.   Which of the following is an aspect of the piezoelectric effect?
     A. Mechanical deformation of material by the application of a voltage
     B. Mechanical deformation of material by the application of a magnetic field
     C. Generation of electrical energy in the presence of light
     D. Increased conductivity in the presence of light


  72.   What type of switch is represented by component 3 in figure T2?
     Single-pole single-throw
     Single-pole double-throw
     Double-pole single-throw
     Double-pole double-throw


  73.   Why are high-power RF amplifier ICs and transistors sometimes mounted in ceramic packages?
     A. High-voltage insulating ability
     B. Better dissipation of heat
     C. Enhanced sensitivity to light
     D. To provide a low-pass frequency response


  74.   What is a liquid crystal display (LCD)?
     A. A modern replacement for a quartz crystal oscillator which displays its fundamental frequency
     B. A display utilizing a crystalline liquid and polarizing filters which becomes opaque when voltage is applied
     C. A frequency-determining unit for a transmitter or receiver
     D. A display that uses a glowing liquid to remain brightly lit in dim light


  75.   What is the function of a decade counter digital IC?
     A. It produces one output pulse for every ten input pulses
     B. It decodes a decimal number for display on a seven segment LED display
     C. It produces ten output pulses for every input pulse
     D. It adds two decimal numbers together


  76.   Which of the following is used to convert a radio signal from one frequency to another?
     Phase splitter


  77.   Which of the following is an advantage of a switchmode power supply as compared to a linear power supply?
     A. Faster switching time makes higher output voltage possible
     B. Fewer circuit components are required
     C. High frequency operation allows the use of smaller components
     D. All of these choices are correct


  78.   Which of the following can reduce overload to a VHF transceiver from a nearby FM broadcast station?
     RF preamplifier
     Double-shielded coaxial cable
     Using headphones instead of the speaker
     Band-reject filter


  79.   How can an RF power amplifier be neutralized?
     A. By increasing the driving power
     B. By reducing the driving power
     C. By feeding a 180-degree out-of-phase portion of the output back to the input
     D. By feeding an in-phase component of the output back to the input


  80.   What determines the frequency of an LC oscillator?
     A. The number of stages in the counter
     B. The number of stages in the divider
     C. The inductance and capacitance in the tank circuit
     D. The time delay of the lag circuit


  81.   What does an SWR reading of 4:1 indicate?
     Loss of -4 dB
     Good impedance match
     Gain of +4 dB
     Impedance mismatch


  82.   Which of the following filters would be the best choice for use in a 2 meter repeater duplexer?
     A. A crystal filter
     B. A cavity filter
     C. A DSP filter
     D. An L-C filter


  83.   What is meant by the term "software defined radio" (SDR)?
     A. A radio in which most major signal processing functions are performed by software
     B. A radio that provides computer interface for automatic logging of band and frequency
     C. A radio that uses crystal filters designed using software
     D. A computer model that can simulate performance of a radio to aid in the design process


  84.   Which instrument is used to measure electric current?
     An ohmmeter
     A wavemeter
     A voltmeter
     An ammeter


  85.   What is the purpose of Q1 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?
     A. It provides negative feedback to improve regulation
     B. It provides a constant load for the voltage source
     C. It increases the current-handling capability of the regulator
     D. It provides D1 with current


  86.   What is meant by the term baseband in radio communications?
     A. The lowest frequency band that the transmitter or receiver covers
     B. The frequency components present in the modulating signal
     C. The unmodulated bandwidth of the transmitted signal
     D. The basic oscillator frequency in an FM transmitter that is multiplied to increase the deviation and carrier frequency


  87.   What is the minimum number of bits required for an analog-to-digital converter to sample a signal with a range of 1 volt at a resolution of 1 millivolt?
     A. 4 bits
     B. 6 bits
     C. 8 bits
     D. 10 bits


  88.   What magnitude of voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-4 when R1 is 10 ohms and RF is 470 ohms?
     A. 0.21
     B. 94
     C. 47
     D. 24


  89.   What are three oscillator circuits used in Amateur Radio equipment?
     A. Taft, Pierce and negative feedback
     B. Pierce, Fenner and Beane
     C. Taft, Hartley and Pierce
     D. Colpitts, Hartley and Pierce


  90.   What is the name of the process that changes the phase angle of an RF wave to convey information?
     A. Phase convolution
     B. Phase modulation
     C. Angle convolution
     D. Radian inversion


  91.   Which type of voice mode is most often used for long-distance (weak signal) contacts on the VHF and UHF bands?


  92.   What is "dither" with respect to analog to digital converters?
     A. An abnormal condition where the converter cannot settle on a value to represent the signal
     B. A small amount of noise added to the input signal to allow more precise representation of a signal over time
     C. An error caused by irregular quantization step size
     D. A method of decimation by randomly skipping samples


  93.   What is the modulation index of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency deviation of 3000 Hz either side of the carrier frequency when the modulating frequency is 1000 Hz?
     A. 3
     B. 0.3
     C. 3000
     D. 1000


  94.   Which of the following are provided by satellite tracking programs?
     Maps showing the real-time position of the satellite track over the earth
     The time, azimuth, and elevation of the start, maximum altitude, and end of a pass
     The apparent frequency of the satellite transmission, including effects of Doppler shift
     All of these choices are correct


  95.   What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz reactance modulated oscillator in a 5 kHz deviation, 146.52 MHz FM phone transmitter?
     A. 101.75 Hz
     B. 416.7 Hz
     C. 5 kHz
     D. 60 kHz


  96.   Which is the name of a digital code where each preceding or following character changes by only one bit?
     A. Binary Coded Decimal Code
     B. Extended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code
     C. Excess 3 code
     D. Gray code


  97.   How might you obtain a list of active nodes that use VoIP?
     By subscribing to an on line service
     From on line repeater lists maintained by the local repeater frequency coordinator
     From a repeater directory
     All of these choices are correct


  98.   Which type of code is used for sending characters in a PSK31 signal?
     A. Varicode
     B. Viterbi
     C. Volumetric
     D. Binary


  99.   Why are received spread spectrum signals resistant to interference?
     A. Signals not using the spread spectrum algorithm are suppressed in the receiver
     B. The high power used by a spread spectrum transmitter keeps its signal from being easily overpowered
     C. The receiver is always equipped with a digital blanker
     D. If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to change frequencies


  100.   Which of the following devices is used to provide data to the transmitter when sending automatic position reports from a mobile amateur radio station?
     The vehicle speedometer
     A WWV receiver
     A connection to a broadcast FM sub-carrier receiver
     A Global Positioning System receiver


  101.   What is the characteristic impedance of flat ribbon TV type twinlead?
     A. 50 ohms
     B. 75 ohms
     C. 100 ohms
     D. 300 ohms


  102.   What is included in the total resistance of an antenna system?
     A. Radiation resistance plus space impedance
     B. Radiation resistance plus transmission resistance
     C. Transmission-line resistance plus radiation resistance
     D. Radiation resistance plus ohmic resistance


  103.   In which direction does a half-wave dipole antenna radiate the strongest signal?
     Equally in all directions
     Off the ends of the antenna
     Broadside to the antenna
     In the direction of the feed line


  104.   Where should the radial wires of a ground-mounted vertical antenna system be placed?
     A. As high as possible above the ground
     B. Parallel to the antenna element
     C. On the surface of the Earth or buried a few inches below the ground
     D. At the center of the antenna


  105.   Why should coax connectors exposed to the weather be sealed against water intrusion?
     To prevent an increase in feed line loss
     To prevent interference to telephones
     To keep the jacket from becoming loose
     All of these choices are correct


  106.   What does the abbreviation NEC stand for when applied to antenna modeling programs?
     A. Next Element Comparison
     B. Numerical Electromagnetic Code
     C. National Electrical Code
     D. Numeric Electrical Computation


  107.   What is an OCFD antenna?
     A. A dipole feed approximately 1/3 the way from one end with a 4:1 balun to provide multiband operation
     B. A remotely tunable dipole antenna using orthogonally controlled frequency diversity
     C. An eight band dipole antenna using octophase filters
     D. A multiband dipole antenna using one-way circular polarization for frequency diversity


  108.   What is meant by the "main lobe" of a directive antenna?
     A. The magnitude of the maximum vertical angle of radiation
     B. The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element
     C. The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating element
     D. The direction of maximum radiated field strength from the antenna


  109.   What is an advantage of using top loading in a shortened HF vertical antenna?
     A. Lower Q
     B. Greater structural strength
     C. Higher losses
     D. Improved radiation efficiency


  110.   Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband antennas?
     A. They present low impedance on all design frequencies
     B. They must be used with an antenna tuner
     C. They must be fed with open wire line
     D. They have poor harmonic rejection


  111.   What is the name of the matching system that uses a section of transmission line connected in parallel with the feed line at or near the feed point?
     A. The gamma match
     B. The delta match
     C. The omega match
     D. The stub match


  112.   What is the velocity factor of a transmission line?
     A. The ratio of the characteristic impedance of the line to the terminating impedance
     B. The index of shielding for coaxial cable
     C. The velocity of the wave in the transmission line multiplied by the velocity of light in a vacuum
     D. The velocity of the wave in the transmission line divided by the velocity of light in a vacuum


  113.   Which of the following is often determined using a Smith chart?
     A. Beam headings and radiation patterns
     B. Satellite azimuth and elevation bearings
     C. Impedance and SWR values in transmission lines
     D. Trigonometric functions


  114.   What is the triangulation method of direction finding?
     A. The geometric angles of sky waves from the source are used to determine its position
     B. A fixed receiving station plots three headings to the signal source
     C. Antenna headings from several different receiving locations are used to locate the signal source
     D. A fixed receiving station uses three different antennas to plot the location of the signal source


  115.   What is one of the potential hazards of using microwaves in the amateur radio bands?
     A. Microwaves are ionizing radiation
     B. The high gain antennas commonly used can result in high exposure levels
     C. Microwaves often travel long distances by ionospheric reflection
     D. The extremely high frequency energy can damage the joints of antenna structures


  116.   What must you do if an evaluation of your station shows RF energy radiated from your station exceeds permissible limits?
     A. Take action to prevent human exposure to the excessive RF fields
     B. File an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS-97) with the FCC
     C. Secure written permission from your neighbors to operate above the controlled MPE limits
     D. All of these choices are correct


  117.   Why is it unwise to install a 20-ampere fuse in the place of a 5-ampere fuse?
     The larger fuse would be likely to blow because it is rated for higher current
     The power supply ripple would greatly increase
     Excessive current could cause a fire
     All of these choices are correct


  118.   Which of the following is true when installing grounding conductors used for lightning protection?
     Only non-insulated wire must be used
     Wires must be carefully routed with precise right-angle bends
     Sharp bends must be avoided
     Common grounds must be avoided


  119.   What must you do when powering your house from an emergency generator?
     A. Disconnect the incoming utility power feed
     B. Insure that the generator is not grounded
     C. Insure that all lightning grounds are disconnected
     D. All of these choices are correct


  120.   What is the definition of duty cycle during the averaging time for RF exposure?
     The difference between the lowest power output and the highest power output of a transmitter
     The difference between the PEP and average power output of a transmitter
     The percentage of time that a transmitter is transmitting
     The percentage of time that a transmitter is not transmitting