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eHam.net Practice Exam -


    G1A04     [97.303 (h)]

  1.   Which of the following amateur bands is restricted to communication on only specific channels, rather than frequency ranges?
     A. 11 meters
     B. 12 meters
     C. 30 meters
     D. 60 meters

    E1A05     [97.313]

  2.   What is the maximum power output permitted on the 60 meter band?
     A. 50 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to an isotropic radiator
     B. 50 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to a dipole
     C. 100 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to the gain of a half-wave dipole
     D. 100 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to an isotropic radiator

    T1A06     [97.3(a)(9)]

  3.   What is the FCC Part 97 definition of a "beacon"?
     A government transmitter marking the amateur radio band edges
     A bulletin sent by the FCC to announce a national emergency
     An amateur station transmitting communications for the purposes of observing propagation or related experimental activities
     A continuous transmission of weather information authorized in the amateur bands by the National Weather Service

    G1B08     [97.101(a)]

  4.   When choosing a transmitting frequency, what should you do to comply with good amateur practice?
     A. Insure that the frequency and mode selected are within your license class privileges
     B. Follow generally accepted band plans agreed to by the Amateur Radio community
     C. Monitor the frequency before transmitting
     D. All of these choices are correct

    T1B09     [97.101(a), 97.301(a-e)]

  5.   Why should you not set your transmit frequency to be exactly at the edge of an amateur band or sub-band?
     To allow for calibration error in the transmitter frequency display
     So that modulation sidebands do not extend beyond the band edge
     To allow for transmitter frequency drift
     All of these choices are correct

    E1B10     [97.407]

  6.   What frequencies are authorized to an amateur station operating under RACES rules?
     A. All amateur service frequencies authorized to the control operator
     B. Specific segments in the amateur service MF, HF, VHF and UHF bands
     C. Specific local government channels
     D. Military Auxiliary Radio System (MARS) channels

    G1C01     [97.313(c)(1)]

  7.   What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?
     A. 200 watts PEP output
     B. 1000 watts PEP output
     C. 1500 watts PEP output
     D. 2000 watts PEP output

    E1C02     [97.3, 97.109]

  8.   What is meant by automatic control of a station?
     A. The use of devices and procedures for control so that the control operator does not have to be present at a control point
     B. A station operating with its output power controlled automatically
     C. Remotely controlling a station's antenna pattern through a directional control link
     D. The use of a control link between a control point and a locally controlled station

    T1C08     [97.25]

  9.   What is the normal term for an FCC-issued primary station/operator amateur radio license grant?
     Five years
     Life
     Ten years
     Twenty years

    T1D05     [97.113(a)(3)(ii)]

  10.   When may amateur radio operators use their stations to notify other amateurs of the availability of equipment for sale or trade?
     When the equipment is normally used in an amateur station and such activity is not conducted on a regular basis
     When the asking price is $100.00 or less
     When the asking price is less than its appraised value
     When the equipment is not the personal property of either the station licensee or the control operator or their close relatives

    E1D06     [97.207]

  11.   Which of the following is a requirement of a space station?
     A. The space station must be capable of terminating transmissions by telecommand when directed by the FCC
     B. The space station must cease all transmissions after 5 years
     C. The space station must be capable of changing its orbit whenever such a change is ordered by NASA
     D. All of these choices are correct

    G1D06     [97.119(f)(2)]

  12.   When must you add the special identifier "AG" after your call sign if you are a Technician Class licensee and have a CSCE for General Class operator privileges, but the FCC has not yet posted your upgrade on its website ?
     A. Whenever you operate using General Class frequency privileges
     B. Whenever you operate on any amateur frequency
     C. Whenever you operate using Technician frequency privileges
     D. A special identifier is not required as long as your General Class license application has been filed with the FCC

    G1E03     [97.221]

  13.   What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?
     A. The station initiating the contact must be under local or remote control
     B. The interrogating transmission must be made by another automatically controlled station
     C. No third party traffic maybe be transmitted
     D. The control operator of the interrogating station must hold an Extra

    E1E03     [97.521]

  14.   What is a Volunteer Examiner Coordinator?
     A. A person who has volunteered to administer amateur operator license examinations
     B. A person who has volunteered to prepare amateur operator license examinations
     C. An organization that has entered into an agreement with the FCC to coordinate amateur operator license examinations
     D. The person who has entered into an agreement with the FCC to be the VE session manager

    T1E10     [97.3(a)(39)]

  15.   Which of the following is an example of remote control as defined in Part 97?
     Repeater operation
     Operating the station over the internet
     Controlling a model aircraft, boat, or car by amateur radio
     All of these choices are correct

    E1F02     [97.107]

  16.   What privileges are authorized in the U.S. to persons holding an amateur service license granted by the Government of Canada?
     A. None, they must obtain a U.S. license
     B. All privileges of the Extra Class license
     C. The operating terms and conditions of the Canadian amateur service license, not to exceed U.S. Extra Class privileges
     D. Full privileges, up to and including those of the Extra Class License, on the 80, 40, 20, 15, and 10 meter bands

    T1F10     [97.205(g)]

  17.   Who is accountable should a repeater inadvertently retransmit communications that violate the FCC rules?
     The control operator of the originating station
     The control operator of the repeater
     The owner of the repeater
     Both the originating station and the repeater owner

    G2A09    

  18.   Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160-meter, 75-meter and 40-meter bands?
     A. Lower sideband is more efficient than upper sideband at these frequencies
     B. Lower sideband is the only sideband legal on these frequency bands
     C. Because it is fully compatible with an AM detector
     D. Current amateur practice is to use lower sideband on these frequency bands

    T2A10    

  19.   What is a band plan, beyond the privileges established by the FCC?
     A voluntary guideline for using different modes or activities within an amateur band
     A mandated list of operating schedules
     A list of scheduled net frequencies
     A plan devised by a club to indicate frequency band usage

    E2A14    

  20.   What technology is used to track, in real time, balloons carrying amateur radio transmitters?
     A. Radar
     B. Bandwidth compressed LORAN
     C. APRS
     D. Doppler shift of beacon signals

    E2B02    

  21.   How many horizontal lines make up a fast-scan (NTSC) television frame?
     A. 30
     B. 60
     C. 525
     D. 1080

    G2B12     [97.405(b)]

  22.   When is an amateur station allowed to use any means at its disposal to assist another station in distress?
     A. Only when transmitting in RACES
     B. At any time when transmitting in an organized net
     C. At any time during an actual emergency
     D. Only on authorized HF frequencies

    T2B12    

  23.   Why are simplex channels designated in the VHF/UHF band plans?
     So that stations within mutual communications range can communicate without tying up a repeater
     For contest operation
     For working DX only
     So that stations with simple transmitters can access the repeater without automated offset

    G2C04    

  24.   What does the Q signal "QRL?" mean?
     A. "Will you keep the frequency clear?"
     B. "Are you operating full break-in" or "Can you operate full break-in?"
     C. "Are you listening only for a specific station?"
     D. "Are you busy?", or "Is this frequency in use?"

    E2C09    

  25.   What type of equipment is commonly used to implement a ham radio mesh network?
     A. A 2 meter VHF transceiver with a 1200 baud modem
     B. An optical cable connection between the USB ports of 2 separate computers
     C. A standard wireless router running custom software
     D. A 440 MHz transceiver with a 9600 baud modem

    T2C12    

  26.   What is the Amateur Radio Emergency Service (ARES)?
     Licensed amateurs who have voluntarily registered their qualifications and equipment for communications duty in the public service
     Licensed amateurs who are members of the military and who voluntarily agreed to provide message handling services in the case of an emergency
     A training program that provides licensing courses for those interested in obtaining an amateur license to use during emergencies
     A training program that certifies amateur operators for membership in the Radio Amateur Civil Emergency Service

    G2D08    

  27.   What is a reason why many amateurs keep a station log?
     A. The ITU requires a log of all international contacts
     B. The ITU requires a log of all international third party traffic
     C. The log provides evidence of operation needed to renew a license without retest
     D. To help with a reply if the FCC requests information

    E2D13    

  28.   What type of modulation is used for JT65 contacts?
     A. Multi-tone AFSK
     B. PSK
     C. RTTY
     D. IEEE 802.11

    E2E05    

  29.   Which type of digital mode does not support keyboard-to-keyboard operation?
     A. Winlink
     B. RTTY
     C. PSK31
     D. MFSK

    G2E09    

  30.   How do you join a contact between two stations using the PACTOR protocol?
     A. Send broadcast packets containing your call sign while in MONITOR mode
     B. Transmit a steady carrier until the PACTOR protocol times out and disconnects
     C. Joining an existing contact is not possible, PACTOR connections are limited to two stations
     D. Send a NAK response continuously so that the sending station has to pause

    G3A01    

  31.   What is the significance of the sunspot number with regard to HF propagation?
     A. Higher sunspot numbers generally indicate a greater probability of good propagation at higher frequencies
     B. Lower sunspot numbers generally indicate greater probability of sporadic E propagation
     C. A zero sunspot number indicate radio propagation is not possible on any band
     D. All of these choices are correct.

    T3A11    

  32.   Which part of the atmosphere enables the propagation of radio signals around the world?
     The stratosphere
     The troposphere
     The ionosphere
     The magnetosphere

    E3A15    

  33.   What is an electromagnetic wave?
     A. A wave of alternating current, in the core of an electromagnet
     B. A wave consisting of two electric fields at parallel right angles to each other
     C. A wave consisting of an electric field and a magnetic field oscillating at right angles to each other
     D. A wave consisting of two magnetic fields at right angles to each other

    E3B03    

  34.   What is the best time of day for transequatorial propagation?
     A. Morning
     B. Noon
     C. Afternoon or early evening
     D. Late at night

    T3B04    

  35.   How fast does a radio wave travel through free space?
     At the speed of light
     At the speed of sound
     Its speed is inversely proportional to its wavelength
     Its speed increases as the frequency increases

    G3B11    

  36.   What happens to HF propagation when the LUF exceeds the MUF?
     A. No HF radio frequency will support ordinary sky-wave communications over the path
     B. HF communications over the path are enhanced
     C. Double hop propagation along the path is more common
     D. Propagation over the path on all HF frequencies is enhanced

    G3C07    

  37.   What makes HF scatter signals often sound distorted?
     A. The ionospheric layer involved is unstable
     B. Ground waves are absorbing much of the signal
     C. The E-region is not present
     D. Energy is scattered into the skip zone through several different radio wave paths

    T3C10    

  38.   Which of the following bands may provide long distance communications during the peak of the sunspot cycle?
     6 or 10 meter band
     23 centimeter band
     70 centimeters or 1.25 meter band
     All of these choices are correct

    E3C12    

  39.   How does the maximum distance of ground-wave propagation change when the signal frequency is increased?
     A. It stays the same
     B. It increases
     C. It decreases
     D. It peaks at roughly 14 MHz

    T4A09    

  40.   Which of the following could you use to cure distorted audio caused by RF current on the shield of a microphone cable?
     Band-pass filter
     Low-pass filter
     Preamplifier
     Ferrite choke

    G4A10    

  41.   What is the purpose of an electronic keyer?
     A. Automatic transmit/receive switching
     B. Automatic generation of strings of dots and dashes for CW operation
     C. VOX operation
     D. Computer interface for PSK and RTTY operation

    E4A15    

  42.   What is an advantage of a period-measuring frequency counter over a direct-count type?
     A. It can run on battery power for remote measurements
     B. It does not require an expensive high-precision time base
     C. It provides improved resolution of low-frequency signals within a comparable time period
     D. It can directly measure the modulation index of an FM transmitter

    G4B03    

  43.   Which of the following is the best instrument to use when checking the keying waveform of a CW transmitter?
     A. An oscilloscope
     B. A field strength meter
     C. A sidetone monitor
     D. A wavemeter

    T4B08    

  44.   What is the advantage of having multiple receive bandwidth choices on a multimode transceiver?
     Permits monitoring several modes at once
     Permits noise or interference reduction by selecting a bandwidth matching the mode
     Increases the number of frequencies that can be stored in memory
     Increases the amount of offset between receive and transmit frequencies

    E4B14    

  45.   What happens if a dip meter is too tightly coupled to a tuned circuit being checked?
     A. Harmonics are generated
     B. A less accurate reading results
     C. Cross modulation occurs
     D. Intermodulation distortion occurs

    G4C02    

  46.   Which of the following could be a cause of interference covering a wide range of frequencies?
     A. Not using a balun or line isolator to feed balanced antennas
     B. Lack of rectification of the transmitter's signal in power conductors
     C. Arcing at a poor electrical connection
     D. Using a balun to feed an unbalanced antenna

    E4C04    

  47.   How is the noise figure of a receiver defined?
     A. The ratio of atmospheric noise to phase noise
     B. The ratio of the noise bandwidth in Hertz to the theoretical bandwidth of a resistive network
     C. The ratio of thermal noise to atmospheric noise
     D. The ratio in dB of the noise generated by the receiver to the theoretical minimum noise

    G4D04    

  48.   What does an S meter measure?
     A. Conductance
     B. Impedance
     C. Received signal strength
     D. Transmitter power output

    E4D14    

  49.   Which of the following is a way to reduce the likelihood of receiver desensitization?
     A. Decrease the RF bandwidth of the receiver
     B. Raise the receiver IF frequency
     C. Increase the receiver front end gain
     D. Switch from fast AGC to slow AGC

    E4E07    

  50.   How can you determine if line noise interference is being generated within your home?
     A. By checking the power line voltage with a time domain reflectometer
     B. By observing the AC power line waveform with an oscilloscope
     C. By turning off the AC power line main circuit breaker and listening on a battery operated radio
     D. By observing the AC power line voltage with a spectrum analyzer

    G4E11    

  51.   Which of the following is a disadvantage of using wind as the primary source of power for an emergency station?
     A. The conversion efficiency from mechanical energy to electrical energy is less than 2 percent
     B. The voltage and current ratings of such systems are not compatible with amateur equipment
     C. A large energy storage system is needed to supply power when the wind is not blowing
     D. All of these choices are correct

    G5A09    

  52.   What unit is used to measure reactance?
     A. Farad
     B. Ohm
     C. Ampere
     D. Siemens

    E5A09    

  53.   How is the Q of an RLC parallel resonant circuit calculated?
     A. Reactance of either the inductance or capacitance divided by the resistance
     B. Reactance of either the inductance or capacitance multiplied by the resistance
     C. Resistance divided by the reactance of either the inductance or capacitance
     D. Reactance of the inductance multiplied by the reactance of the capacitance

    T5A14    

  54.   In which type of circuit is voltage the same across all components?
     Series
     Parallel
     Resonant
     Branch

    T5B01    

  55.   How many milliamperes is 1.5 amperes?
     15 milliamperes
     150 milliamperes
     1500 milliamperes
     15,000 milliamperes

    G5B03    

  56.   How many watts of electrical power are used if 400 VDC is supplied to an 800 ohm load?
     A. 0.5 watts
     B. 200 watts
     C. 400 watts
     D. 3200 watts

    E5B10    

  57.   What is the relationship between the current through an inductor and the voltage across an inductor?
     A. Voltage leads current by 90 degrees
     B. Current leads voltage by 90 degrees
     C. Voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
     D. Voltage and current are in phase

    T5C11    

  58.   How many amperes are flowing in a circuit when the applied voltage is 12 volts DC and the load is 120 watts?
     0.1 amperes
     10 amperes
     12 amperes
     132 amperes

    E5C11    

  59.   What do the two numbers that are used to define a point on a graph using rectangular coordinates represent?
     A. The magnitude and phase of the point
     B. The sine and cosine values
     C. The coordinate values along the horizontal and vertical axes
     D. The tangent and cotangent values

    G5C13    

  60.   Which of the following components should be added to a capacitor to increase the capacitance?
     A. An inductor in series
     B. A resistor in series
     C. A capacitor in parallel
     D. A capacitor in series

    T5D12    

  61.   What is the voltage across a 10-ohm resistor if a current of 2 amperes flows through it?
     8 volts
     0.2 volts
     12 volts
     20 volts

    E5D17    

  62.   How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.6 if the input is 200VAC at 5 amperes?
     A. 200 watts
     B. 1000 watts
     C. 1600 watts
     D. 600 watts

    E6A03    

  63.   Why does a PN-junction diode not conduct current when reverse biased?
     A. Only P-type semiconductor material can conduct current
     B. Only N-type semiconductor material can conduct current
     C. Holes in P-type material and electrons in the N-type material are separated by the applied voltage, widening the depletion region
     D. Excess holes in P-type material combine with the electrons in N-type material, converting the entire diode into an insulator

    G6A11    

  64.   Which of the following solid state devices is most like a vacuum tube in its general operating characteristics?
     A. A bipolar transistor
     B. A field effect transistor
     C. A tunnel diode
     D. A varistor

    T6A11    

  65.   Which of the following battery types is not rechargeable?
     Nickel-cadmium
     Carbon-zinc
     Lead-acid
     Lithium-ion

    G6B01    

  66.   Which of the following is an analog integrated circuit?
     A. NAND Gate
     B. Microprocessor
     C. Frequency Counter
     D. Linear voltage regulator

    E6B05    

  67.   What characteristic of a PIN diode makes it useful as an RF switch or attenuator?
     A. Extremely high reverse breakdown voltage
     B. Ability to dissipate large amounts of power
     C. Reverse bias controls its forward voltage drop
     D. A large region of intrinsic material

    T6B11    

  68.   What is the term that describes a device's ability to amplify a signal?
     Gain
     Forward resistance
     Forward voltage drop
     On resistance

    E6C09    

  69.   What is a Programmable Logic Device (PLD)?
     A. A device to control industrial equipment
     B. A programmable collection of logic gates and circuits in a single integrated circuit
     C. Programmable equipment used for testing digital logic integrated circuits
     D. An algorithm for simulating logic functions during circuit design

    T6C12    

  70.   What do the symbols on an electrical schematic represent?
     Electrical components
     Logic states
     Digital codes
     Traffic nodes

    E6D06    

  71.   What core material property determines the inductance of a toroidal inductor?
     A. Thermal impedance
     B. Resistance
     C. Reactivity
     D. Permeability

    T6D09    

  72.   What is the name of a device that combines several semiconductors and other components into one package?
     Transducer
     Multi-pole relay
     Integrated circuit
     Transformer

    E6E10    

  73.   What is the packaging technique in which leadless components are soldered directly to circuit boards?
     A. Direct soldering
     B. Virtual lead mounting
     C. Stripped lead
     D. Surface mount

    E6F12    

  74.   What absorbs the energy from light falling on a photovoltaic cell?
     A. Protons
     B. Photons
     C. Electrons
     D. Holes

    E7A03    

  75.   Which of the following can divide the frequency of a pulse train by 2?
     A. An XOR gate
     B. A flip-flop
     C. An OR gate
     D. A multiplexer

    G7A03    

  76.   What is the peak-inverse-voltage across the rectifiers in a full-wave bridge power supply?
     A. One-quarter the normal output voltage of the power supply
     B. Half the normal output voltage of the power supply
     C. Double the normal peak output voltage of the power supply
     D. Equal to the normal peak output voltage of the power supply

    T7A03    

  77.   Which of the following is used to convert a radio signal from one frequency to another?
     Phase splitter
     Mixer
     Inverter
     Amplifier

    G7B04    

  78.   Which of the following describes the function of a two input NOR gate?
     A. Output is high when either or both inputs are low
     B. Output is high only when both inputs are high
     C. Output is low when either or both inputs are high
     D. Output is low only when both inputs are high

    T7B08    

  79.   What should you do if something in a neighbor's home is causing harmful interference to your amateur station?
     Work with your neighbor to identify the offending device
     Politely inform your neighbor about the rules that prohibit the use of devices that cause interference
     Check your station and make sure it meets the standards of good amateur practice
     All of these choices are correct

    E7B15    

  80.   What is one way to prevent thermal runaway in a bipolar transistor amplifier?
     A. Neutralization
     B. Select transistors with high beta
     C. Use a resistor in series with the emitter
     D. All of these choices are correct

    T7C01    

  81.   What is the primary purpose of a dummy load?
     To prevent transmitting signals over the air when making tests
     To prevent over-modulation of a transmitter
     To improve the efficiency of an antenna
     To improve the signal-to-noise ratio of a receiver

    G7C01    

  82.   Which of the following is used to process signals from the balanced modulator then send them to the mixer in some single sideband phone transmitters?
     A. Carrier oscillator
     B. Filter
     C. IF amplifier
     D. RF amplifier

    E7C01    

  83.   How are the capacitors and inductors of a low-pass filter Pi-network arranged between the network's input and output?
     A. Two inductors are in series between the input and output, and a capacitor is connected between the two inductors and ground
     B. Two capacitors are in series between the input and output, and an inductor is connected between the two capacitors and ground
     C. An inductor is connected between the input and ground, another inductor is connected between the output and ground, and a capacitor is connected between the input and output
     D. A capacitor is connected between the input and ground, another capacitor is connected between the output and ground, and an inductor is connected between input and output

    E7D08    

  84.   What type of circuit is shown in Figure E7-3?
     A. Switching voltage regulator
     B. Grounded emitter amplifier
     C. Linear voltage regulator
     D. Emitter follower

    T7D10    

  85.   What is probably happening when an ohmmeter, connected across an unpowered circuit, initially indicates a low resistance and then shows increasing resistance with time?
     The ohmmeter is defective
     The circuit contains a large capacitor
     The circuit contains a large inductor
     The circuit is a relaxation oscillator

    E7E04    

  86.   What is one way a single-sideband phone signal can be generated?
     A. By using a balanced modulator followed by a filter
     B. By using a reactance modulator followed by a mixer
     C. By using a loop modulator followed by a mixer
     D. By driving a product detector with a DSB signal

    E7F11    

  87.   What sets the minimum detectable signal level for an SDR in the absence of atmospheric or thermal noise?
     A. Sample clock phase noise
     B. Reference voltage level and sample width in bits
     C. Data storage transfer rate
     D. Missing codes and jitter

    E7G11    

  88.   What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-4 when R1 is 3300 ohms and RF is 47 kilohms?
     A. 28
     B. 14
     C. 7
     D. 0.07

    E7H15    

  89.   Which of these functions can be performed by a phase-locked loop?
     A. Wide-band AF and RF power amplification
     B. Comparison of two digital input signals, digital pulse counter
     C. Photovoltaic conversion, optical coupling
     D. Frequency synthesis, FM demodulation

    G8A03    

  90.   What is the name of the process that changes the instantaneous frequency of an RF wave to convey information?
     A. Frequency convolution
     B. Frequency transformation
     C. Frequency conversion
     D. Frequency modulation

    T8A05    

  91.   Which of the following types of emission has the narrowest bandwidth?
     FM voice
     SSB voice
     CW
     Slow-scan TV

    E8A11    

  92.   What type of information can be conveyed using digital waveforms?
     A. Human speech
     B. Video signals
     C. Data
     D. All of these choices are correct

    T8B02    

  93.   What is the impact of using too much effective radiated power on a satellite uplink?
     Possibility of commanding the satellite to an improper mode
     Blocking access by other users
     Overloading the satellite batteries
     Possibility of rebooting the satellite control computer

    G8B08    

  94.   Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?
     A. To aid in tuning your transmitter
     B. Some modes have high duty cycles which could exceed the transmitter's average power rating.
     C. To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission
     D. All of these choices are correct

    E8B08    

  95.   What describes Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing?
     A. A frequency modulation technique which uses non-harmonically related frequencies
     B. A bandwidth compression technique using Fourier transforms
     C. A digital mode for narrow band, slow speed transmissions
     D. A digital modulation technique using subcarriers at frequencies chosen to avoid intersymbol interference

    E8C06    

  96.   What is the necessary bandwidth of a 170-hertz shift, 300-baud ASCII transmission?
     A. 0.1 Hz
     B. 0.3 kHz
     C. 0.5 kHz
     D. 1.0 kHz

    T8C10    

  97.   What must be done before you may use the EchoLink system to communicate using a repeater?
     You must complete the required EchoLink training
     You must have purchased a license to use the EchoLink software
     You must be sponsored by a current EchoLink user
     You must register your call sign and provide proof of license

    G8C11    

  98.   How are the two separate frequencies of a Frequency Shift Keyed (FSK) signal identified?
     A. Dot and Dash
     B. On and Off
     C. High and Low
     D. Mark and Space

    T8D01    

  99.   Which of the following is a digital communications mode?
     Packet radio
     IEEE 802.11
     JT65
     All of these choices are correct

    E8D02    

  100.   What spread spectrum communications technique uses a high speed binary bit stream to shift the phase of an RF carrier?
     A. Frequency hopping
     B. Direct sequence
     C. Binary phase-shift keying
     D. Phase compandored spread spectrum

    T9A02    

  101.   Which of the following describes a type of antenna loading?
     Inserting an inductor in the radiating portion of the antenna to make it electrically longer
     Inserting a resistor in the radiating portion of the antenna to make it resonant
     Installing a spring in the base of a mobile vertical antenna to make it more flexible
     Strengthening the radiating elements of a beam antenna to better resist wind damage

    G9A10    

  102.   What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having 10 ohm impedance?
     A. 2:1
     B. 50:1
     C. 1:5
     D. 5:1

    E9A12    

  103.   How much gain does an antenna have compared to a 1/2-wavelength dipole when it has 6 dB gain over an isotropic antenna?
     A. 3.85 dB
     B. 6.0 dB
     C. 8.15 dB
     D. 2.79 dB

    T9B03    

  104.   Why is coaxial cable the most common feed line selected for amateur radio antenna systems?
     It is easy to use and requires few special installation considerations
     It has less loss than any other type of feed line
     It can handle more power than any other type of feed line
     It is less expensive than any other type of feed line

    G9B05    

  105.   How does antenna height affect the horizontal (azimuthal) radiation pattern of a horizontal dipole HF antenna?
     A. If the antenna is too high, the pattern becomes unpredictable
     B. Antenna height has no effect on the pattern
     C. If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, the azimuthal pattern is almost omnidirectional
     D. If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, radiation off the ends of the wire is eliminated

    E9B14    

  106.   What type of information can be obtained by submitting the details of a proposed new antenna to a modeling program?
     A. SWR vs frequency charts
     B. Polar plots of the far field elevation and azimuth patterns
     C. Antenna gain
     D. All of these choices are correct

    E9C06    

  107.   What is the effect of a terminating resistor on a rhombic antenna?
     A. It reflects the standing waves on the antenna elements back to the transmitter
     B. It changes the radiation pattern from bidirectional to unidirectional
     C. It changes the radiation pattern from horizontal to vertical polarization
     D. It decreases the ground loss

    G9C12    

  108.   Which of the following is an advantage of using a gamma match for impedance matching of a Yagi antenna to 50 ohm coax feed line?
     A. It does not require that the elements be insulated from the boom
     B. It does not require any inductors or capacitors
     C. It is useful for matching multiband antennas
     D. All of these choices are correct

    G9D04    

  109.   What is the primary purpose of antenna traps?
     A. To permit multiband operation
     B. To notch spurious frequencies
     C. To provide balanced feed point impedance
     D. To prevent out of band operation

    E9D09    

  110.   What is the function of a loading coil used as part of an HF mobile antenna?
     A. To increase the SWR bandwidth
     B. To lower the losses
     C. To lower the Q
     D. To cancel capacitive reactance

    E9E01    

  111.   What system matches a higher impedance transmission line to a lower impedance antenna by connecting the line to the driven element in two places spaced a fraction of a wavelength each side of element center?
     A. The gamma matching system
     B. The delta matching system
     C. The omega matching system
     D. The stub matching system

    E9F09    

  112.   What is the approximate physical length of a solid polyethylene dielectric coaxial transmission line that is electrically one-quarter wavelength long at 7.2 MHz?
     A. 10 meters
     B. 6.9 meters
     C. 24 meters
     D. 50 meters

    E9G11    

  113.   How are the wavelength scales on a Smith chart calibrated?
     A. In fractions of transmission line electrical frequency
     B. In fractions of transmission line electrical wavelength
     C. In fractions of antenna electrical wavelength
     D. In fractions of antenna electrical frequency

    E9H06    

  114.   What is the triangulation method of direction finding?
     A. The geometric angles of sky waves from the source are used to determine its position
     B. A fixed receiving station plots three headings to the signal source
     C. Antenna headings from several different receiving locations are used to locate the signal source
     D. A fixed receiving station uses three different antennas to plot the location of the signal source

    E0A06    

  115.   Why are there separate electric (E) and magnetic (H) field MPE limits?
     A. The body reacts to electromagnetic radiation from both the E and H fields
     B. Ground reflections and scattering make the field impedance vary with location
     C. E field and H field radiation intensity peaks can occur at different locations
     D. All of these choices are correct

    T0A09    

  116.   What should be done to all external ground rods or earth connections?
     Waterproof them with silicone caulk or electrical tape
     Keep them as far apart as possible
     Bond them together with heavy wire or conductive strap
     Tune them for resonance on the lowest frequency of operation

    G0A10    

  117.   What is one thing that can be done if evaluation shows that a neighbor might receive more than the allowable limit of RF exposure from the main lobe of a directional antenna?
     A. Change to a non-polarized antenna with higher gain
     B. Post a warning sign that is clearly visible to the neighbor
     C. Use an antenna with a higher front-to-back ratio
     D. Take precautions to ensure that the antenna cannot be pointed in their direction

    T0B03    

  118.   Under what circumstances is it safe to climb a tower without a helper or observer?
     When no electrical work is being performed
     When no mechanical work is being performed
     When the work being done is not more than 20 feet above the ground
     Never

    G0B03    

  119.   Which size of fuse or circuit breaker would be appropriate to use with a circuit that uses AWG number 14 wiring?
     A. 100 amperes
     B. 60 amperes
     C. 30 amperes
     D. 15 amperes

    T0C13    

  120.   If the averaging time for exposure is 6 minutes, how much power density is permitted if the signal is present for 3 minutes and absent for 3 minutes rather than being present for the entire 6 minutes?
     3 times as much
     1/2 as much
     2 times as much
     There is no adjustment allowed for shorter exposure times