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eHam.net Practice Exam -


    G1A02     [97.305]

  1.   On which of the following bands is phone operation prohibited?
     160 meters
     30 meters
     17 meters
     12 meters

    T1A02     [97.1]

  2.   Which agency regulates and enforces the rules for the Amateur Radio Service in the United States?
     FEMA
     Homeland Security
     The FCC
     All of these choices are correct

    E1A11     [97.5]

  3.   Which of the following describes authorization or licensing required when operating an amateur station aboard a U.S.-registered vessel in international waters?
     A. Any amateur license with an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement
     B. Any FCC-issued amateur license
     C. Only General class or higher amateur licenses
     D. An unrestricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit

    T1B03     [97.301(a)]

  4.   Which frequency is within the 6 meter amateur band?
     49.00 MHz
     52.525 MHz
     28.50 MHz
     222.15 MHz

    E1B03     [97.13]

  5.   Within what distance must an amateur station protect an FCC monitoring facility from harmful interference?
     A. 1 mile
     B. 3 miles
     C. 10 miles
     D. 30 miles

    G1B05     [97.111((5)(b)]

  6.   Which of the following one-way transmissions are permitted?
     Unidentified test transmissions of less than one minute in duration
     Transmissions necessary to assist learning the International Morse code
     Regular transmissions offering equipment for sale, if intended for Amateur Radio use
     All these choices are correct

    T1C03     [97.117]

  7.   What types of international communications is an FCC-licensed amateur radio station permitted to make?
     Communications incidental to the purposes of the Amateur Radio Service and remarks of a personal character
     Communications incidental to conducting business or remarks of a personal nature
     Only communications incidental to contest exchanges, all other communications are prohibited
     Any communications that would be permitted by an international broadcast station

    G1C03     [97.303(h)(1)]

  8.   What is the maximum bandwidth permitted by FCC rules for Amateur Radio stations transmitting on USB frequencies in the 60-meter band?
     2.8 kHz
     5.6 kHz
     1.8 kHz
     3 kHz

    E1C04    

  9.   What is meant by IARP?
     A. An international amateur radio permit that allows U.S. amateurs to operate in certain countries of the Americas
     B. The internal amateur radio practices policy of the FCC
     C. An indication of increased antenna reflected power
     D. A forecast of intermittent aurora radio propagation

    E1D07     [97.207]

  10.   Which amateur service HF bands have frequencies authorized for space stations?
     A. Only the 40 m, 20 m, 17 m, 15 m, 12 m and 10 m bands
     B. Only the 40 m, 20 m, 17 m, 15 m and 10 m bands
     C. Only the 40 m, 30 m, 20 m, 15 m, 12 m and 10 m bands
     D. All HF bands

    T1D07     [97.113(d)]

  11.   What types of amateur stations can automatically retransmit the signals of other amateur stations?
     Auxiliary, beacon, or Earth stations
     Repeater, auxiliary, or space stations
     Beacon, repeater, or space stations
     Earth, repeater, or space stations

    G1D11     [97.505]

  12.   What is required to obtain a new General Class license after a previously-held license has expired and the two-year grace period has passed?
     They must have a letter from the FCC showing they once held an amateur or commercial license
     There are no requirements other than being able to show a copy of the expired license
     The applicant must be able to produce a copy of a page from a call book published in the U.S. showing his or her name and address
     The applicant must pass the current Element 2 exam

    E1E02     [97.523]

  13.   Where are the questions for all written U.S. amateur license examinations listed?
     A. In FCC Part 97
     B. In a question pool maintained by the FCC
     C. In a question pool maintained by all the VECs
     D. In the appropriate FCC Report and Order

    G1E02     [97.205(b)]

  14.   When may a 10-meter repeater retransmit the 2-meter signal from a station that has a Technician class control operator?
     Under no circumstances
     Only if the station on 10-meters is operating under a Special Temporary Authorization allowing such retransmission
     Only during an FCC-declared general state of communications emergency
     Only if the 10-meter repeater control operator holds at least a General class license

    T1E08     [97.3(a)(6), 97.205(d)]

  15.   Which of the following is an example of automatic control?
     Repeater operation
     Controlling the station over the internet
     Using a computer or other device to send CW automatically
     Using a computer or other device to identify automatically

    E1F02     [97.107]

  16.   What privileges are authorized in the U.S. to persons holding an amateur service license granted by the Government of Canada?
     A. None, they must obtain a U.S. license
     B. All privileges of the Extra Class license
     C. The operating terms and conditions of the Canadian amateur service license, not to exceed U.S. Extra Class privileges
     D. Full privileges, up to and including those of the Extra Class License, on the 80, 40, 20, 15, and 10 meter bands

    T1F05     [97.119(b)(2)]

  17.   What method of call sign identification is required for a station transmitting phone signals?
     Send the call sign followed by the indicator RPT
     Send the call sign using a CW or phone emission
     Send the call sign followed by the indicator R
     Send the call sign using only a phone emission

    G2A03    

  18.   Which of the following is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands?
     Upper sideband
     Lower sideband
     Vestigial sideband
     Double sideband

    T2A04    

  19.   What is an appropriate way to call another station on a repeater if you know the other station's call sign?
     Say "break, break," then say the station's call sign
     Say the station's call sign, then identify with your call sign
     Say "CQ" three times, then the other station's call sign
     Wait for the station to call CQ, then answer it

    E2A07    

  20.   Which of the following types of signals can be relayed through a linear transponder?
     A. FM and CW
     B. SSB and SSTV
     C. PSK and Packet
     D. All of these choices are correct

    T2B04    

  21.   Which of the following could be the reason you are unable to access a repeater whose output you can hear?
     Improper transceiver offset
     The repeater may require a proper CTCSS tone from your transceiver
     The repeater may require a proper DCS tone from your transceiver
     All of these choices are correct

    E2B04    

  22.   What is blanking in a video signal?
     A. Synchronization of the horizontal and vertical sync pulses
     B. Turning off the scanning beam while it is traveling from right to left or from bottom to top
     C. Turning off the scanning beam at the conclusion of a transmission
     D. Transmitting a black and white test pattern

    G2B11     [97.405]

  23.   What frequency should be used to send a distress call?
     Whichever frequency has the best chance of communicating the distress message
     Only frequencies authorized for RACES or ARES stations
     Only frequencies that are within your operating privileges
     Only frequencies used by police, fire, or emergency medical services

    G2C03    

  24.   What does it mean when a CW operator sends "KN" at the end of a transmission?
     Listening for novice stations
     Operating full break-in
     Listening only for a specific station or stations
     Closing station now

    E2C09    

  25.   What type of equipment is commonly used to implement a ham radio mesh network?
     A. A 2 meter VHF transceiver with a 1200 baud modem
     B. An optical cable connection between the USB ports of 2 separate computers
     C. A standard wireless router running custom software
     D. A 440 MHz transceiver with a 9600 baud modem

    T2C11    

  26.   What is meant by the term "check," in reference to a formal traffic message?
     The number of words or word equivalents in the text portion of the message
     The value of a money order attached to the message
     A list of stations that have relayed the message
     A box on the message form that indicates that the message was received and/or relayed

    E2D03    

  27.   Which of the following digital modes is especially useful for EME communications?
     A. FSK441
     B. PACTOR III
     C. Olivia
     D. JT65

    G2D04    

  28.   Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?
     A map that shows accurate land masses
     A map that shows true bearings and distances from a particular location
     A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator
     A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit

    G2E02    

  29.   How can a PACTOR modem or controller be used to determine if the channel is in use by other PACTOR stations?
     Unplug the data connector temporarily and see if the channel-busy indication is turned off
     Put the modem or controller in a mode which allows monitoring communications without a connection
     Transmit UI packets several times and wait to see if there is a response from another PACTOR station
     Send the message, "Is this frequency in use?"

    E2E04    

  30.   What is indicated when one of the ellipses in an FSK crossed-ellipse display suddenly disappears?
     A. Selective fading has occurred
     B. One of the signal filters is saturated
     C. The receiver has drifted 5 kHz from the desired receive frequency
     D. The mark and space signal have been inverted

    G3A04    

  31.   Which of the following are least reliable for long-distance communications during periods of low solar activity?
     80 meters and 160 meters
     60 meters and 40 meters
     30 meters and 20 meters
     15 meters, 12 meters, and 10 meters

    E3A06    

  32.   Which of the following is required for microwave propagation via rain scatter?
     A. Rain droplets must be electrically charged
     B. Rain droplets must be within the E layer
     C. The rain must be within radio range of both stations
     D. All of these choices are correct

    T3A10    

  33.   What may occur if data signals arrive via multiple paths?
     Transmission rates can be increased by a factor equal to the number of separate paths observed
     Transmission rates must be decreased by a factor equal to the number of separate paths observed
     No significant changes will occur if the signals are transmitted using FM
     Error rates are likely to increase

    T3B04    

  34.   How fast does a radio wave travel through free space?
     At the speed of light
     At the speed of sound
     Its speed is inversely proportional to its wavelength
     Its speed increases as the frequency increases

    G3B06    

  35.   What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the LUF?
     They are bent back to Earth
     They pass through the ionosphere
     They are completely absorbed by the ionosphere
     They are bent and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth

    E3B08    

  36.   What type of HF propagation is probably occurring if radio signals travel along the terminator between daylight and darkness?
     A. Transequatorial
     B. Sporadic-E
     C. Long-path
     D. Gray-line

    T3C07    

  37.   What band is best suited for communicating via meteor scatter?
     10 meter band
     6 meter band
     2 meter band
     70 centimeter band

    G3C09    

  38.   What type of propagation allows signals to be heard in the transmitting station's skip zone?
     Faraday rotation
     Scatter
     Chordal hop
     Short-path

    E3C14    

  39.   Why does the radio-path horizon distance exceed the geometric horizon?
     A. E-region skip
     B. D-region skip
     C. Downward bending due to aurora refraction
     D. Downward bending due to density variations in the atmosphere

    E4A01    

  40.   Which of the following parameter determines the bandwidth of a digital or computer-based oscilloscope?
     A. Input capacitance
     B. Input impedance
     C. Sampling rate
     D. Sample resolution

    G4A04    

  41.   What reading on the plate current meter of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier indicates correct adjustment of the plate tuning control?
     A pronounced peak
     A pronounced dip
     No change will be observed
     A slow, rhythmic oscillation

    T4A09    

  42.   Which of the following could you use to cure distorted audio caused by RF current on the shield of a microphone cable?
     Band-pass filter
     Low-pass filter
     Preamplifier
     Ferrite choke

    T4B02    

  43.   Which of the following can be used to enter the operating frequency on a modern transceiver?
     The keypad or VFO knob
     The CTCSS or DTMF encoder
     The Automatic Frequency Control
     All of these choices are correct

    E4B10    

  44.   Which of the following describes a method to measure intermodulation distortion in an SSB transmitter?
     A. Modulate the transmitter with two non-harmonically related radio frequencies and observe the RF output with a spectrum analyzer
     B. Modulate the transmitter with two non-harmonically related audio frequencies and observe the RF output with a spectrum analyzer
     C. Modulate the transmitter with two harmonically related audio frequencies and observe the RF output with a peak reading wattmeter
     D. Modulate the transmitter with two harmonically related audio frequencies and observe the RF output with a logic analyzer

    G4B14    

  45.   What is an instance in which the use of an instrument with analog readout may be preferred over an instrument with a digital readout?
     When testing logic circuits
     When high precision is desired
     When measuring the frequency of an oscillator
     When adjusting tuned circuits

    E4C05    

  46.   What does a value of -174 dBm/Hz represent with regard to the noise floor of a receiver?
     A. The minimum detectable signal as a function of receive frequency
     B. The theoretical noise at the input of a perfect receiver at room temperature
     C. The noise figure of a 1 Hz bandwidth receiver
     D. The galactic noise contribution to minimum detectable signal

    G4C09    

  47.   How can a ground loop be avoided?
     Connect all ground conductors in series
     Connect the AC neutral conductor to the ground wire
     Avoid using lock washers and star washers when making ground connections
     Connect all ground conductors to a single point

    E4D04    

  48.   Which of the following may reduce or eliminate intermodulation interference in a repeater caused by another transmitter operating in close proximity?
     A. A band-pass filter in the feed line between the transmitter and receiver
     B. A properly terminated circulator at the output of the transmitter
     C. A Class C final amplifier
     D. A Class D final amplifier

    G4D07    

  49.   How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9?
     Approximately 1.5 times
     Approximately 2 times
     Approximately 4 times
     Approximately 8 times

    G4E01    

  50.   What is the purpose of a capacitance hat on a mobile antenna?
     To increase the power handling capacity of a whip antenna
     To allow automatic band changing
     To electrically lengthen a physically short antenna
     To allow remote tuning

    E4E02    

  51.   Which of the following types of receiver noise can often be reduced with a DSP noise filter?
     A. Broadband white noise
     B. Ignition noise
     C. Power line noise
     D. All of these choices are correct

    T5A04    

  52.   What is the name for a current that flows only in one direction?
     Alternating current
     Direct current
     Normal current
     Smooth current

    G5A05    

  53.   How does an inductor react to AC?
     As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
     As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
     As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
     As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

    E5A06    

  54.   What is the magnitude of the circulating current within the components of a parallel LC circuit at resonance?
     A. It is at a minimum
     B. It is at a maximum
     C. It equals 1 divided by the quantity 2 times Pi, multiplied by the square root of inductance L multiplied by capacitance C
     D. It equals 2 multiplied by Pi, multiplied by frequency, multiplied by inductance

    T5B01    

  55.   How many milliamperes is 1.5 amperes?
     15 milliamperes
     150 milliamperes
     1500 milliamperes
     15,000 milliamperes

    E5B03    

  56.   What happens to the phase angle of a reactance when it is converted to a susceptance?
     A. It is unchanged
     B. The sign is reversed
     C. It is shifted by 90 degrees
     D. The susceptance phase angle is the inverse of the reactance phase angle

    G5B14    

  57.   What is the output PEP from a transmitter if an oscilloscope measures 500 volts peak-to-peak across a 50 ohm resistive load connected to the transmitter output?
     8.75 watts
     625 watts
     2500 watts
     5000 watts

    T5C03    

  58.   What is the ability to store energy in a magnetic field called?
     Admittance
     Capacitance
     Resistance
     Inductance

    E5C05    

  59.   What is the name of the diagram used to show the phase relationship between impedances at a given frequency?
     A. Venn diagram
     B. Near field diagram
     C. Phasor diagram
     D. Far field diagram

    G5C18    

  60.   What is the value in microfarads of a 4700 nanofarad (nF) capacitor?
     47
     0.47
     47,000
     4.7

    T5D09    

  61.   What is the current through a 24-ohm resistor connected across 240 volts?
     24,000 amperes
     0.1 amperes
     10 amperes
     216 amperes

    E5D16    

  62.   What is the power factor of an R-L circuit having a 30 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current?
     A. 1.73
     B. 0.5
     C. 0.866
     D. 0.577

    G6A01    

  63.   What is the minimum allowable discharge voltage for maximum life of a standard 12 volt lead-acid battery?
     6 volts
     8.5 volts
     10.5 volts
     12 volts

    E6A03    

  64.   Why does a PN-junction diode not conduct current when reverse biased?
     A. Only P-type semiconductor material can conduct current
     B. Only N-type semiconductor material can conduct current
     C. Holes in P-type material and electrons in the N-type material are separated by the applied voltage, widening the depletion region
     D. Excess holes in P-type material combine with the electrons in N-type material, converting the entire diode into an insulator

    T6A10    

  65.   Which of the following battery types is rechargeable?
     Nickel-metal hydride
     Lithium-ion
     Lead-acid gel-cell
     All of these choices are correct

    G6B05    

  66.   What is meant when memory is characterized as non-volatile?
     It is resistant to radiation damage
     It is resistant to high temperatures
     The stored information is maintained even if power is removed
     The stored information cannot be changed once written

    T6B06    

  67.   How is the cathode lead of a semiconductor diode often marked on the package?
     With the word "cathode"
     With a stripe
     With the letter C
     With the letter K

    E6B09    

  68.   What is a common use for point contact diodes?
     A. As a constant current source
     B. As a constant voltage source
     C. As an RF detector
     D. As a high voltage rectifier

    E6C02    

  69.   What happens when the level of a comparator's input signal crosses the threshold?
     A. The IC input can be damaged
     B. The comparator changes its output state
     C. The comparator enters latch-up
     D. The feedback loop becomes unstable

    T6C05    

  70.   What is component 4 in figure T1?
     Resistor
     Transistor
     Battery
     Ground symbol

    E6D01    

  71.   How many turns will be required to produce a 5-microhenry inductor using a powdered-iron toroidal core that has an inductance index (A L) value of 40 microhenrys/100 turns?
     A. 35 turns
     B. 13 turns
     C. 79 turns
     D. 141 turns

    T6D09    

  72.   What is the name of a device that combines several semiconductors and other components into one package?
     Transducer
     Multi-pole relay
     Integrated circuit
     Transformer

    E6E09    

  73.   Which of the following component package types would be most suitable for use at frequencies above the HF range?
     A. TO-220
     B. Axial lead
     C. Radial lead
     D. Surface mount

    E6F04    

  74.   What is the photovoltaic effect?
     A. The conversion of voltage to current when exposed to light
     B. The conversion of light to electrical energy
     C. The conversion of electrical energy to mechanical energy
     D. The tendency of a battery to discharge when used outside

    T7A09    

  75.   What is the function of the SSB/CW-FM switch on a VHF power amplifier?
     Change the mode of the transmitted signal
     Set the amplifier for proper operation in the selected mode
     Change the frequency range of the amplifier to operate in the proper portion of the band
     Reduce the received signal noise

    G7A12    

  76.   Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a solid core transformer?
     Symbol 4
     Symbol 7
     Symbol 6
     Symbol 1

    E7A12    

  77.   What type of logic defines "0" as a high voltage?
     A. Reverse Logic
     B. Assertive Logic
     C. Negative logic
     D. Positive Logic

    G7B03    

  78.   Which of the following describes the function of a two-input AND gate?
     Output is high when either or both inputs are low
     Output is high only when both inputs are high
     Output is low when either or both inputs are high
     Output is low only when both inputs are high

    T7B07    

  79.   Which of the following can reduce overload to a VHF transceiver from a nearby FM broadcast station?
     RF preamplifier
     Double-shielded coaxial cable
     Using headphones instead of the speaker
     Band-reject filter

    E7B09    

  80.   Which of the following describes how the loading and tuning capacitors are to be adjusted when tuning a vacuum tube RF power amplifier that employs a Pi-network output circuit?
     A. The loading capacitor is set to maximum capacitance and the tuning capacitor is adjusted for minimum allowable plate current
     B. The tuning capacitor is set to maximum capacitance and the loading capacitor is adjusted for minimum plate permissible current
     C. The loading capacitor is adjusted to minimum plate current while alternately adjusting the tuning capacitor for maximum allowable plate current
     D. The tuning capacitor is adjusted for minimum plate current, and the loading capacitor is adjusted for maximum permissible plate current

    T7C06    

  81.   What does an SWR reading of 4:1 indicate?
     Loss of -4 dB
     Good impedance match
     Gain of +4 dB
     Impedance mismatch

    G7C11    

  82.   What is meant by the term "software-defined radio" (SDR)?
     A radio in which most major signal processing functions are performed by software
     A radio that provides computer interface for automatic logging of band and frequency
     A radio that uses crystal filters designed using software
     A computer model that can simulate performance of a radio to aid in the design process

    E7C13    

  83.   What is one advantage of a Pi-matching network over an L-matching network consisting of a single inductor and a single capacitor?
     A. The Q of Pi-networks can be varied depending on the component values chosen
     B. L-networks cannot perform impedance transformation
     C. Pi-networks have fewer components
     D. Pi-networks are designed for balanced input and output

    T7D05    

  84.   What instrument is used to measure resistance?
     An oscilloscope
     A spectrum analyzer
     A noise bridge
     An ohmmeter

    E7D11    

  85.   What circuit element is controlled by a series analog voltage regulator to maintain a constant output voltage?
     A. Reference voltage
     B. Switching inductance
     C. Error amplifier
     D. Pass transistor

    E7E12    

  86.   What is a frequency discriminator stage in a FM receiver?
     A. An FM generator circuit
     B. A circuit for filtering two closely adjacent signals
     C. An automatic band-switching circuit
     D. A circuit for detecting FM signals

    E7F09    

  87.   Why is an anti-aliasing digital filter required in a digital decimator?
     A. It removes high-frequency signal components which would otherwise be reproduced as lower frequency components
     B. It peaks the response of the decimator, improving bandwidth
     C. It removes low frequency signal components to eliminate the need for DC restoration
     D. It notches out the sampling frequency to avoid sampling errors

    E7G09    

  88.   What will be the output voltage of the circuit shown in Figure E7-4 if R1 is 1000 ohms, RF is 10,000 ohms, and 0.23 volts DC is applied to the input?
     A. 0.23 volts
     B. 2.3 volts
     C. -0.23 volts
     D. -2.3 volts

    E7H01    

  89.   What are three oscillator circuits used in Amateur Radio equipment?
     A. Taft, Pierce and negative feedback
     B. Pierce, Fenner and Beane
     C. Taft, Hartley and Pierce
     D. Colpitts, Hartley and Pierce

    T8A05    

  90.   Which of the following types of emission has the narrowest bandwidth?
     FM voice
     SSB voice
     CW
     Slow-scan TV

    E8A06    

  91.   What is the approximate ratio of PEP-to-average power in a typical single-sideband phone signal?
     A. 2.5 to 1
     B. 25 to 1
     C. 1 to 1
     D. 100 to 1

    G8A06    

  92.   Which of the following is characteristic of QPSK31?
     It is sideband sensitive
     Its encoding provides error correction
     Its bandwidth is approximately the same as BPSK31
     All these choices are correct

    G8B05    

  93.   What is the approximate bandwidth of a PACTOR-III signal at maximum data rate?
     31.5 Hz
     500 Hz
     1800 Hz
     2300 Hz

    T8B06    

  94.   Which of the following are inputs to a satellite tracking program?
     The weight of the satellite
     The Keplerian elements
     The last observed time of zero Doppler shift
     All of these choices are correct

    E8B08    

  95.   What describes Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing?
     A. A frequency modulation technique which uses non-harmonically related frequencies
     B. A bandwidth compression technique using Fourier transforms
     C. A digital mode for narrow band, slow speed transmissions
     D. A digital modulation technique using subcarriers at frequencies chosen to avoid intersymbol interference

    G8C06    

  96.   What action results from a failure to exchange information due to excessive transmission attempts when using PACTOR or WINMOR?
     The checksum overflows
     The connection is dropped
     Packets will be routed incorrectly
     Encoding reverts to the default character set

    E8C10    

  97.   What is an advantage of Gray code in digital communications where symbols are transmitted as multiple bits
     A. It increases security
     B. It has more possible states than simple binary
     C. It has more resolution than simple binary
     D. It facilitates error detection

    T8C10    

  98.   What must be done before you may use the EchoLink system to communicate using a repeater?
     You must complete the required EchoLink training
     You must have purchased a license to use the EchoLink software
     You must be sponsored by a current EchoLink user
     You must register your call sign and provide proof of license

    E8D04    

  99.   What is the primary effect of extremely short rise or fall time on a CW signal?
     A. More difficult to copy
     B. The generation of RF harmonics
     C. The generation of key clicks
     D. Limits data speed

    T8D07    

  100.   Which of the following best describes DMR (Digital Mobile Radio)?
     A technique for time-multiplexing two digital voice signals on a single 12.5 kHz repeater channel
     An automatic position tracking mode for FM mobiles communicating through repeaters
     An automatic computer logging technique for hands-off logging when communicating while operating a vehicle
     A digital technique for transmitting on two repeater inputs simultaneously for automatic error correction

    G9A03    

  101.   What is the typical characteristic impedance of "window line" parallel transmission line?
     50 ohms
     75 ohms
     100 ohms
     450 ohms

    T9A10    

  102.   In which direction does a half-wave dipole antenna radiate the strongest signal?
     Equally in all directions
     Off the ends of the antenna
     Broadside to the antenna
     In the direction of the feed line

    E9A18    

  103.   What term describes station output, taking into account all gains and losses?
     A. Power factor
     B. Half-power bandwidth
     C. Effective radiated power
     D. Apparent power

    T9B02    

  104.   What is the impedance of most coaxial cables used in amateur radio installations?
     8 ohms
     50 ohms
     600 ohms
     12 ohms

    E9B06    

  105.   What is the elevation angle of peak response in the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?
     A. 45 degrees
     B. 75 degrees
     C. 7.5 degrees
     D. 25 degrees

    G9B08    

  106.   How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed point is moved from the center toward the ends?
     It steadily increases
     It steadily decreases
     It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength from the end
     It is unaffected by the location of the feed point

    E9C08    

  107.   What is a folded dipole antenna?
     A. A dipole one-quarter wavelength long
     B. A type of ground-plane antenna
     C. A dipole consisting of one wavelength of wire forming a very thin loop
     D. A dipole configured to provide forward gain

    G9C12    

  108.   Which of the following is an advantage of using a gamma match with a Yagi antenna?
     It does not require that the driven element be insulated from the boom
     It does not require any inductors or capacitors
     It is useful for matching multiband antennas
     All these choices are correct

    G9D04    

  109.   What is the primary purpose of antenna traps?
     To permit multiband operation
     To notch spurious frequencies
     To provide balanced feed-point impedance
     To prevent out-of-band operation

    E9D10    

  110.   What happens to feed point impedance at the base of a fixed length HF mobile antenna as the frequency of operation is lowered?
     A. The radiation resistance decreases and the capacitive reactance decreases
     B. The radiation resistance decreases and the capacitive reactance increases
     C. The radiation resistance increases and the capacitive reactance decreases
     D. The radiation resistance increases and the capacitive reactance increases

    E9E07    

  111.   What term best describes the interactions at the load end of a mismatched transmission line?
     A. Characteristic impedance
     B. Reflection coefficient
     C. Velocity factor
     D. Dielectric constant

    E9F11    

  112.   What impedance does a 1/8 wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at the far end?
     A. The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
     B. An inductive reactance
     C. A capacitive reactance
     D. The same as the input impedance of the final generator stage

    E9G02    

  113.   What type of coordinate system is used in a Smith chart?
     A. Voltage circles and current arcs
     B. Resistance circles and reactance arcs
     C. Voltage lines and current chords
     D. Resistance lines and reactance chords

    E9H05    

  114.   What is the main drawback of a wire-loop antenna for direction finding?
     A. It has a bidirectional pattern
     B. It is non-rotatable
     C. It receives equally well in all directions
     D. It is practical for use only on VHF bands

    G0A04    

  115.   What does "time averaging" mean in reference to RF radiation exposure?
     The average amount of power developed by the transmitter over a specific 24-hour period
     The average time it takes RF radiation to have any long-term effect on the body
     The total time of the exposure
     The total RF exposure averaged over a certain time

    E0A06    

  116.   Why are there separate electric (E) and magnetic (H) field MPE limits?
     A. The body reacts to electromagnetic radiation from both the E and H fields
     B. Ground reflections and scattering make the field impedance vary with location
     C. E field and H field radiation intensity peaks can occur at different locations
     D. All of these choices are correct

    T0A11    

  117.   What kind of hazard might exist in a power supply when it is turned off and disconnected?
     Static electricity could damage the grounding system
     Circulating currents inside the transformer might cause damage
     The fuse might blow if you remove the cover
     You might receive an electric shock from the charge stored in large capacitors

    T0B04    

  118.   Which of the following is an important safety precaution to observe when putting up an antenna tower?
     Wear a ground strap connected to your wrist at all times
     Insulate the base of the tower to avoid lightning strikes
     Look for and stay clear of any overhead electrical wires
     All of these choices are correct

    G0B07    

  119.   Which of these choices should be observed when climbing a tower using a safety belt or harness?
     Never lean back and rely on the belt alone to support your weight
     Confirm that the belt is rated for the weight of the climber and that it is within its allowable service life
     Ensure that all heavy tools are securely fastened to the belt D-ring
     All these choices are correct

    T0C13    

  120.   If the averaging time for exposure is 6 minutes, how much power density is permitted if the signal is present for 3 minutes and absent for 3 minutes rather than being present for the entire 6 minutes?
     3 times as much
     1/2 as much
     2 times as much
     There is no adjustment allowed for shorter exposure times