Manager


Manager - WD4DAT
Manager Notes

Practice Exam - Extra

E1A05 [97.313]
1. What is the maximum power output permitted on the 60 meter band?
A. 50 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to an isotropic radiator
B. 50 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to a dipole
C. 100 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to the gain of a half-wave dipole
D. 100 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to an isotropic radiator

E1B01 [97.3]
2. Which of the following constitutes a spurious emission?
A. An amateur station transmission made at random without the proper call sign identification
B. A signal transmitted to prevent its detection by any station other than the intended recipient
C. Any transmitted signal that unintentionally interferes with another licensed radio station
D. An emission outside its necessary bandwidth that can be reduced or eliminated without affecting the information transmitted

E1C13
3. Which of the following is required in order to operate in accordance with CEPT rules in foreign countries where permitted?
A. You must identify in the official language of the country in which you are operating
B. The U.S. embassy must approve of your operation
C. You must bring a copy of FCC Public Notice DA 11-221
D. You must append "/CEPT" to your call sign

E1D09 [97.207]
4. Which UHF amateur service bands have frequencies available for a space station?
A. 70 cm only
B. 70 cm and 13 cm
C. 70 cm and 33 cm
D. 33 cm and 13 cm

E1E05 [97.503]
5. What is the minimum passing score on amateur operator license examinations?
A. Minimum passing score of 70%
B. Minimum passing score of 74%
C. Minimum passing score of 80%
D. Minimum passing score of 77%

E1F06 [1.931]
6. Under what circumstances might the FCC issue a Special Temporary Authority (STA) to an amateur station?
A. To provide for experimental amateur communications
B. To allow regular operation on Land Mobile channels
C. To provide additional spectrum for personal use
D. To provide temporary operation while awaiting normal licensing

E2A11
7. What type of antenna can be used to minimize the effects of spin modulation and Faraday rotation?
A. A linearly polarized antenna
B. A circularly polarized antenna
C. An isotropic antenna
D. A log-periodic dipole array

E2B13
8. How many lines are commonly used in each frame of an amateur slow-scan color television picture?
A. 30 or 60
B. 60 or 100
C. 128 or 256
D. 180 or 360

E2C06
9. During a VHF/UHF contest, in which band segment would you expect to find the highest level of activity?
A. At the top of each band, usually in a segment reserved for contests
B. In the middle of each band, usually on the national calling frequency
C. In the weak signal segment of the band, with most of the activity near the calling frequency
D. In the middle of the band, usually 25 kHz above the national calling frequency

E2D03
10. Which of the following digital modes is especially useful for EME communications?
A. FSK441
B. PACTOR III
C. Olivia
D. JT65

E2E06
11. What is the most common data rate used for HF packet?
A. 48 baud
B. 110 baud
C. 300 baud
D. 1200 baud

E3A01
12. What is the approximate maximum separation measured along the surface of the Earth between two stations communicating by Moon bounce?
A. 500 miles, if the Moon is at perigee
B. 2000 miles, if the Moon is at apogee
C. 5000 miles, if the Moon is at perigee
D. 12,000 miles, if the Moon is visible by both stations

E3B12
13. What is the primary characteristic of chordal hop propagation?
A. Propagation away from the great circle bearing between stations
B. Successive ionospheric reflections without an intermediate reflection from the ground
C. Propagation across the geomagnetic equator
D. Signals reflected back toward the transmitting station

E3C07
14. Which of the following descriptors indicates the greatest solar flare intensity?
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class M
D. Class X

E4A04
15. What determines the upper frequency limit for a computer soundcard-based oscilloscope program?
A. Analog-to-digital conversion speed of the soundcard
B. Amount of memory on the soundcard
C. Q of the interface of the interface circuit
D. All of these choices are correct

E4B05
16. If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 10 ppm reads 146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the reading?
A. 146.52 Hz
B. 10 Hz
C. 146.52 kHz
D. 1465.20 Hz

E4C10
17. Which of the following is a desirable amount of selectivity for an amateur RTTY HF receiver?
A. 100 Hz
B. 300 Hz
C. 6000 Hz
D. 2400 Hz

E4D13
18. Which of the following can cause receiver desensitization?
A. Audio gain adjusted too low
B. Strong adjacent channel signals
C. Audio bias adjusted too high
D. Squelch gain misadjusted

E4E07
19. How can you determine if line noise interference is being generated within your home?
A. By checking the power line voltage with a time domain reflectometer
B. By observing the AC power line waveform with an oscilloscope
C. By turning off the AC power line main circuit breaker and listening on a battery operated radio
D. By observing the AC power line voltage with a spectrum analyzer

E5A15
20. Which of the following can increase Q for inductors and capacitors?
A. Lower losses
B. Lower reactance
C. Lower self-resonant frequency
D. Higher self-resonant frequency

E5B10
21. What is the relationship between the current through an inductor and the voltage across an inductor?
A. Voltage leads current by 90 degrees
B. Current leads voltage by 90 degrees
C. Voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
D. Voltage and current are in phase

E5C08
22. What coordinate system is often used to display the phase angle of a circuit containing resistance, inductive and/or capacitive reactance?
A. Maidenhead grid
B. Faraday grid
C. Elliptical coordinates
D. Polar coordinates

E5D05
23. Which parasitic characteristic increases with conductor length?
A. Inductance
B. Permeability
C. Permittivity
D. Malleability

E6A12
24. Why do many MOSFET devices have internally connected Zener diodes on the gates?
A. To provide a voltage reference for the correct amount of reverse-bias gate voltage
B. To protect the substrate from excessive voltages
C. To keep the gate voltage within specifications and prevent the device from overheating
D. To reduce the chance of the gate insulation being punctured by static discharges or excessive voltages

E6B02
25. What is an important characteristic of a Schottky diode as compared to an ordinary silicon diode when used as a power supply rectifier?
A. Much higher reverse voltage breakdown
B. Controlled reverse avalanche voltage
C. Enhanced carrier retention time
D. Less forward voltage drop

E6C09
26. What is a Programmable Logic Device (PLD)?
A. A device to control industrial equipment
B. A programmable collection of logic gates and circuits in a single integrated circuit
C. Programmable equipment used for testing digital logic integrated circuits
D. An algorithm for simulating logic functions during circuit design

E6D06
27. What core material property determines the inductance of a toroidal inductor?
A. Thermal impedance
B. Resistance
C. Reactivity
D. Permeability

E6E02
28. Which of the following device packages is a through-hole type?
A. DIP
B. PLCC
C. Ball grid array
D. SOT

E6F14
29. Which of the following is true of LCD displays?
A. They are hard to view in high ambient light conditions
B. They may be hard view through polarized lenses
C. They only display alphanumeric symbols
D. All of these choices are correct

E7A05
30. Which of the following is a circuit that continuously alternates between two states without an external clock?
A. Monostable multivibrator
B. J-K flip-flop
C. T flip-flop
D. Astable multivibrator

E7B17
31. Why are odd-order rather than even-order intermodulation distortion products of concern in linear power amplifiers?
A. Because they are relatively close in frequency to the desired signal
B. Because they are relatively far in frequency from the desired signal
C. Because they invert the sidebands causing distortion
D. Because they maintain the sidebands, thus causing multiple duplicate signals

E7C13
32. What is one advantage of a Pi-matching network over an L-matching network consisting of a single inductor and a single capacitor?
A. The Q of Pi-networks can be varied depending on the component values chosen
B. L-networks cannot perform impedance transformation
C. Pi-networks have fewer components
D. Pi-networks are designed for balanced input and output

E7D10
33. What is the primary reason that a high-frequency switching type high voltage power supply can be both less expensive and lighter in weight than a conventional power supply?
A. The inverter design does not require any output filtering
B. It uses a diode bridge rectifier for increased output
C. The high frequency inverter design uses much smaller transformers and filter components for an equivalent power output
D. It uses a large power factor compensation capacitor to create free power from the unused portion of the AC cycle

E7E11
34. Which type of detector is used for demodulating SSB signals?
A. Discriminator
B. Phase detector
C. Product detector
D. Phase comparator

E7F10
35. What aspect of receiver analog-to-digital conversion determines the maximum receive bandwidth of a Direct Digital Conversion SDR?
A. Sample rate
B. Sample width in bits
C. Sample clock phase noise
D. Processor latency

E7G04
36. What is meant by the term op-amp input offset voltage?
A. The output voltage of the op-amp minus its input voltage
B. The difference between the output voltage of the op-amp and the input voltage required in the immediately following stage
C. The differential input voltage needed to bring the open loop output voltage to zero
D. The potential between the amplifier input terminals of the op-amp in an open loop condition

E7H01
37. What are three oscillator circuits used in Amateur Radio equipment?
A. Taft, Pierce and negative feedback
B. Pierce, Fenner and Beane
C. Taft, Hartley and Pierce
D. Colpitts, Hartley and Pierce

E8A09
38. How many levels can an analog-to-digital converter with 8 bit resolution encode?
A. 8
B. 8 multiplied by the gain of the input amplifier
C. 256 divided by the gain of the input amplifier
D. 256

E8B02
39. How does the modulation index of a phase-modulated emission vary with RF carrier frequency (the modulated frequency)?
A. It increases as the RF carrier frequency increases
B. It decreases as the RF carrier frequency increases
C. It varies with the square root of the RF carrier frequency
D. It does not depend on the RF carrier frequency

E8C08
40. How does ARQ accomplish error correction?
A. Special binary codes provide automatic correction
B. Special polynomial codes provide automatic correction
C. If errors are detected, redundant data is substituted
D. If errors are detected, a retransmission is requested

E8D10
41. What are some of the differences between the Baudot digital code and ASCII?
A. Baudot uses 4 data bits per character, ASCII uses 7 or 8; Baudot uses 1 character as a letters/figures shift code, ASCII has no letters/figures code
B. Baudot uses 5 data bits per character, ASCII uses 7 or 8; Baudot uses 2 characters as letters/figures shift codes, ASCII has no letters/figures shift code
C. Baudot uses 6 data bits per character, ASCII uses 7 or 8; Baudot has no letters/figures shift code, ASCII uses 2 letters/figures shift codes
D. Baudot uses 7 data bits per character, ASCII uses 8; Baudot has no letters/figures shift code, ASCII uses 2 letters/figures shift codes

E9A14
42. What is meant by the radiation resistance of an antenna?
A. The combined losses of the antenna elements and feed line
B. The specific impedance of the antenna
C. The value of a resistance that would dissipate the same amount of power as that radiated from an antenna
D. The resistance in the atmosphere that an antenna must overcome to be able to radiate a signal

E9B02
43. In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the front-to-back ratio?
A. 36 dB
B. 18 dB
C. 24 dB
D. 14 dB

E9C03
44. What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4 wavelength vertical antennas spaced a 1/2 wavelength apart and fed in phase?
A. Omni-directional
B. Cardioid
C. A Figure-8 broadside to the axis of the array
D. A Figure-8 end-fire along the axis of the array

E9D04
45. Why should an HF mobile antenna loading coil have a high ratio of reactance to resistance?
A. To swamp out harmonics
B. To maximize losses
C. To minimize losses
D. To minimize the Q

E9E13
46. What is a use for a Wilkinson divider?
A. It divides the operating frequency of a transmitter signal so it can be used on a lower frequency band
B. It is used to feed high-impedance antennas from a low-impedance source
C. It is used to divide power equally between two 50 ohm loads while maintaining 50 ohm input impedance
D. It is used to feed low-impedance loads from a high-impedance source

E9F01
47. What is the velocity factor of a transmission line?
A. The ratio of the characteristic impedance of the line to the terminating impedance
B. The index of shielding for coaxial cable
C. The velocity of the wave in the transmission line multiplied by the velocity of light in a vacuum
D. The velocity of the wave in the transmission line divided by the velocity of light in a vacuum

E9G07
48. On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the only straight line shown?
A. The reactance axis
B. The current axis
C. The voltage axis
D. The resistance axis

E9H10
49. How can the output voltage of a multiple turn receiving loop antenna be increased?
A. By reducing the permeability of the loop shield
B. By increasing the number of wire turns in the loop and reducing the area of the loop structure
C. By winding adjacent turns in opposing directions
D. By increasing either the number of wire turns in the loop or the area of the loop structure or both

E0A05
50. What is one of the potential hazards of using microwaves in the amateur radio bands?
A. Microwaves are ionizing radiation
B. The high gain antennas commonly used can result in high exposure levels
C. Microwaves often travel long distances by ionospheric reflection
D. The extremely high frequency energy can damage the joints of antenna structures