Manager


Manager - WD4DAT
Manager Notes

Practice Exam - General

G1A06 [97.301(d)]
1. Which of the following frequencies is within the General class portion of the 75-meter phone band?
1875 kHz
3750 kHz
3900 kHz
4005 kHz

G1B10 [97.203(c)]
2. What is the power limit for beacon stations?
10 watts PEP output
20 watts PEP output
100 watts PEP output
200 watts PEP output

G1C05 [97.313]
3. What is the limit for transmitter power on the 28 MHz band for a General Class control operator?
100 watts PEP output
1000 watts PEP output
1500 watts PEP output
2000 watts PEP output

G1D03 [97.9(b)]
4. On which of the following band segments may you operate if you are a Technician class operator and have a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) for General class privileges?
Only the Technician band segments until your upgrade is posted in the FCC database
Only on the Technician band segments until your license arrives in the mail
On any General or Technician class band segment
On any General or Technician class band segment except 30 meters and 60 meters

G1E09 [97.115]
5. Under what circumstances are messages that are sent via digital modes exempt from Part 97 third-party rules that apply to other modes of communication?
Under no circumstances
When messages are encrypted
When messages are not encrypted
When under automatic control

G2A02
6. Which of the following modes is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-meter, 75-meter, and 40-meter bands?
Upper sideband
Lower sideband
Vestigial sideband
Double sideband

G2B09 [97.407(a)]
7. Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?
Only a person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license
Only a RACES net control operator
A person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license or an appropriate government official
Any control operator when normal communication systems are operational

G2C06
8. What does the term "zero beat" mean in CW operation?
Matching the speed of the transmitting station
Operating split to avoid interference on frequency
Sending without error
Matching the transmit frequency to the frequency of a received signal

G2D03
9. What skills learned during hidden transmitter hunts are of help to the Volunteer Monitoring Program?
Identification of out-of-band operation
Direction finding used to locate stations violating FCC rules
Identification of different call signs
Hunters have an opportunity to transmit on non-amateur frequencies

G2E15
10. Which of the following is a requirement when using the FT8 digital mode?
A special hardware modem
Computer time accurate within approximately 1 second
Receiver attenuator set to -12 dB
A vertically polarized antenna

G3A11
11. How long does it take charged particles from coronal mass ejections to affect radio propagation on Earth?
28 days
14 days
4 to 8 minutes
20 to 40 hours

G3B09
12. What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?
180 miles
1,200 miles
2,500 miles
12,000 miles

G3C10
13. What is Near Vertical Incidence Skywave (NVIS) propagation?
Propagation near the MUF
Short distance MF or HF propagation using high elevation angles
Long path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset
Double hop propagation near the LUF

G4A01
14. What is the purpose of the "notch filter" found on many HF transceivers?
To restrict the transmitter voice bandwidth
To reduce interference from carriers in the receiver passband
To eliminate receiver interference from impulse noise sources
To enhance the reception of a specific frequency on a crowded band

G4B04
15. What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?
The local oscillator of the transmitter
An external RF oscillator
The transmitter balanced mixer output
The attenuated RF output of the transmitter

G4C06
16. What effect can be caused by a resonant ground connection?
Overheating of ground straps
Corrosion of the ground rod
High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment
A ground loop

G4D07
17. How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9?
Approximately 1.5 times
Approximately 2 times
Approximately 4 times
Approximately 8 times

G4E07
18. Which of the following may cause receive interference in a radio installed in a vehicle?
The battery charging system
The fuel delivery system
The vehicle control computer
All these choices are correct

G5A05
19. How does an inductor react to AC?
As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

G5B09
20. What is the RMS voltage of a sine wave with a value of 17 volts peak?
8.5 volts
12 volts
24 volts
34 volts

G5C08
21. What is the equivalent capacitance of two 5.0 nanofarad capacitors and one 750 picofarad capacitor connected in parallel?
576.9 nanofarads
1733 picofarads
3583 picofarads
10.750 nanofarads

G6A04
22. Which of the following is an advantage of an electrolytic capacitor?
Tight tolerance
Much less leakage than any other type
High capacitance for a given volume
Inexpensive RF capacitor

G6B12
23. Which of these connector types is commonly used for audio signals in Amateur Radio stations?
PL-259
BNC
RCA Phono
Type N

G7A11
24. Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents an NPN junction transistor?
Symbol 1
Symbol 2
Symbol 7
Symbol 11

G7B07
25. Which of the following are basic components of a sine wave oscillator?
An amplifier and a divider
A frequency multiplier and a mixer
A circulator and a filter operating in a feed-forward loop
A filter and an amplifier operating in a feedback loop

G7C01
26. Which of the following is used to process signals from the balanced modulator then send them to the mixer in some single sideband phone transmitters?
Carrier oscillator
Filter
IF amplifier
RF amplifier

G8A04
27. What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage?
Multiplex modulation
Phase modulation
Amplitude modulation
Pulse modulation

G8B09
28. Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?
It is required by FCC rules
It minimizes power consumption in the receiver
It improves impedance matching of the antenna
It results in the best signal-to-noise ratio

G8C04
29. Which of the following describes Baudot code?
A 7-bit code with start, stop, and parity bits
A code using error detection and correction
A 5-bit code with additional start and stop bits
A code using SELCAL and LISTEN

G9A01
30. Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor antenna feed line?
The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors
The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line
The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal
The frequency of the signal and the length of the line

G9B04
31. What is the radiation pattern of a dipole antenna in free space in a plane containing the conductor?
It is a figure-eight at right angles to the antenna
It is a figure-eight off both ends of the antenna
It is a circle (equal radiation in all directions)
It has a pair of lobes on one side of the antenna and a single lobe on the other side

G9C07
32. What does "front-to-back ratio" mean in reference to a Yagi antenna?
The number of directors versus the number of reflectors
The relative position of the driven element with respect to the reflectors and directors
The power radiated in the major radiation lobe compared to that in the opposite direction
The ratio of forward gain to dipole gain

G9D09
33. What is the primary use of a Beverage antenna?
Directional receiving for low HF bands
Directional transmitting for low HF bands
Portable direction finding at higher HF frequencies
Portable direction finding at lower HF frequencies

G0A06
34. What precaution should be taken when installing a ground-mounted antenna?
It should not be installed higher than you can reach
It should not be installed in a wet area
It should be limited to 10 feet in height
It should be installed such that it is protected against unauthorized access

G0B11
35. Which of the following is good practice for lightning protection grounds?
They must be bonded to all buried water and gas lines
Bends in ground wires must be made as close as possible to a right angle
Lightning grounds must be connected to all ungrounded wiring
They must be bonded together with all other grounds